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Question 1
Correct
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Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow.
Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?Your Answer: Completed family
Explanation:Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.
Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks gestation.
One week ago, she had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done which showed grade 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3).
What is the best next step in her management?Your Answer: Colposcopy and large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy).
Correct Answer: Colposcopy.
Explanation:The best next step in her management is a colposcopy.
Patients diagnosed with high-grade lesions (CIN 2 or 3) or adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) during pregnancy should undergo surveillance via colposcopy and age-based testing (cytology/HPV) every 12-24 weeks.
Cone biopsy and long loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy) are not recommended if the lesion extends up the canal and out of the vision of the colposcope.
It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy.Because repeat colposcopic examination during pregnancy offers all of the information needed, the repeat Pap smear is best done after the pregnancy has ended.
Unless colposcopy indicates aggressive cancer at an earlier time, the ultimate therapy required is usually not decided until the postpartum visit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy menstruation. She had normal menstrual pattern 6 months back. Physical examination revealed no abnormality with a negative cervical smear. Laboratory investigation reveals a haemoglobin of 105g/L (Normal 115-165g/L). The most common cause of such menorrhagia is?
Your Answer: Anovulatory cycles.
Explanation:Menorrhagia in a 45-year-old woman is most likely caused by an ovulation issue, most likely anovulatory cycles, particularly if the periods have grown irregular.
Endometrial carcinoma is a rare cause of menorrhagia that usually occurs after menopause.
Menorrhagia can be caused by fibroids, endometrial polyps, and adenomyosis, although the cycles are normally regular, and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months prior would be exceptional.
If fibroids or adenomyosis are the source of the menorrhagia, the uterus is usually enlarged. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 19-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of painful menses for the past year. She was given NSAIDs at first, then OCPs after the NSAIDs failed to control her symptoms. OCP has also struggled to regulate the painful menses.
Which of the following would be the best next step in your management?Your Answer: Dilation and curettage
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Adolescents who fail to respond to first- or second-line treatment and have recurrent symptoms or have symptoms that worsen over time should be re-evaluated for other possible and serious causes of secondary dysmenorrhea such as endometriosis, uterine leiomyomas, polyps, or pelvic pathologies.
When pelvic pathology is suspected, abdominal and transvaginal ultrasonography should be used as first-line investigation. However, transvaginal ultrasound is more accurate and the preferred option if possible.
CT scan is not indicated in the assessment of dysmenorrhea.
D&C and laparoscopy can be considered as treatment options once a diagnosis has been established but can not be used as primary steps in diagnosis of dysmenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.
She has a history of extremely irregular menstrual cycles with the duration varying between four and ten weeks.
She had attended her routine review appointment one week prior to her current presentation.
At that time she had stated that her last period had occurred six weeks previously.
You had recommended the following tests for which the results are as shown below:
Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3 IU/L (<13)
Serum luteinising hormone (LH): *850 IU/L (4-10 in follicular phase, 20-100 at mid-cycle)
Serum prolactin (PRL): 475 mU/L (50-500)
Which one of the following is the most probable reason for her amenorrhoea?Your Answer: Early pregnancy.
Explanation:All of the options provided could cause amenorrhoea and therefore need to be evaluated.
The luteinising hormone (LH) level reported here is exceedingly elevated. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is unlikely to have such a raised level, but it could be because of a LH-producing adenoma. Such tumours are, however, extremely rare.
Early pregnancy (correct answer) is the most likely cause of this woman’s elevated LH level. This would be due to the presence of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone that is produced during pregnancy.
LH and beta-HCG both have similar beta-subunits and cross-reactions are commonly noted in LH assays.
The serum prolactin (PRL) level is at the upper end of the normal range and this correlates to the levels observed in the early stages of pregnancy.
The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels remain low during early pregnancy.
If her amenorrhea had been caused by stress from her recent marriage, the LH level would have been normal or low.
If the cause was premature ovarian failure, the FSH level would have been significantly higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL).
Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia.
Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?Your Answer: Repeat the Pap smear in 3 to 6 months
Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix
Explanation:When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.
In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. Her past medical history is insignificant, she is non-alcoholic and is not taking any medicine.
The most likely diagnosis with such a presentation is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premenstrual syndrome
Explanation:As the most likely diagnosis, this woman meets diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
Affective and physical symptoms that begin one week before menstruation and end four days after menstrual flow begins are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome. The symptoms must be present for at least three menstrual cycles and must not occur during the preovulatory period.
It’s critical to note that these symptoms are not caused by any medical or psychological condition, medications, drugs, or alcohol.Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent tears, and a lack of interest in daily activities. To put it another way, emotional impairment is the most prominent trait.
This woman does not meet the diagnostic criteria for PMDD because she only has psychological symptoms of irritation and anxiety, as well as physical symptoms of headache and breast soreness (five symptoms).
PMDD diagnostic criteria include:
Symptoms and their timing
A) At least 5 symptoms must be present in the final week before menses, improve within a few days after menses, and become mild or non-existent in the week after menses in the majority of menstrual cycles.
Symptoms
B) At least one of the symptoms listed below must be present:
1) Affective lability that is noticeable (e.g., mood swings, feeling suddenly sad or tearful, or increased sensitivity to rejection)
2) Excessive irritation, wrath, or interpersonal conflicts
3) Depressed mood, hopelessness, and self-depreciating thoughts
4) Severe anxiety, tension, and/or a sense of being tense or on edge
C) In addition to the symptoms listed in criterion B, one (or more) of the following symptoms must also be present to reach a total of five symptoms.
1) Loss of enthusiasm for customary activities
2) Subjective concentration problems
3) Lethargy, fatigability, or a noticeable lack of energy
4) Significant changes in appetite, such as binge eating or specific food desires
5) Insomnia or hypersomnia
6) A feeling of being overwhelmed or powerless
7) Physical signs and symptoms include breast discomfort or swelling, joint or muscle pain, bloating, or weight gain.
Severity
D)The symptoms are linked to clinically substantial distress or interfere with employment, school, regular social activities, or interpersonal relationships.
E) Think about other mental illnesses. The disturbance isn’t only a sign of another disorder, like major depressive disorder, panic disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), or a personality disorder (although it may co-occur with any of these disorders).
Confirmation of the condition
F)Prospective daily ratings throughout at least two symptomatic cycles should be used to confirm Criterion A. (although a provisional diagnosis may be made prior to this confirmation)
Other medical explanations are ruled out.
G) The symptoms aren’t caused by the physiological consequences of a substance (e.g., drug misuse, medication, or other treatment) or a medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).
The severity of the symptoms cannot be explained by normal menstrual physiology.
Generalized anxiety disorder and depression are improbable diagnoses because these symptoms are temporally tied to menstrual cycles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey vaginal discharge. Bacteria adhering to vaginal epithelial cells are visible under light microscopy using a wet mount preparation.
Which of the following creatures is most likely to be a pathogen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Gardnerella vaginalis is one of the bacteria implicated in the development of bacterial vaginosis , many women (>50%) with this vaginal infection have no signs or symptoms, when these are present they are most often :
Vaginal discharge, grey, white or green, with a strong unpleasant odour
Strong vaginal odour and fishy smell after sex
Vaginal itching
Burning during urination
Vaginal bleeding after sex
Gardnerella vaginalis can also be responsible for serious infections (sepsis, wound infections) in locations other than those associated with the genital tract or obstetrics, these cases are very rare but have been reported, including in men.Mycoplasma Hominis is one of the organisms involved in the pathogenesis of BV but it appears normal on wet mount.
Candida presents with white cottage cheese like discharge.
Chlamydia is not seen on wet mount and produces clear vaginal discharge.
Trichomonas shows clue cells on wet mount.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple accompanied by redness, excoriations, and severe itchiness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast
Explanation:Paget’s disease of the breast is a type of cancer that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast. Symptoms may include redness of the nipple skin and crusting may occur around the area. In more advance cases, symptoms may include itching or a burning pain in the nipple.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman, with a history of bilateral tubal ligation, presents with regular but excessively heavy periods. She has a history of multiple uterine leiomyoma and her uterus is the size of a 12-week pregnancy.
Pap smear is normal; haemoglobin level is 93 g/L. She underwent dilatation and curettage 8 months ago but it did not result in symptom improvement nor was it able to find the underlying cause of her symptoms.
Which is the best next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy
Explanation:Oral progestogen therapy for 21 days (day 5-26) is considered effective but is only a short-term therapy for menorrhagia. Myomectomy should only be considered if the woman would like to conceive later on. Due to the recurrent nature of fibroids, it is likely that the woman would need more surgeries in the future, which is not ideal. Furthermore, if there is a large number of fibroids or the size of the fibroids are large, myomectomy would not be an option for reasons such as the feasibility. If myomectomy for multiple fibroids prove to be unsuccessful, the ultimate outcome would still have to be a hysterectomy.
In cases where there is significant enlargement of the uterus, endometrial ablation would be difficult and the long-term cure rate of symptoms would be considerably low. The best next step would be a total abdominal hysterectomy since it would solve her menorrhagia and within a few years’ time, she would be expected to attain menopause anyway. Ponstan or mefenamic acid has been found to be superior to tranexamic acid for menorrhagia. However, it can still prove to be ineffective in some cases and also not a long term solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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When a 75-year-old lady laughs, sneezes, coughs, or lifts big weights, she leaks pee. She also claims that she has the urge to pass pee 10-12 times a day, and that she can't go to the restroom half of the time. She appears to have a harder time with urgency. Infections are not found in a urine test. Except for a residual amount of 125cc, an ultrasound scan of the bladder, ureter, and kidneys is inconclusive.
Which of the following treatment options is the best fit for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bladder training
Explanation:This woman has mixed incontinence, which includes signs and symptoms of both stresses and urges incontinence. The urge, on the other hand, irritates her. Bladder training would be the most appropriate management approach to investigate first for women with urge incontinence as the most troublesome symptom. The objectives are:
– Using a bladder diary to establish a baseline
– Creating a voiding schedule
– Over a long period, gradually increase the voiding interval in increments of 2- 5 minutes, to void every 3 hours.
– Other important strategies to consider are lifestyle changes like reducing fluid intake, losing weight, and avoiding diuretics-producing foods and beverages (e.g., alcoholic beverages, caffeine, etc).When urge incontinence does not respond to physical or behavioural therapy, anticholinergics along with ongoing bladder training are an alternative. A 4- to 6-week trial is employed. At six months, risk and benefit are weighed to see if treatment should be continued for those who react. Patients should be informed about anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth and constipation, as well as how to control them.
Anterior colporrhaphy is a treatment for cystocele that involves repairing the front vaginal wall. It can help people with urine incontinence. If you don’t have a cystocele, bladder neck suspension is the best option.
Retropubic bladder suspension is a more intrusive surgery for treating stress urinary incontinence in patients who haven’t responded to less invasive treatments like pelvic floor exercise.The most essential initial conservative therapy to explore for patients with real stress incontinence and mixed (both stress and urge) urine incontinence when stress incontinence is the more prominent symptom is pelvic floor muscle exercise (e.g. Kegel exercise). For urge incontinence, more difficult training can be applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old lady had mild vaginal bleeding for the previous 18 hours following sexual engagement. It's been a year since she had her last menstrual cycle. Her previous cervical screening test was 12 months ago, and everything came back normal. For the past year, she had not engaged in any sexual activity. She wasn't on any hormone replacement treatment at the time.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrophic vaginitis
Explanation:Postmenopausal haemorrhage has started in this patient. Menopause is defined as the permanent cessation of menstruation and fertility that occurs 12 months after the previous menstrual period.
Atrophic vaginitis caused by oestrogen insufficiency is the most likely reason for this woman’s postmenopausal haemorrhage. It can also induce vaginal dryness and soreness during sexual intercourse.
Endometrial hyperplasia is unlikely to develop without hormone replacement therapy or oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium.
Similarly, endometrial cancer is a less likely cause of this patient’s post-menopausal bleeding.
A year ago, this woman received a normal cervical screening test. Cervical cancer is extremely unlikely to occur. After 12 months of no oestrogen, it’s also unlikely that you’ll have any irregular periods.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, insomnia, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved with the onset of menstruation. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no other significant past medical history.
Which of the following is the best treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of premenstrual dysmorphic disorder are well-known in this patient. Fluoxetine is the greatest therapeutic option among the available options.
For severe symptoms, clomipramine and danazol can be used interchangeably.
Bromocriptine, like oral contraceptives and evening primrose, has no scientific evidence to support its use in this syndrome.
NSAIDs are helpful for painful symptoms, but they only address a limited number of them. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PID
Explanation:IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a refill on her oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30®). You discover she has a blood pressure of 160/100mmHg during your examination, which is confirmed by a second reading 20 minutes later. Her husband and she are expecting a child in six months.
Which of the following recommendations is the best for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should stop OCP, use condoms for contraception and reassess her blood pressure in 3 months
Explanation:Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor.
These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.
All other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined pill
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD
Explanation:Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She complains of migraine two to three times a month for the last 6 months.
What should be best appropriate advice to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop combined oral contraceptive pills and prescribe progestogen only pills
Explanation:While on combination oral contraceptive tablets, this patient had a migraine. After a conversation about adverse effects, stop the combo medications and prescribe her progestogen-only pills.
The following are reasons why progestogen-only pills should be your first choice:
1-Age of 45 or more years
2-Smokers who are 45 years old or older
3-Oestrogen contraindications
4-Melitus Diabetes
5-A headache (combined oral contraceptive pills have absolute contraindication)
6-Hypertension under control
7-Lactation
8-Chloasma.Pregnancy, undetected genital tract bleeding, and concurrent use of enzyme-inducing medications are all contraindications to using progestogen-only pills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The etonogestrel/ethinyl oestradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing)
Explanation:Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate and the combination contraceptive vaginal ring are the most effective hormonal contraceptives for obese women because they do not appear to be affected by body weight. Women using the combination contraceptive patch who weight 90 kg may experience decreased contraceptive efficacy. Obese women using oral contraceptives may also have an increased risk of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.
What is the next best step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.
Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.
Explanation:Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has burning and itching. She is sexually active.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a clinical condition characterized by a shift in vaginal flora away from Lactobacillus species toward more diverse bacterial species, including facultative anaerobes. The altered microbiome causes a rise in vaginal pH and symptoms that range from none to very bothersome. Future health implications of BV include, but are not limited to, increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted infections and preterm birth. Fifty to 75 percent of women with BV are asymptomatic. Symptomatic women typically present with vaginal discharge and/or vaginal odour. The discharge is off-white, thin, and homogeneous; the odour is an unpleasant fishy smell that may be more noticeable after sexual intercourse and during menses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female presents to her general practitioner.
She complains of a three month history of amenorrhea, with recently added hot flushes 10 - 12 times a day, irritability and difficulty sleeping.
What would be the best management strategy to relieve her symptoms, whilst minimising side effects?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous daily oestrogen therapy, with medroxy progesterone acetate (MPA) given daily for 12 days each month.
Explanation:The best strategy is to commence cyclical hormone therapy using continuous daily oestrogen therapy, with medroxy progesterone acetate (MPA) given daily for 12 days each month.
This patient is most likely experiencing menopause, with symptoms caused by her oestrogen deficiency state.
Diazepam will help her to sleep and possibly alleviate her irritability, but would be unlikely to relieve the hot flushes.
Continuous therapy with oestrogen and MPA provides continuous progestogen therapy and has a high risk of causing unpredictable breakthrough vaginal bleeding, as it is only three months since the last menstrual period. This treatment is not recommended to be given within 1 – 2 years of the last period.
Oestrogen alone is not recommended for women who still have their uterus.
Progestogen alone would only be indicated in cases with contraindications to oestrogen administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2 years of unprotected intercourse, has come with concerns that she might have endometriosis. She is concerned because she has a friend who recently was diagnosed with it.
Which symptom profile would be expected if this woman actually has endometriosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No abnormal bleeding or pain.
Explanation:The clinical features of endometriosis include dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, dysuria, dyschezia as well as infertility. Pain is characteristically long-term, cyclic (often occurring the same time as menses) and can get progressively worse over time. Laparoscopy remains the standard for diagnosis. There are many cases in which endometriosis is only discovered at the time of the workup for infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast that presented after a car accident 2 weeks ago. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Since the car crash happened two weeks prior, breast trauma is suggested and thus fat necrosis is the most probable diagnosis. Phyllodes tumours are typically a firm, palpable mass. These tumours are very fast-growing, and can increase in size in just a few weeks. Occurrence is most common between the ages of 40 and 50, prior to menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are asked to consult on a young woman with a pre-existing cardiac defect. She wants to become pregnant in the near future and seeks advice about what risks to her health that this will create. You tell that the highest maternal mortality rates are associated with which of the following cardiac defects:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome
Explanation:Eisenmenger’s syndrome is one where there is communication between the systemic and pulmonary system, along with increased pulmonary vascular resistance, either to systemic level or above systemic level (right to left shunt). A would-be mother must be informed that to become pregnant would incur a 50% risk of dying. Even if she survives, fetal mortality approaches 50% as well.
– Severe symptomatic aortic stenosis has a mortality in pregnancy of about 20%. Prevention of reduction in preload is necessary in all obstructive cardiac lesions. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
– Due to the increased blood volume and cardiac output in pregnancy, mitral stenosis can lead to severe pulmonary oedema. Balloon valvuloplasty can be done in pregnancy.
– Ebstein anomaly is a malformation of the tricuspid valve- It is usually not associated with maternal mortality.
– Atrial-septal defects rarely cause complications in pregnancy, labour, or delivery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman's blood results after having secondary amenorrhoea that lasted for 6 months are: Testosterone = 3.4 nmol/L (<1.6), Oestradiol = 144 pmol/L (100-500), LH = 12 U/L and FSH = 4 U/L. What sign or symptom is she likely to have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Biochemical features suggest that this patient has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). It is associated with signs and symptoms of hyperandrogenism (oligomenorrhea, irregular menstruation, hirsutism, hair loss, and acne) and elevated testosterone. PCOS patients are often overweight or obese, have insulin resistance (treated with Metformin) and an adverse risk profile for cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 39 years old female patient comes to your office seeking contraceptive advice. She is a cigarette smoker. W
hat would you advice her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone only pills
Explanation:Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.
Progestin only pills are the safest and most effective contraceptive methods than the rest of the options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She attained menopause 6 years ago whereas her last vaginal examination 2 years prior, was normal. She now has a palpable mass measuring 8cm in diameter in the left ovarian area.
Which is the best next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admission to hospital for early surgical exploration.
Explanation:This lady should be admitted to hospital for early surgical exploration. Taking into account her age, mild abdominal discomfort and a palpable lower abdominal mass, it is imperative that ovarian malignancy be ruled out as soon as possible. Patients with ovarian malignancy often present in advanced stages of cancer as the symptoms tend to be occult and non-specific. Other things to include in her workup would be her CA125 level. Any form of hormonal therapy is contraindicated until ovarian malignancy has been ruled out. A pap smear is not relevant here since we are suspecting an ovarian malignancy rather than cervical. Evaluation of her mass takes priority over an assessment for osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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