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Question 1
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A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the mortality proportion attributed to accidents in this age group?
Your Answer: 40-50%
Explanation:Deaths by age group: 60% <1 year - due mainly to congenital, neonatal, and infection related problems.10% 1-4 years - due to accident (15%), cancer (15%), or congenital problems (14%)18% 15-19 years - accidental (42%) accidents reflect increased risk taking
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the conditions, mentioned below, result in a continuous murmur?
Your Answer: Blalock- Taussig shunt
Explanation:Blalock-Thomas-Taussig shunt is a surgical procedure done to increase pulmonary blood flow in cases like pulmonary atresia and results in a continuous murmur.The type of murmur which is heard during the systole and remains continuous till the second heart sound is known as a continuous murmur. This murmur is often intense and considered rough. It can also be accompanied by quivering. There are numerous causes of a continuous murmur that differ depending on the location and components of this murmur. It is caused by the shunting of blood from a high-pressure circulation to a low-pressure circulation. Pathological causes of a continuous murmur include patent ductus arteriosus, aortopulmonary window, AV malformation, coarctation of aorta, any acquired trauma, and iatrogenic cause like interventional or surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Correct
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A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department with colicky pain. The boy has experienced such episodes of pain in the past, which radiates from his loin to the groin. After clinical examination and investigations, a 7mm stone has been found in his ureter. What is the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Conservative treatment
Explanation:Renal stones < 5mm generally pass spontaneously with adequate fluid intake. Stones 5mm-10mm with pain not resolving, require medical expulsive therapy with Nifedipine or Tamsulosin. For stones larger than 10mm, ESWL or Ureteroscopy is indicated. For stones as big as 2cm, percutaneous nephrolithotomy should be applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 4
Correct
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Erythema infectiosum is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer: Herpes virus serology
Explanation:Erythema infectiosum is an acute viral illness caused by Parvovirus B19. It is usually a mild flu-like illness and produces a maculopapular rash, appearing initially on the cheeks and then spreading towards extremities. The rash usually spares the palms and soles and gives a slapped appearance to the cheeks. It can be described as having a fishnet appearance on the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias. Which of the following abnormalities is most often associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Cryptorchidism
Explanation:Hypospadias is an abnormality of anterior urethral and penile development. The urethral opening is located on the ventral aspect of the penis proximal to the tip of the glans penis, which, in this condition, is open. The urethral opening may be located as proximal as in the scrotum or perineum. The penis may also have associated ventral shortening and curvature, called chordee, with more proximal urethral defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 6
Correct
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Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer: Scoliosis
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis (aka Von Recklinghausen’s disease) includes: neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma, optic nerve tumours, scoliosis and acoustic neuromas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 6 year old boy presents with a history of repeated respiratory and gastro-intestinal infections since birth. His birth was, however, uncomplicated. His mother claims that he's not growing as he should for his age. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease that interferes with the normal development of the child. It manifests with recurrent episodes of pneumonia accompanied by coughing, wheezing and dyspnoea. The appetite is normal but weight gain seems difficult. This condition also affects bowel habits with repeated gastrointestinal infections. The gold standard for the diagnosis is considered the sweat test which reveals abnormally high levels of Cl-.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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A dental surgeon infiltrates local anaesthetic at the mandibular foramen to carry out a block of the right inferior alveolar nerve. Which of the following might occur as a result of the procedure?
Your Answer: Numbness of the lower teeth on the right side
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve supplies all the teeth of the respective hemimandible. It transverses the inferior alveolar canal and is a branch of the trigeminal nerve’s mandibular division. Therefore, in this case, the teeth of the right hemimandible will be numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the cause for tinea incognito?
Your Answer: Inappropriate treatment with steroid cream
Explanation:“Tinea incognito” is a term used to describe a tinea infection modified by topical steroids. It is caused by prolonged use of topical steroids, sometimes prescribed as a result of incorrect diagnosis. Topical steroids suppress the local immune response and allow the fungus to grow easily. As a result, the fungal infection may take on the bizarre appearance seen in this patient.The diagnosis of tinea incognito is simple to confirm by microscopic visualization of branching hyphae and spores typical of dermatophytes in a potassium hydroxide preparation.Treatment of tinea incognito requires cessation of all topical steroid use and implementation of specific antifungal treatment. A low-potency corticosteroid may be used briefly to avoid the flare often associated with abrupt cessation of a potent steroid. Patients should be warned of this possibility so they do not reinstitute use of topical steroids on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the echocardiography. Which of the following condition most likely predisposes to this finding?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Several types of right-sided aortic arch exist, the most common ones being right-sided aortic arch with aberrant left subclavian artery and the mirror-image type. The variant with aberrant left subclavian artery is associated with congenital heart disease in only a small minority of affected people. The mirror-image type of right aortic arch is very strongly associated with congenital heart disease, in most cases tetralogy of Fallot. A right-sided aortic arch does not cause symptoms on itself, and the overwhelming majority of people with the right-sided arch have no other symptoms. However when it is accompanied by other vascular abnormalities, it may form a vascular ring, causing symptoms due to compression of the trachea and/or oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Correct
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A woman gave birth to an infant at 39 weeks' gestation. The infant has a pulse of 110 bpm, grimaces upon nasal stimulation and has good muscle tone. Moreover, the colour of the infant is pink except for the extremities, which are blueish. What is the infants APGAR score?
Your Answer: 7
Explanation:Apgar is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. The 1-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process. The 5-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother’s womb. More specifically, five components are assessed and these are the appearance (A), the pulse (P), the grimace (G), the activity (A) and the respiration (R). A normal APGAR score is considered to be 10 points, 2 points given for each normal component. In this case, 1 point is given for the appearance due to the bluish extremities, 2 points are given for the pulse which is higher than 100 bpm, 1 point is given for the grimacing, 2 points are given for the activity due to the good muscle tone and 1 point is given for the respiration due to gasping. Total score is 7 points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 12
Correct
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The mother of 6 months old girl tests positive for HIV. Doctors test her daughter as well and the results turn out to be positive for HIV, both by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and serology. The girl is clinically healthy and seems to attain normal developmental milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately and plan to start antiretrovirals once further work-up is complete
Explanation:Infants exposed to maternal HIV and with positive results require immediate management with co-trimoxazole prophylaxis, regardless of their CD4 levels. Antiretroviral treatment is necessary as well but it could wait until further work-up is complete.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 13
Correct
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A 6 year old child presents with clinical features of nephrotic syndrome and a history of hypertension. He has normal serum cholesterol levels, however, his urine microscopy reveals oval fat bodies. Which of the following most likely represents the cause of the nephrotic syndrome?
Your Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Minimal change glomerulonephritis presents with mild or benign urinalysis findings. However, proteinuria together with the presence of oval fat bodies are typical.Minimal change glomerulonephritis (nephropathy) accounts for most cases of childhood nephrotic syndrome and 20–25% of adult nephrotic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 10-year-old newly diagnosed epileptic boy presents with pyrexia and a confluent, blistering rash affecting his torso, arms, and legs. On examination, there are lesions on his mucous membranes also. On palpating the skin overlying the medial malleolus, it shears off with minimal force. What is the sign being elicited?
Your Answer: Nikolsky's sign
Explanation:The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorders, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy with type 1 DM is recently started on an insulin pump. There has been better glycaemic control and he now subsequently enjoys a healthy, active lifestyle. During the consultation, he seems to acknowledge the risks of missing out his dose and says that he is comfortable with his new pump. he mentions that he changes his site after every 4 days. However, a random blood sugar analysis reveals it to be 22.3 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the raised RBS level?
Your Answer: Site change is overdue
Explanation:Insertion sites and sensor sites should be rotated each time the infusion set or glucose sensor is changed. This keeps the tissue healthy and allows previous sites to completely heal before reusing them. Change infusion set every 2 to 3 days to help prevent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Correct
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Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?
Your Answer: L3
Explanation:The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 17
Correct
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A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?
Your Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Answer: RicketsRickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person. The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily| the child’s walk may look different (waddling)skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spinedental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavitiespoor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than averagefragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture. Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 16-year-old schoolboy presents for a regular medical check-up. He complains of a red patch of skin on his chest, that is surrounded by an area of skin scaling. This was followed by the development of oval macules over the rest of his trunk, arms and thighs three days later. he has just returned to school for the start of Spring term. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Pityriasis rosea is a common, acute exanthem of uncertain aetiology. Viral and bacterial causes have been sought, but convincing answers have not yet been found. Pityriasis rosea typically affects children and young adults. It is characterized by an initial herald patch, followed by the development of a diffuse papulosquamous rash. The herald patch often is misdiagnosed as eczema. Pityriasis rosea is difficult to identify until the appearance of characteristic smaller secondary lesions that follow Langer’s lines (cleavage lines). Several medications can cause a rash similar to pityriasis rosea, and several diseases, including secondary syphilis, are included in the differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?
Your Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity
Explanation:Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history:Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago.Current medications:Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasoneMesalazine 400 mg TDSShe was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult. What is the most likely causative agent?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis| therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination. The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer: Methicillin
Explanation:Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination, her eyes were red. But she denied any ocular or visual discomfort.Which of the following should be suspected in this patient?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:When a child with joint problems presents with red-eye, the likelihood of anterior uveitis must be excluded by involving an ophthalmologist in the assessment. This is because uveitis is the most common extra-articular manifestation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Other options:- Cataract: It does not give rise to a red-eye, but leukocoria. Often this would have been picked up at an earlier age. – A patient with a corneal foreign body almost would almost invariably give a suspicious history (onset while playing outdoors etc.), as well as have marked symptoms of ocular discomfort (red, watery and painful eyes). – A child with periorbital cellulitis often presents acutely unwell and distressed. – A child with an uncorrected refractive error often complains of being unable to see in class and does not normally present with ocular redness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following conditions do NOT result in polyuria?
Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Polyuria is defined as a total increase in the urine output or > 2L/m2 of daily urine produced in children. Polyuria can be a symptom of a vast number of medical conditions. The commonest and most important disease having polyuria as the main symptom is diabetes mellitus. Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus also results in polyuria along with polydipsia. Other conditions that lead to an increase in the urine output are renal failure, acute tubular necrosis, and exposure to high altitude. Hyperkalaemia does not result in polyuria| rather hypokalaemia can be an associated finding with polyuria in the case of diuretic abuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy is known to make irrational decisions which would normally be considered risky and subsequently gets in trouble with the police. An area in his brain controls judgement, impulse control and planning. Changes in this area of the brain mostly occur until what age?
Your Answer: 20 – 29 years
Explanation:The rational part of a teen’s brain isn’t fully developed until the age of 25 or so.In fact, recent research has found that adult and teen brains work differently. Adults think with the prefrontal cortex, the brain’s rational part. This is the part of the brain that responds to situations with good judgment and an awareness of long-term consequences. Teens process information with the amygdala. This is the emotional part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 25
Correct
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A study of 500 men shows a significant correlation between their blood pressures and weights (r = 0.45, P = 0.0014).Which one of the following is true?
Your Answer: There is a linear tendency for heavier men to have higher blood pressures
Explanation:The main result of a correlation is called the correlation coefficient (or r). It ranges from -1.0 to +1.0. The closer r is to +1 or -1, the more closely the two variables are related.If r is close to 0, it means there is no relationship between the variables. If r is positive, it means that as one variable gets larger the other gets larger. If r is negative it means that as one gets larger, the other gets smaller (often called an inverse correlation).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?
Your Answer: Increases insulin production
Explanation:Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Correct
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All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome
Explanation:Cyanotic congenital heart disease (CCHD) is a common cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. They can be classified as CCHD due to:- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased pulmonary flow, e.g., tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), pulmonary atresia, right-sided hypoplastic heart,- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased aortic flow, e.g., left-sided hypoplastic heart, interrupted arch, severe coarctation| – Bidirectional shunt, e.g., TGA, DORV, TA, etc. Eisenmenger syndrome is not a neonatal CCHD| rather it develops later in young adulthood secondary to various CHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 28
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?
Your Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 – pre-adolescentStage 2 – sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 – hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 – adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 – adult in quantity and type
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident. A diagnosis of splenic laceration was made, and a splenectomy was performed. Which among the following blood film findings is not a feature associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation:Hyposplenism is associated with thrombocytosis. Other features of hyposplenism are: – Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytosis, occurring secondary to haemolysis.- Pappenheimer bodies: These are granular deposits of iron found within the RBCs.- Lymphocytosis and monocytosis.Causes for hyposplenism include:- Congenital asplenia- Iatrogenic splenectomy: Following trauma or treatment for ITP, thalassemia or spherocytosis).- Autosplenectomy: Secondary to sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, essential thrombocythemia or splenic arterial thrombosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea for the past 9 months. She goes to college and is performs well academically. Physical examination shows an underweight girl (weight 38 kg), height 1.78 m (5 ft 10 inches). Excessive small hair can be seen growing on the body. Labs are significant for an elevated cortisol level, normal T4 level, and anaemia associated with reduced WBCs and platelets. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder defined by restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight. Patients will have an intense fear of gaining weight and distorted body image with the inability to recognize the seriousness of their significantly low body weight. Athletes in sports such as ballet, long-distance running, and martial arts are pressured to maintain lean body weights to outperform the competition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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