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  • Question 1 - In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a foetus to be in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer: A normal term foetus

      Explanation:

      Normal position of the foetus in relationship to the mother is always a longitudinal lie and a cephalic presentation. Transverse lie means that the baby is sideways. The foetus lies transverse till 26-28th week of gestation, after which it usually changes its position from transverse to a longitudinal lie with head down. A transverse lie can occur in conditions like grand multiparity, preterm foetus, placenta previa and pelvic contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below:

      Pulse rate: 64 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C

      On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min.

      Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?

      Your Answer: Placenta praevia.

      Explanation:

      In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.

      An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.

      In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.

      A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy.

      Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.

      Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.

      On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.

      Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.

      Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.

      In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.

      In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.

      An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.

      In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 33-year-old woman was admitted to a hospital's maternity unit for labour. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman was admitted to a hospital's maternity unit for labour. Her pregnancy has been unremarkable so far and she had regular antenatal visits. Meconium liquor passage was noted during the labour. Cardiotocography was done and revealed a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 149bpm. There were no noted decelerations or accelerations. The beat-to-beat variability is established at 15 bpm. Upon vaginal examination, there were no reported abnormalities.

      Which of the following is considered to be the next most appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling as there is a 50% chance of hypoxia

      Correct Answer: The CTG is normal and close monitoring until delivery is all required for now

      Explanation:

      Meconium is the earliest stool of a newborn. Occasionally, newborns pass meconium during labour or delivery, resulting in a meconium-stained amniotic fluid (MSAF).

      No particular cardio-tocograph pattern can be considered to have a poor prognostic value in the presence of thick MSAF and the decision to deliver and the mode of delivery should be based on the overall assessment and the stage and progress of labour. While management should be individualized, a higher Caesarean section rate in thick MSAF can be justified to ensure a better outcome for the neonate even in the presence of a normal CTG trace.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been breastfeeding her baby 24 hours though she had previously stated she intended exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. She feels sad most of the time and her mood has been very low for the past 2 weeks, she has trouble sleeping at night and feels tired all day. She complains that her husband doesn’t seem to know how to help. For the past 24 hours she feels like she is not fit to be a mother and doesn’t want to feed the baby anymore. She has been frightened by thoughts to harm herself and the baby. Her baby is 7 weeks old.
      In addition to antidepressant medication, which of the following treatment is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Peer support

      Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents because of significant mood changes since she gave birth to her child: she is sad most of times and she is having guilt feelings about her adequacy for motherhood- She is also complaining of insomnia, tiredness, and even some suicidal ideation. These symptoms are highly suggestive postpartum depression. This should be differentiated from postpartum blues, which usually present within the first 2 weeks and last for few days. This patient’s symptoms started 5 weeks postpartum. Postpartum depression usually presents within the first 6 weeks to the first year postpartum.

      Postpartum depression is the most common complication of childbearing and affects the mother, the child, and relationship with the partner. It is diagnosed the same way as major depressive disorder in other patients. Since untreated postpartum depression can have long-term effects on the mother and the child, appropriate therapy should be undertaken as soon as possible- Antidepressant medications such as sertraline can be used to treat postpartum depression. In a patient who has suicidal ideation, electroconvulsive therapy has a more rapid and effective action than medication and should be considered in these patients.

      → Cognitive behavioural therapy is effective in women with mild to moderate postpartum depression; it would not be a good choice in this patient with suicidal ideation and at risk of harming the baby.
      → Estrogen therapy used alone or in combination with antidepressant, has been shown to significantly reduce the symptoms of postpartum depression; however, it would not be the most appropriate choice in a patient with suicidal ideation.
      → Peer support has shown equivocal results in various studies even though most postpartum patients report that lacking an intimate friend or confidant or facing social isolation are factors leading to depression.
      → Non-directive counselling also known as ”listening visits“ has been found to be effective in postpartum patients, though the studies that were conducted are deemed to be of small sample and larger studies still need to be done to validate these findings. It would not be an appropriate choice for this patient with suicidal ideation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to premature uterine contractions. Upon interview, it was noted the she has history of untreated mitral valve stenosis. Tocolysis was then planned after a necessary evaluation was performed and revealed that there is absence of contraindications.

      Which of the following would be considered the drug of choice for tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin antagonists

      Explanation:

      Tocolysis is an obstetrical procedure to prolong gestation in patients, some of which are experiencing preterm labour. This is achieved through various medications that work to inhibit contractions of uterine smooth muscle.

      There is no definitive first-line tocolytic agent by the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) but nifedipine is most commonly used. However, in severe aortic stenosis, nifedipine can cause ventricular collapse and dysfunction.

      The therapeutic target in the treatment of preterm labour is currently the pharmacological inhibition of uterine contractions with the use of various tocolytic agents. Tocolytic agents are used to maintain pregnancy for 24–48 hours to allow corticosteroids administration to act and to permit the transfer of the mother to a centre with a neonatal intensive care unit.

      Oxytocin inhibitors work by competitively acting at the oxytocin receptor site. Oxytocin acts to increase the intracellular levels of inositol triphosphate. The medications currently in this class are atosiban and retosiban. Maternal nor fetal side effects have not been described for this tocolytic.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency department due to complaints of not feeling fetal movements since yesterday. Upon investigations, fetal demise was confirmed. Induced delivery was done and she gave birth to a dead foetus.

      Which of the following is least likely to reveal the cause of the fetal death?

      Your Answer: Indirect Coomb's test of the mother

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis of the mother

      Explanation:

      Stillbirth has many causes: intrapartum complications, hypertension, diabetes, infection, congenital and genetic abnormalities, placental dysfunction, and pregnancy continuing beyond forty weeks.

      In 5% of normal-appearing stillborns, a chromosomal abnormality will be detectable. With an autopsy and a chromosomal study, up to 35% of stillborns are found to have a major structural pathology, and 8% have abnormal chromosomes. After a complete evaluation, term stillbirth remains unexplained about 30% of the time. The chance of finding a cause is impacted by the age of the foetus, the experience of the caregiver, and the thoroughness of the exam. Chromosome testing for aneuploidy should be offered for all stillbirths to confirm or to seek a cause of the stillbirth. Genetic amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling before delivery offers the highest yield.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old pregnant elementary school teacher presented to the medical clinic because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant elementary school teacher presented to the medical clinic because she found out that one of her students has been recently diagnosed with rubella, but the diagnosis was not confirmed by serologic tests. Upon interview, it was noted that her last rubella vaccination was when she was 12 years old.

      Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step to perform?

      Your Answer: Confirm the diagnosis of rubella in the sick child with rubella serology testing

      Correct Answer: Check rubella serology

      Explanation:

      Rubella infection during pregnancy may lead to miscarriage, intrauterine fetal demise, premature labour, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital rubella syndrome. The risk of developing complications is highest if the infection is contracted within the first 12 weeks of gestation.

      In those cases in which a pregnant woman has been exposed to a suspected rubella case, a specimen of blood should be tested as soon as possible for the measurement of rubella-specific IgG antibodies. If it is positive, then the woman was likely to be immune and could be reassured. If it is negative, a determination rubella-specific IgG and rubella-specific IgM antibodies should be obtained in 3 weeks to exclude an asymptomatic primary rubella infection.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child. Her first pregnancy was complicated by puerperal psychosis. Following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she promptly recovered and has been well until now. She is in excellent health and her husband has been very supportive. According to patient files, she was noted to be an excellent mother.

      What would be the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: If she gets pregnant, then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy.

      Correct Answer: There is a 15-20% chance of recurrence of psychosis postpartum.

      Explanation:

      Puerperal psychosis seems to be mainly hereditary and closely associated with bipolar disorder especially the manic type, rather than being a distinct condition with a group of classical symptoms or course. Postpartum psychoses typically have an abrupt onset within 2 weeks of delivery and may have rapid progression of symptoms. Fortunately, it is generally a brief condition and responds well to prompt management. If the condition is threatening the mother and/or baby’s safety, hospital admission is warranted. A patient can present with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms ranging from delusion, passivity phenomenon, catatonia, and hallucinations. While depression and mania may be the predominating features, it is not surprising to see symptoms such as confusion and stupor. Although the rate of incidence is about 1 in 1000 pregnancies, it is seen in about 20% of women who previously had bipolar episodes prior to pregnancy. It has not been shown to be linked with factors such as twin pregnancies, stillbirth, breastfeeding or being a single parent. However, it might be more commonly seen in women who are first-time mothers and pregnancy terminations.

      The risk of recurrence is 20%. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment guideline but organic causes should first be ruled out. First generation/typical anti-psychotics are often associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Nowadays, atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone or olanzapine can be used along with lithium which is a mood stabiliser. As of now, there hasn’t been any significant side effects as a result of second generation antipsychotic use in pregnancy. While women are usually advised to stop breast-feeding, it might be unnecessary except if the mother is being treated with lithium which has been reported to cause side effects on the infants in a few instances. ECT is considered to be highly efficacious for all types of postpartum psychosis and may be necessary if the mother’s condition is life-threatening to herself or/and the baby. If untreated, puerperal psychosis might persist for 6 months or even longer.

      The options of saying ‘in view of her age and previous problem, further pregnancies are out of the question’ and so is ‘By all means start another pregnancy and see how she feels about it. If she has misgivings, then have the pregnancy terminated.’ are inappropriate.

      As mentioned earlier, considering there is a 20% chance of recurrence it is not correct to say that since she had good outcomes with her first pregnancy, the risk of recurrence is minimal.

      Anti-psychotics are not recommended to be used routinely both during pregnancy and lactation due to the absence of long-term research on children with intrauterine and breastmilk exposure to the drugs. Hence it is not right to conclude that ‘if she gets pregnant then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy’ as it contradicts current guidelines. Each case should be individualised and the risks compared with the benefits to decide whether anti-psychotics should be given during pregnancy. It is important to obtain informed consent from both the mother and partner with documentation.

      Should the mother deteriorates during the pregnancy that she no longer is capable of making decisions about treatment, then an application for temporary guardianship should be carried out to ensure that she can be continued on the appropriate treatment.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Increased analgesia required.

      Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.

      Explanation:

      Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
      Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit due to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp in nature, which is occurring with movement and exercise and that the pain will be alleviated with application of a heating pad. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits and there is no fever or chills.

      What would be the most likely etiology of pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: Preterm labor

      Correct Answer: Round ligament pain

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with classic symptoms of round ligament pain.
      Round ligaments are structures which extends from the lateral portion of the uterus below to the oviduct and will travel downward in a fold of peritoneum to the inguinal canal to get inserted in the upper portion of the labium majus. As the gravid uterus grows out of pelvis during pregnancy, these ligaments will stretch, mostly during sudden movements, resulting in a sharp pain. Due to dextrorotation of uterus, which occurs commonly in pregnancy, the round ligament pain is experienced more frequently over the right side. Usually this pain improves by avoiding sudden movements, by rising and sitting down gradually, by the application of local heat and by using analgesics.

      As the patient is not experiencing any symptoms like fever or anorexia a diagnosis of appendicitis is not likely. Also in pregnant women appendicitis often presents as pain located much higher than the groin area as the growing gravid uterus pushes the appendix out of pelvis.

      As the pain is localized to only one side of groin and is alleviated with a heating pad the diagnosis of preterm labor is unlikely. In addition, the pain would persist even at rest and not with just movement in case of labor.

      As the patient has not reported of any urinary symptoms diagnosis of urinary tract infection is unlikely.

      Kidney stones usually presents with pain in the back and not lower in the groin. In addition, with a kidney stone the pain would occur not only with movement, but would persist at rest as well. So a diagnosis of kidney stone is unlikely in this case.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most...

    Correct

    • The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common aetiology listed is:

      Your Answer: Molding

      Explanation:

      With the help of molding, the fetal head changes its shape as the skull bones overlap. This helps in smooth delivery of the foetus through the birth canal.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa pain, which is more when she tries to stand up or cough. She also had a history of appendectomy, done 12 years ago.

      Physical examination reveals mild tenderness in right iliac fossa, without any rebound tenderness or guarding.

      Among the following options which will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Round ligament pain

      Explanation:

      The given case can be diagnosed as round ligament pain, which is common during pregnancy. This happens as a result to the stretching of round ligament in pelvis to occupy the growing uterus. The round ligament pain usually gets worse with movements or straining and will be relieved by rest or warm application.

      As the abdominal examination of patient is unremarkable, conditions like ovarian cyst rupture, ectopic pregnancy and intestinal obstruction are a very unlikely to be the diagnosis.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to the medical clinic complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. Upon history taking and interview, she reported that she frequently had poor appetite and felt lethargic. From her pre-pregnancy weight, it was also noted that she had 3% weight loss in difference. Upon further clinical observation, she looked dry, accompanied with coated tongue.

      If the diagnosis of “hyperemesis gravidarum” is to be considered, which of the following will most likely confirm that diagnosis?

      Your Answer: poor appetite

      Correct Answer: she looks dry with coated tongue

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia. There is no consensus on specific diagnostic criteria, but it generally refers to the severe end of the spectrum regarding nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.

      Hormone changes wherein hCG levels peak during the first trimester corresponds to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. It is well-known that the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to extreme cases of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. The criteria for diagnosis include vomiting that causes significant dehydration (as evidenced by ketonuria or electrolyte abnormalities, and the dry with coated tongue) and weight loss (the most commonly cited marker for this is the loss of at least five percent of the patient’s pre-pregnancy weight) in the setting of pregnancy without any other underlying pathological cause for vomiting.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?

      Your Answer: 74%

      Correct Answer: 18%

      Explanation:

      This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
      Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
      The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
      The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because? ...

    Incorrect

    • During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because?

      Your Answer: Ease of repair

      Correct Answer: Less extension of the incision

      Explanation:

      Mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because there is less extension of the incision and decreased chances of injury to the anal sphincter and rectum.

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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after she has noticed intermittent leakage of watery liquor per vagina for the past eight hours, especially after straining, coughing or  sneezing.

      Speculum vaginal exam reveals clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix, with flow of liquid through the cervical os. Further evaluation establishes preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM) as the diagnosis. No uterine contraction is felt and there is a tertiary hospital 50 km away.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commencement of tocolysis

      Correct Answer: Administration of corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The case above gives a classic presentation of preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). In term or near term women rupture of membrane harbingers labor, so if ROM does not end up in established labor in 4 hours, is called as premature ROM (PROM). In other words, PROM is defined as ROM before the onset of labor and if it occurs before 37 weeks, the preferred term is PPROM. In both these scenarios treatment approach will be different.
      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina, continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid, a sensation of wetness within the vagina or perineum are the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes(ROM), regardless of the gestational age. Pathognomonic symptoms symptoms of ROM are presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix.
      PPROM is associated with many risk factors and some of them are as follows:
      – Preterm labor
      – Cord prolapse
      – Placental abruption
      – Chorioamnionitis
      – Fetal pulmonary hypoplasia and other features of prematurity
      – Limb positioning defects
      – Perinatal mortality
      Once the diagnosis is confirmed the following measures should be considered in the management plan:
      a) Maternal corticosteroids
      Adverse perinatal outcomes like respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis can be effectively reduced using corticosteroids. The duration of using neonatal respiratory support, in case of respiratory distress, can be significantly reduced by the administration of corticosteroids. If preterm labor is a concern in cases were gestational age is between 23•0d and 34•6d weeks or if preterm birth is planned or expected within the next 7 days corticosteroids are indicated.
      Recommended regimens to the woman are IM betamethasone in two doses of 11.4 mg, given 24 hours apart and if betamethasone is unavailable, IM dexamethasone given 24 hours apart in two doses of 12 mg.
      A single repeat dose of corticosteroid given seven days or more after the first dose is suggestive in cases were the gestational age is less than 32• 6d, if the woman is still considered to be at risk of preterm labor, up to 3 repeated doses can be considered.
      Another option is Tocolysis using nifedipine and is indicated if the woman is in labor. This helps in cessation of labor for at least 48 hours, providing a window for corticosteroid to establish its effects. Tocolysis is not indicated in cases with absence of uterine contractions suggestive of labor.
      It is appropriate to transfer this woman to a tertiary hospital after administering the first doses of corticosteroid and antibiotics. This ensures optimal neonatal care in case of premature delivery.
      As the patient needs investigations and fetal monitoring along with close observation for development of any signs of infection and preterm labor, it is not appropriate to discharge this patient on oral antibiotics
      Admitting to a primary care center without neonatal ICU (NICU) does no good to the outcome of this patient.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - Bishop scoring is used for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Bishop scoring is used for:

      Your Answer: The state of the foetus at the time of delivery

      Correct Answer: The success rate of induction of the labour

      Explanation:

      The Bishop score is a system used by medical professionals to decide how likely it is that you will go into labour soon. They use it to determine whether they should recommend induction, and how likely it is that an induction will result in a vaginal birth.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.

      From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: A low vaginal swab for the screening of Group B streptococci should be taken at about 36 weeks in pregnancy

      Correct Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage

      Explanation:

      A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour

      If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.

      Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.

      No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.

      Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
      All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual disturbance

      Explanation:

      Visual disturbances although very common during pregnancy are not a normal sign. Physicians should have a firm understanding of the various ocular conditions that might appear pregnancy or get modified by pregnancy. In addition, it is very important to be vigilant about the rare and serious conditions that may occur in pregnant women with visual complaints. Prompt evaluation may be required and the immediate transfer of care of the patient may help saving the lives of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

      GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
      Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.

      GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.

      A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old nulliparous woman admitted for term pregnancy with spontaneous labour shows no...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous woman admitted for term pregnancy with spontaneous labour shows no changes after a six-hour observation period despite membrane rupture, syntocinon infusion, and epidural anaesthesia. Pelvic examination shows failure of the cervix to dilate beyond 4cm and fetal head palpated at level of ischial spine (IS). The patient is diagnosed with obstructed labour.

      Which of the following clinical features is mostly associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is 4crn of head palpable abdominally.

      Explanation:

      The most consistent finding in obstructed labour is a 4cm head that is palpable on the abdomen. The bony part is usually palpated at the level of the ischial spine on pelvic examination.
      When prolonged labour is suspected, a pelvic vaginal examination helps to differentiate obstructed labour from inefficient/incoordinate labour.

      Findings in a pelvic examination:
      Obstructed labour
      moulding of fetal head ++
      caput formation on the fetal head ++
      cervical oedema – anterior lip oedema
      fetal tachycardia ++
      station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – just at or above the IS
      amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – > 2 finger breadths (FB)

      Inefficient or incoordinate labour
      moulding of fetal head usually none
      caput formation on fetal head +
      absent cervical oedema
      fetal tachycardia +
      station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – can be above or below IS
      amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – < 1 finger breadth (FB).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 24 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.

      Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.

      Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact tracing

      Explanation:

      The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
      Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
      Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.

      MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.

      As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.

      NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.

      As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation. She is worried as she came in contact with a child having chicken pox 48 hours ago and she has no symptoms.

      You checked her pre-pregnancy IgG level for chicken pox which was negative, as she missed getting vaccinated for chickenpox before pregnancy.

      What is the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      This woman who is 26 weeks pregnant, has come in contact with a child having chickenpox 48 hours ago. As her IgG antibodies were negative during prenatal testing, she has no immunity against Varicella which makes her susceptible to get chickenpox.

      Prophylactic treatment is required if a susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, which includes administration of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG), within 72 hours of exposure to infection.

      As the patient has already checked for and was found to be negative, checking IgG level again is not relevant. Also, it was already revealed that she is not vaccinated against varicella before pregnancy.

      If the patient had any symptoms typical of chickenpox, measuring IgM would have been helpful, but patient is completely asymptomatic in this case so measuring IgM is not indicated.

      Vaccine for chickenpox is contraindicated during pregnancy as it is a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - Among the below given options, which is NOT associated with an increased risk...

    Incorrect

    • Among the below given options, which is NOT associated with an increased risk for preeclampsia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age between 18 and 40 years

      Explanation:

      Any new onset of hypertension associated with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously­ normotensive woman is referred to as Preeclampsia.
      Most commonly found risk factors for pre-eclampsia are:
      – Preeclampsia in a previous pregnancy
      – Family history of preeclampsia
      – a prior pregnancy with poor outcome like placental abruption, IUGR, fetal death in utero, etc
      – An interdelivery interval greater than 10 years
      – Nulliparity, increases risk by 8 times
      – Pre-existing chronic medical conditions or chronic hypertension
      – pre-existing or gestational Diabetes
      – chronic Renal disease
      – Thrombophilias g. protein C and S deficiency, antithrombin Ill deficiency, or Factor V Leiden mutation
      – Antiphospholipid syndrome
      – Systemic lupus erythematous
      – Maternal age greater than or equal to 40 years
      – Body Mass Index (BMI) greater than 30 kg/m2
      – Multiple pregnancy
      – Raised blood pressure at booking
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease
      – Fetal triploidy

      Maternal age between 18 and 40 years is found to be associated with a decreased risk for developing preeclampsia, and not an increased risk.
      NOTE– Previously, age 16 years or younger was thought to be a risk factor for developing preeclampsia; however, recent studies conducted had failed to establish any meaningful relationship between the two.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 28 - A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.

    She...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.

      She complains of a nine hour history of irregular painful contractions.

      On examination of her pelvis, her cervix is fully effaced, but only 2 - 3 cm dilated. The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines in a left occipito-posterior (LOP) position. The membranes ruptured an hour ago.

      What would be the best next line of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocic (Syntocinon4) infusion.

      Explanation:

      The best next line of management is to administer an oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.

      This is because the progress of labour is slow, and it necessary to augment it. As the membranes have already ruptured, the next step is to increase the contractions and induce labour using an infusion of oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.

      Extra fluid is also required, but this will be administered alongside the Syntocinon infusion.

      A lumbar epidural block is indicated in patients with an occipito-posterior (OP) position. This should not be attempted until more pain relief is required and the progress of labour is reassessed.

      A Caesarean section may be necessary due to obstructed labour or fetal distress, it is not indicated at this stage.

      Taking blood and holding it in case cross-matching is ultimately required is common, but most patients do not have blood cross-matched prophylactically in case there is a need to be delivered by Caesarean section and require a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly...

    Incorrect

    • During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Explanation:

      Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 30 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent

      Explanation:

      Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.

      The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 31 - A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Pain is absent and upon examination, the following are found: abdomen soft and relaxed, uterus size is equal to dates and CTG reactive. What is the single most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placenta previa

      Explanation:

      Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding usually in the second to third trimester. Although it’s a condition that sometimes resolves by itself, bleeding may result in serious complications for the mother and the baby and so it should be managed as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 32 - All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the foetus except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical fibroids

      Explanation:

      Unstable lie means that the foetus is still changing its position even at 36 weeks of gestation. A number of factors are responsible for this positioning such as multi gravida, placenta previa, prematurity and fibroids present in the fundus. Cervical fibroids have little association with unstable lie of the foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 33 - A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in her second pregnancy, presents with a breech presentation. She previously delivered a baby girl weighing 3.8kg via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Ultrasound examination this time shows a breech presentation with extended legs. She wishes to deliver vaginally if it is possible.

      Which is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Await spontaneous onset of labour.

      Explanation:

      The most suitable step would be to wait for spontaneous onset of labour. This woman would be able to deliver vaginally in 3 situations. The first would be if the foetus is estimated to weigh less than 3800g (first child weight 3800g). Another would be if the foetus is in a frank or complete breech presentation and lastly if the rate of labour progress is satisfactory and breech extraction is unnecessary. RCOG (Royal College of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists) guidelines recommends that women should be informed that elective Caesarean section for the delivery of a breech baby would have a lower risk of perinatal mortality than a planned vaginal delivery. This is because with an elective Caesarean section, we would be able to avoid stillbirth following 39 weeks of gestation as well as intrapartum and vaginal breech delivery risks. The ideal mode of delivery of a breech foetus when labour starts or at least close to term is a Caesarean section as the risks towards the foetus would be significantly increased in a vaginal delivery. The obstetrician is responsible to ensure that there are no other abnormalities that could complicate this even further such as footling presentation, low estimated birth weight (less than 10th centile), hyperextended neck on ultrasound, evidence of fetal distress and high estimated birth weight (>3.8kg). Provided that there is a normal progression of events, fetal risks during both labour and delivery should be low if such factors are absent. Hence, it is right to await the onset of labour to occur spontaneously in this case. In order to exclude a knee presentation with fetal head extension or a footling breech, ultrasound examination has to be done. These are linked to a high fetal risk if the mother attempts vaginal delivery. X-ray pelvimetry is advisable but is not essential in fetal size assessment since its accuracy is roughly 20%. In this case, it is not indicated since there is evidence that her pelvis is of adequate size as she had already delivered a 3.9kg baby prior. It is best to avoid induction of labour in breech cases for numerous reasons (need for augmentation, cord prolapse).

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 34 - A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
      In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.

      Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
      Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70
      Fundal height measures only 25 cm

      Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal growth restriction

      Explanation:

      A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.

      A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
      – Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
      – A multiple pregnancy
      – A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
      – Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
      – Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios).

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 35 - A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department complaining of having headache for the past two week. On examination her blood pressure is 148/100 and heart rate is 90/min.There is swelling over both her ankles, hands and eyes. The rest of the examination is normal. CTG tracing is reassuring and urine dipstick showed proteinuria. Which of the following is considered as the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation, steroids and antihypertensives

      Explanation:

      Patient in the given case has developed clinical features of mild preeclampsia presented as hypertension, ankle and facial oedema along with proteinuria.

      As the fetal lungs are not yet matured, best management in this case would be observing the patient frequently, starting her on steroids and antihypertensive drugs like methyldopa, or labetalol. 31 to 34 weeks of gestation is the optimal gestational age for starting dexamethasone therapy which will help in controlling blood pressure, helps in the maturation of lungs and will also gives time to organise delivery when the lungs are matured.

      Immediate C-section is not required at this stage of pregnancy, however a plan for cesarean section must be made to carry it out if the patient develops eclampsia during her stay in the hospital. Immediate vaginal delivery is also not indicated as the pregnancy is far from term. Induced labour will result in fetal demise soon after birth due to the fetal lung immaturity, but immediate delivery has to be considered once the fetal lung attains maturity.

      Magnesium Sulphate is indicated only in women with severe pre-eclampsia and even in such cases primary importance is given to blood pressure controlling. Magnesium sulphate is not indicated on this case as the patient is in mild eclampsia.

      Even though Paracetamol and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis are indicated in this case, anticoagulants should be avoided considering the emergency need for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 36 - An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the vagina for the last two days. Bimanual examination reveals the uterus to be 8 weeks in size. On speculum examination, the cervical os is closed. How would the fetal viability be confirmed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Indication for a transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy include:
      – to monitor the heartbeat of the foetus
      – look at the cervix for any changes that could lead to complications such as miscarriage or premature delivery
      – examine the placenta for abnormalities
      – identify the source of any abnormal bleeding
      – diagnose a possible miscarriage
      – confirm an early pregnancy

      This is an ultrasound examination that is usually carried out vaginally at 6-10 weeks of pregnancy.

      The aims of this scan are to determine the number of embryos present and whether the pregnancy is progressing normally inside the uterus.

      This scan is useful for women who are experiencing pain or bleeding in the pregnancy and those who have had previous miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 37 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

    She is at 38 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

      She is at 38 weeks gestation and has gone into labour.

      On examination, her cervix is 7cm dilated.

      Which of the following would be indicative of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman.

      Explanation:

      A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman is associated with high risk of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      Brow presentation occurs when the presenting part of the fetal head is the part between the orbital ridge and anterior fontanelle.

      In multiparous women, the indications differ as vaginal manipulation or spontaneous flexion to a vertex presentation or extension to a face presentation can occur after full cervical dilatation.

      Early fetal heart decelerations are indicative of a mild abnormality on cardiotocograph (CTG). It does not indicate obstructive labour or need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      The slow descent of the fetal head can be controlled subsequently by good uterine contractions and allow for vaginal birth.

      Prolonged labour can cause maternal fever, but that in isolation is not an indication for Caesarean section.

      Caput and head moulding are associated with a ‘tight fit’ of the fetal head in the pelvis, but does not contraindicate vaginal birth.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 38 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCVAb). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided

      Explanation:

      Invasive procedures as fetal scalp blood sampling or internal electrode and episiotomy increase vertical transmission of HCV, especially in patients with positive HCV RNA virus load at delivery that is why it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 39 - Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of...

    Incorrect

    • Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lie

      Explanation:

      Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.

      Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.

      Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.

      Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 40 - Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine atony

      Explanation:

      Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.

      Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 41 - A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous...

    Incorrect

    • A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks’ duration.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.

      Explanation:

      It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).

      The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
      In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.

      Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.

      In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.

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  • Question 42 - A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B....

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B. Which of the following additional tests should she be screened for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella, Toxoplasma and Syphilis

      Explanation:

      A screening blood test for the infectious diseases HIV, Syphilis, Rubella, Toxoplasmosis and Hepatitis B is offered to all pregnant females so as to reduce the chances of transmission to the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 43 - The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined...

    Incorrect

    • The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined by which of the following indications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 or more consecutive prior second trimester pregnancy losses

      Explanation:

      Cervical cerclage is performed as an attempt to prolong pregnancy in certain women who are at higher risk of preterm delivery.

      There are three well-accepted indications for cervical cerclage placement. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG), a history-indicated or prophylactic cerclage may be placed when there is a “history of one or more second-trimester pregnancy losses related to painless cervical dilation and in the absence of labour or abruptio placentae,” or if the woman had a prior cerclage placed due to cervical insufficiency in the second trimester.

      An ultrasound-indicated cerclage may be considered for women who have a history of spontaneous loss or preterm birth at less than 34 weeks gestation if the cervical length in a current singleton pregnancy is noted to be less than 25 mm before 24 weeks of gestation. It is important to note that this recommendation is invalidated without the history of preterm birth.

      Physical examination-indicated cerclage (also known as emergency or rescue cerclage) should be considered for patients with a singleton pregnancy at less than 24 weeks gestation with advanced cervical dilation in the absence of contractions, intraamniotic infection or placental abruption.

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  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event.

      On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
      Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
      – Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
      – Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
      -Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
      – Uterine tenderness
      – Change in uterine shape and contour
      – Easily palpable fetal parts
      – No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
      – Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.

      Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.

      Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.

      Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.

      Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.

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  • Question 45 - A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of her pregnancy, complaining of a mild vaginal bleeding since last 12 hours along with mild but periodic pain.

      On vaginal examination, cervical os is found to be closed with mild discharge which contains blood clots. Ultrasound performed confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal foetal heart sound.

      What among the following will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      The case is most likely diagnosed a threatened miscarriage.
      A diagnosis of threatened miscarriage is made when there is uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix and is confirmed by the sonographic visualisation of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity. Miscarriages may not always follow even though there was multiple episodes or large amounts of bleeding, therefore the term “threatened” is used in these cases.
      At 7 to 11 weeks of gestation, about 90 to 96 percent cases of pregnancies, will not usually miscarry if they have presented with an intact fetal cardiac activity along with vaginal bleeding and if bleeding occurs at the later weeks of gestational age chances of success rate is higher.

      Topic review:
      – Inevitable miscarriages presents with a dilated cervix, increasing uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissues can often be felt or seen through the cervical os and its passage occurs within a short time.
      – In Incomplete miscarriage, the membranes will rupture passing the fetus out, but significant amounts of placental tissue will be retained. This occurs most commonly in late first trimester or early second trimester. On examination, the cervical os will be opened and the gestational tissue can be observed in the cervix, with a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age, but not well contracted. The amount of bleeding varies but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock. There will be painful cramps
      ontractions and ultrasound reveals tissue in the uterus.
      – A missed miscarriage refers to the in-utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20th week of gestation, with retention of the pregnancy for a prolonged period of time. In this case, women may notice that symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have abated and they don’t “feel pregnant” anymore.
      Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix usually remains closed. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
      – Complete miscarriage, usually occurs before 12 weeks of gestation and the entire contents of the uterus will be expelled resulting in a complete miscarriage. In this case, physical examination reveals a small, well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix with scanty vaginal bleeding and mild cramping. Ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus with no extra-uterine gestation.

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  • Question 46 - A 24-year-old gravida 3 para 1 is admitted to the hospital at 29...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old gravida 3 para 1 is admitted to the hospital at 29 weeks gestation with a high fever, flank pain, and an abnormal urinalysis. You order blood and urine cultures, a CBC, electrolyte levels, and a serum creatinine level. You also start her on intravenous fluids and intravenous cefazolin. After 24 hours of antibiotic treatment she is clinically improved but continues to have fever spikes. What would be the most appropriate management at this time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue current management

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical problem that complicates pregnancy. Infection is more common after midpregnancy, and is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the lower tract. Escheria coli is the offending bacteria in approximately 75% of cases. About 15% of women with acute pyelonephritis are bacteraemia- A common finding is thermoregulatory instability, with very high spiking fevers sometimes followed by hypothermia- Almost 95% of women will be afebrile by 72 hours. However, it is common to see continued fever spikes up until that time- Thus, further evaluation is not indicated unless clinical improvement at 48-71 hours is lacking. If this is the case, the patient should be evaluated for urinary tract obstruction, urinary calculi and an intrarenal or perinephric abscess. Ultrasonography, plain radiography, and modified intravenous pyelography are all acceptable methods, depending on the clinical setting.

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  • Question 47 - A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to the medical clinic due to a vaginal discharge. Upon history taking, it was revealed that she had a history of preterm labour at 24 weeks of gestation during her last pregnancy. Upon examination, the presence of a clear fluid coming out of the vagina was noted.

      Which of the following is considered to be the best in predicting pre-term labour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical length of 15mm

      Explanation:

      Preterm birth is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality not attributable to congenital anomalies or aneuploidy. It has been shown that a shortened cervix is a powerful indicator of preterm births in women with singleton and twin gestations – the shorter the cervical length, the higher the risk of spontaneous preterm birth. Ultrasound measurements of the cervix are a more accurate way of determining cervical length (CL) than using a digital method.

      25 mm has been chosen as the ‘cut off’ at above which a cervix can be regarded as normal, and below which can be called short. A cervix that is less than 25 mm may be indicative of preterm birth.

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  • Question 48 - A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33 weeks of gestation for an antepartum haemorrhage of 300mL. The bleeding has now stopped. She had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done five years ago which was normal. Vital signs are as follows:

      Pulse: 76 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C
      Fetal heart rate: 144/min

      On physical exam, the uterus is lax and nontender. The fundal height is 34 cm above the pubic symphysis and the presenting part is high and mobile.

      Other than fetal monitoring with a cardiotocograph (CTG), which one of the following should be the immediate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination of the uterus.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a pregnant patient having vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s presentation, the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage is placenta praevia. The haemorrhage is unlikely to be due to a vasa praevia because a loss of 300mL would usually cause fetal distress or death, neither of which has occurred. Cervical malignancy is also unlikely as it typically would not have bleeding of this magnitude. A possible diagnosis would be a small placental abruption as it would fit with the lack of uterine tenderness and normal uterine size.

      For the immediate management of this patient, induction of labour is contraindicated before the placental site has been confirmed. Also, induction should not be performed when the gestation is only at 33 weeks, especially after an episode of a small antepartum haemorrhage. An ultrasound examination of the uterus is appropriate as it would define whether a placenta praevia is present and its grade. It would also show whether there is any evidence of an intrauterine clot associated with placental abruption from a normally situated placenta.

      If a placenta praevia is diagnosed by ultrasound, a pelvic examination under anaesthesia may be a part of the subsequent care, if it is felt that vaginal delivery might be possible. Usually it would be possible if the placenta praevia is grade 1 or grade 2 anterior in type. However, pelvic exam at this stage is certainly not the next step in care, and is rarely used in current clinical care.

      A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear will be necessary at some time in the near future, but would not be helpful in the care of this patient currently.

      Immediate Caesarean section is not needed as the bleeding has stopped, the foetus is not in distress, and the gestation is only 33 weeks.

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  • Question 49 - In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: More than 50% will abort

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion:
      – Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
      – Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
      – 50% survival
      More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present.

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  • Question 50 - A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
      Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
      Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
      The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed.

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  • Question 51 - A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned antenatal appointment.

      On examination her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, in two consecutive readings 5 minutes apart.

      Which among the following statements is true regarding gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia involves other features in addition to the presence of hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia presents with other features in addition to the presence of hypertension, also it’s diagnosis cannot be made considered peripheral edema as the only presenting symptom. Proteinuria occurs more commonly in pre-eclampsia than in gestational hypertension and the latter is mostly asymptomatic.

      Hypertensive disorders are found to complicate about 10% of all pregnancies. Common one among them is Gestational hypertension, which is defined as the new onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation without any maternal or fetal features of pre-eclampsia, in this case BP will return to normal within three months of postpartum.

      Types of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy:
      1. Pregnancy-induced hypertension:
      a. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 140 mm of Hg and diastolic hypertension above 90 mmHg occurring for the first time after the 20th week of pregnancy, which regresses postpartum.
      b. The rise in systolic blood pressure above 25 mm of Hg or diastolic blood pressure above 15 mm of Hg from readings before pregnancy or in the first trimester.
      2. Mild pre-eclampsia:
      BP up to 170/110 mm of Hg in the absence of associated features.
      3. Severe pre-eclampsia:
      BP above 170/110 mm of Hg and along with features such as kidney impairment, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver transaminase levels, persistent headache, epigastric tenderness or fetal compromise.
      4. Essential (coincidental) hypertension:
      Chronic underlying hypertension occurring before the onset of pregnancy or persisting after postpartum.
      5. Pregnancy-aggravated hypertension:
      Underlying hypertension which is worsened by pregnancy.

      To diagnose pre-eclampsia clinically, presence of one or more of the following symptoms are required along with a history of onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation.
      – Proteinuria: Above 300 mg/24 h or urine protein
      reatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol.
      – Renal insufficiency: serum/plasma creatinine above 0.09 mmol/L or oliguria.
      – Liver disease: raised serum transaminases and severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain.
      – Neurological problems: convulsions (eclampsia); hyperreflexia with clonus; severe headaches with hyperreflexia; persistent visual disturbances (scotomata).
      – Haematological disturbances like thrombocytopenia; disseminated intravascular coagulation; hemolysis.

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  • Question 52 - Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous abortion is the loss of pregnancy naturally before twenty weeks of gestation. Colloquially, spontaneous abortion is referred to as a ‘miscarriage’ to avoid association with induced abortion. Early pregnancy loss refers only to spontaneous abortion in the first trimester. In 50% of cases, early pregnancy loss is believed to be due to fetal chromosomal abnormalities. Advanced maternal age and previous early pregnancy loss are the most common risk factors. For example, the incidence of early pregnancy loss in women 20-30 years of age is only 9 to 17%, while the incidence at 45 years of maternal age is 80%. Other risk factors include alcohol consumption, smoking, and cocaine use.

      Several chronic diseases can precipitate spontaneous abortion, including diabetes, celiac disease, and autoimmune conditions, particularly anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome. Rapid conception after delivery and infections, such as cervicitis, vaginitis, HIV infection, syphilis, and malaria, are also common risk factors. Another important risk factor is exposure to environmental contaminants, including arsenic, lead, and organic solvents. Finally, structural uterine abnormalities, such as congenital anomalies, leiomyoma, and intrauterine adhesions, have been shown to increase the risk of spontaneous abortion.

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  • Question 53 - Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal diagnosis in pregnancy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)

      Explanation:

      CVS has decreased in frequency with the recent increased uptake of cell-free DNA screening. It remains the only diagnostic test available in the first trimester and allows for diagnostic analyses, including fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), karyotype, microarray, molecular testing, and gene sequencing. CVS is performed between 10 and 14 weeks’ gestation. CVS has been performed before 9 weeks in the past, though this has shown to increase the risk of limb deformities and, therefore, is no longer recommended.

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  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily.

      On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg.

      From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa

      Explanation:

      In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
      Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
      Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
      Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
      Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
      Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
      All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
      Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia.

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  • Question 55 - A 32-year-old woman came to your clinic in a small rural town of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman came to your clinic in a small rural town of New South Wales. She is 34 weeks pregnant and all her past 3 pregnancy has been uncomplicated.

      On examination her blood pressure is 140/95 mm of Hg today which is higher than her usual blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. Urinalysis shows protein 2+ and the patient feels well generally.

      Among the following, which is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send her to the local hospital for urgent review

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed clinical features like hypertension and proteinuria consistent with Pre-eclampsia. So the patient should be sent to an obstetrician for urgent review, it is not appropriate in such cases to postpone urgent specialist reviews as it could lead to serious complications.

      Labetalol though is safe in pregnancy and is considered as an option to treat hypertension, it could be given in the emergency department.

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  • Question 56 - A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected.

      Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
      The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
      Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.

      Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.

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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal discharge, which has started last night after she had sex with her husband.

      Speculum examination shows, pooling of straw-colored fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervical os is closed and there is leaking of liquor from cervical os when she is asked to cough or strain.

      Which among the following best explains these clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

      Explanation:

      Presentation in the given case is classic for premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which was probably caused due to trauma during intercourse.
      Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is defined as the rupture of embryonic membranes before the onset of labor, regardless of the age of pregnancy. If occured before 37 weeks of gestation, it is termed as preterm PROM (PPROM.)

      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina is the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes (ROM), regardless of gestational age, however nowadays many women presents with continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid or a sensation of wetness within the vagina or on the perineum. Presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or its pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix are considered as the pathognomonic symptom of ROM. Assessment of fetal well-being, the position of the fetus, placental location, estimated fetal weight and presence of any anomalies in PROM and PPROM are done with ultrasonographic studies.

      Retained semen will not result in the findings mentioned in this clinical scenario as it have a different appearance.

      Infections will not be a cause for this presentation as it will be associated with characteristic features like purulent cervical discharge, malodorous vaginal discharge, etc. Pooling of clear fluid in the posterior fornix is pathognomonic for ROM.

      Urine leakage is common during the pregnancy, but it is not similar to the clinical scenario mentioned above.

      Absence of findings like cervical dilation and bulging membranes on speculum exam makes cervical insufficiency an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

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  • Question 58 - What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension in pregnancy define blood pressure in pregnancy as follows:
      Mild hypertension: DBP=90-99 mmHg, SBP=140-149 mmHg. Moderate hypertension: DBP=100-109 mmHg, SBP=150-159 mmHg.
      Severe hypertension: DBP=110 mmHg or greater, SBP=160 mmHg or greater.

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  • Question 59 - A newborn male infant, born to a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 0 aborta...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn male infant, born to a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 0 aborta 2 woman, who did not receive any prenatal care, is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit for growth restriction. The mother who presented for labor at approximately 38 weeks of gestation, had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery due to fetal heart rate abnormalities. 

      The newborn's Apgar scores were 6 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively and his weight was 2.5 kg.  Physical examination shows microcephaly, a wide anterior fontanelle, cleft palate and hypoplasia of the distal phalanges.

      A history of which of the following will be obtained on further evaluation of the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin use

      Explanation:

      This infant will most likely be diagnosed as having fetal hydantoin syndrome, which occurs due to an in utero exposure to antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproate etc. 

      Multiple antiepileptics, due to their ability to cross placenta, have teratogenic effects which will result in low folate and high oxidative metabolite levels in the fetus. This likely combined effect results deformities like cleft lip and palate, wide anterior fontanelle, distal phalangeal hypoplasia and cardiac anomalies like pulmonary stenosis, aortic stenosis etc in the fetus. There will be developmental delay and poor cognitive outcomes as a result of neural tube defects and microcephaly associated with this. Therefore, prior to conception, those patients who require antiepileptics for seizure control during pregnancy should titrate it to the lowest dose and must started on high-dose (4 mg) folic acid supplementation to minimize the risk of such congenital malformations.

      Fetal alcohol syndrome commonly presents with microcephaly and midfacial hypoplasia, but is not association with cleft lip or palate.

      Cocaine use during pregnancy can be associated with preterm delivery, abruptio placentae and fetal growth restriction; but there is no evidence to prove its association with congenital defects.

      Fetal renal failure with associated oligohydramnios that results in pulmonary hypoplasia, growth restriction, and limb defects are the complications associated with the use of lisinopril and other angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors during pregnancy; but it does not cause cleft lip or palate.

      Most infants with congenital syphilis are asymptomatic at birth and those with symptoms typically have rhinitis or “snuffles, hepatomegaly and a maculopapular rash none of which are seen in this patient.

      Fetal hydantoin syndrome results from the in-utero exposure to antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine etc and is usually presented with microcephaly, a wide anterior fontanelle, cleft lip and palate, and distal phalangeal hypoplasia.

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  • Question 60 - A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms,...

    Incorrect

    • A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.

      Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Free T4

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.

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  • Question 61 - A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins in her legs and vulva.

      She is 28 weeks pregnant and reports that she feels quite uncomfortable due to the varicose veins.

      She has never had a similar problem in her previous pregnancies.

      What is the best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical ligation and stripping of the affected veins.

      Explanation:

      The best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman is to use pressure stockings and a vulval pad (correct answer). This will provide relief without causing any adverse effects.

      In order to prevent ulceration, care is required to avoid trauma.

      Since the patient is pregnant, surgical ligation or injecting of sclerosing solutions cannot be considered and are contraindicated.

      Development of varices is often exacerbated in subsequent pregnancies; and therefore surgery should be eschewed until child-bearing is complete,

      Bed rest in hospital would reduce the symptoms of the varicose veins; however this should be avoided as it can increase the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis.

      Anticoagulant therapy has not been shown to be beneficial for treatment of varicosities that only affect the superficial venous system and should therefore not be used.

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  • Question 62 - A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She has a history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and has been stable on sodium valproate. Despite your full explanations about the risks of the teratogenicity of antiepileptic drugs, she insists she wants to be a mother and asks you to guide her.

      Among the following which would be the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      As they respond differently to different drugs, a thorough distinguishing must be done between the two major groups of epilepsies while approaching a woman, who wishes to become pregnant while on antiepileptic drugs.

      Partial epilepsies will respond to most of the antiepileptic drugs, but in case of idiopathic generalized epilepsies, especially in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, seizure can be controlled only with a reasonably low dose of sodium valproate. Although lamotrigine may be helpful but substitution of sodium valproate with lamotrigine is not the right choice. This is because lamotrigine is not as effective as sodium valproate and will sometimes worsens myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.

      Topiramate and levetiracetam are found to be effective in idiopathic generalized epilepsy, while carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin may worsen some seizure types, especially in myoclonic and absence seizures. For some women with idiopathic generalized epilepsies, there will be no effective alternative to sodium valproate as cessation of sodium valproate will lead to recurrence of the generalized seizures, especially juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Hence, it is not advisable to discontinue the drug in auch patients.

      On the other hand, sodium valproate have the highest reported teratogenicity potential among antiepileptic drugs and the Australian Pregnancy Register has reported the risk to be as high as 16% if used in first trimester. Sodium valproate should be avoided in women of reproductive age and if a patient on the medication is willing to become pregnant, she should be well informed about the risk of teratogenicity and the decision must be left to her. If she decides to accept the risks and continue with pregnancy, the lowest possible effective dose should be prescribed to her.

      If the dose of sodium valproate has been reduced to minimum during pregnancy to reduce the possible teratogenesis, it is recommended to re-establish the prepartum effective dose before the onset of labor. This is because, it is the time with increased risk for seizures, especially in patients with idiopathic generalised epilepsy who are very sensitive to sleep deprivation. Valproate therapy is found to be safe during breastfeeding.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 63 - A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.

      Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.

      Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
      – Mullerian anomalies
      – Placentation
      – Uterine leiomyoma
      – Prematurity
      – Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
      – Congenital anomalies
      – Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
      – Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall.

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  • Question 64 - The relation of different fetal parts to each other determines? ...

    Incorrect

    • The relation of different fetal parts to each other determines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attitude of the foetus

      Explanation:

      Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.

      Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.

      Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.

      Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.

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  • Question 65 - A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clotting factor problem

      Explanation:

      Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 66 - The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cord entrapment

      Explanation:

      Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 67 - A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia and later eclampsia. What are the chances of her pre-eclampsia recurring in a later pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Research suggests the risk of having preeclampsia again is approximately 20%, however experts cite a range from 5% to 80% depending on when you had it in a prior pregnancy, how severe it was, and additional risk factors you may have. If you had preeclampsia during your first pregnancy, you may get it again. HELLP is related to preeclampsia and about 4 to 12 percent of women diagnosed with preeclampsia develop HELLP. HELLP syndrome can also cause complications in pregnancy, and if you had HELLP in a previous pregnancy, regardless of the time of onset, you have a greater risk for developing it in future pregnancies.

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  • Question 68 - A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.

      On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.

      Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.

      A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.

      Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption

      Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.

      The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.

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  • Question 69 - A 29-year-old woman at 28 weeks of pregnancy was diagnosed with gestational diabetes....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman at 28 weeks of pregnancy was diagnosed with gestational diabetes. At a high-risk pregnancy clinic, she was considered to have been managed well until 38 weeks when she delivered a healthy 4-kg baby via vaginal delivery without any complications.

      Which of the following is the next step in managing her gestational diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75g oral glucose tolerance test performed 6 to 8 weeks after delivery

      Explanation:

      The Australasian Diabetes in Pregnancy Society recommends a 50 or 75 g glucose challenge at 26–28 weeks in all pregnant women. An OGTT should be performed if the test result is abnormal: 1 hour values after a 50 or 75 g glucose challenge exceeding 7.8 or 8.0 mmol/L respectively.

      If a woman has had gestational diabetes, a repeat OGTT is recommended at 6–8 weeks and 12 weeks after delivery. If the results are normal, repeat testing is recommended between 1 and 3 years depending on the clinical circumstances.

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  • Question 70 - Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits

      Explanation:

      Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.

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  • Question 71 - A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
      Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.

      Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.

      Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.

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  • Question 72 - A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein

      Explanation:

      This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.

      → Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
      → It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
      → Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia.

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  • Question 73 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

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  • Question 74 - A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department due to breech presentation which was confirmed on ultrasound. There is also a failed external cephalic version.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elective caesarean delivery at 38 weeks of gestation

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      The current recommendation for the breech presentation at term includes offering external cephalic version (ECV) to those patients that meet criteria, and for those whom are not candidates or decline external cephalic version, a planned caesarean section for delivery sometime after 39 weeks.

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  • Question 75 - Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cephalic, cephalic

      Explanation:

      The commonest foetal presentation in twin pregnancy is cephalic-cephalic.

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  • Question 76 - A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal delivery, which was complicated by a small perianal tear that was taken care of without stitching. On the fifth day of postpartum patient presents with heavy bright red vaginal bleeding and mentions that lochia was in scant amounts compared to her previous pregnancy.

      On examination, her temperature was 38.8°C and uterus is mildly tender to palpation.

      Which one of the following would most likely be her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retained products of conception

      Explanation:

      Secondary postpartum hemorrhage of bright red character accompanied with fever, between 24 hours to 12 weeks of postpartum is suggestive of retained products of conception (RPOC).
      The basal portion of the decidua may remain after separation of placenta in many cases. This decidua will then divides into two layers, the superficial layer which will be shed spontaneously and the deep layer which will regenerates and covers the entire endometrial cavity with in 16 days of postpartum.
      Normal shedding of blood and decidua is referred to as lochia rubra, which is red / reddish brown in colour and it lasts for few days following delivery. This vaginal discharge gradually becomes watery and pinkish brown in colour, lasting for 2 to 3 weeks and is called as lochia serosa. Ultimately, this discharge becomes yellowish-white called as lochia alba.

      Scanty lochia in the first few days after delivery is suggestive of the placental site not undergoing involution, which occurs mostly due to RPOC. Later these retained products will undergo necrosis resulting in fibrin deposition which will eventually form a placental polyp. Detachment of this scar of polyp will result in brisk hemorrhage and the remaining necrotic products will get infected resulting in uterine infection which will present with fever, lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness.

      Endometritis can lead to fever, offensive lochia and abdominal pain with tenderness. It is the most common cause of postpartum fever, but occurs within the first 5 days of postpartum with the peak incidence between days 2 and 3. Though vaginal bleeding is a presenting feature, bright red bleeding is unlikely of endometritis.

      Another cause of postpartum fever is genital lacerations which have a peak incidence of wound infection between 4th and 5th days. Although fever as a temporal symptom favours wound infection, this diagnosis is less likely in the given case as wound infection will not affect the normal course of lochia, also it does not present as heavy bright red bleeding. Moreover, there are no symptoms like erythema, tenderness or discharge in history suggestive of wound infection.

      Another cause of bleeding and fever can be cervical tear but this tends to present as primary postpartum hemorrhage rather than secondary, which occurs after 24 hours of postpartum. An overlooked and infected minor cervical laceration can cause fever but ii will not result in bright red bleeding, also genital tract lacerations do not affect lochia.

      It is very unlikely for uterine rupture to occur 24 hours after delivery.

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  • Question 77 - A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
      Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.

      Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.

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  • Question 78 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of fever, she had given birth to a healthy male baby four days ago. During vaginal delivery, she sustained small vaginal laceration, suture repair was not done as the lesion were small. Presently she is breastfeeding her baby.

      Physical examination shows no uterine tenderness and the rest of the examinations were unremarkable.

      Which of the following can be the most likely cause of this Patient's fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection of the unrepaired vaginal laceration

      Explanation:

      As the time of onset of fever is the 4th day of postpartum and absence of uterine tenderness on exam makes infection of vaginal laceration the most likely cause of this presentation.

      Exquisite uterine tenderness will be experienced in case of endometritis and symptoms are expected to start much earlier like by 2-3 days of postpartum.

      UTI is often expected on days one or two of postpartum, also there are no urinary symptoms suggestive of UTI

      Breast engorgement usually develops by 7th -2st day of postpartum and in the given case it’s too soon for it to occur.

      As it is expected during the first 2 hours postpartum, Atelectasis is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in the given case.

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  • Question 79 - A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine; and they are planning to have a baby in next three months.

      What will be the most appropriate management in this patient during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate and continue sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis and its prognosis during pregnancy are highly unpredictable, as the disease can improve in 75% of the cases and gets worse in 25%. During conception and pregnancy, it is advisable to avoid those rheumatoid arthritis medications which possess high risk in causing congenital disabilities. Most common such contraindicated remedies include methotrexate and leflunomide.
      Drugs like Prednisone, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and TNF inhibitors are also not considered safe during pregnancy, so if required these should be used under specialist supervision.

      Sulfasalazine and Antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine are safe and can be used without much complications during pregnancy. In this given case, the patient should be advised to stop methotrexate and to continue sulfasalazine during pregnancy.

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  • Question 80 - A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16 weeks of gestation. Her body temperature is 37.8 degrees Celsius. She appears to be in good health and is eating properly. Her uterus had been discovered to be retroverted but of normal size at her prior antenatal check at 11 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection.

      Explanation:

      Lower abdominal pain can be caused by any of the conditions listed in the answers.
      A urinary tract infection is the most likely cause.
      Unless it was an abdominal ectopic or an interstitial pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy.
      will almost definitely have shown up before the 15th week of pregnancy.
      A retroverted gravid uterus may impinge at 15 weeks of pregnancy, however, this is unlikely to be linked to a temperature of 37.8°C.
      It’s also possible that it’s the source of acute urine retention.
      Complications of the corpus luteum cyst normally manifest themselves considerably earlier in pregnancy, and severe appendicitis is far less likely to be the source of discomfort than a urinary tract infection.

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  • Question 81 - A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A missed abortion

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.

      – By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
      – An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
      – A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue.

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  • Question 82 - A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.

      Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.

      In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give anti-D now

      Explanation:

      As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.

      Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
      eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
      In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.

      All the other options are incorrect.

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  • Question 83 - A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now

      Explanation:

      To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.

      Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
      If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.

      Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
      Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period.

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  • Question 84 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She recently underwent right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen- and progesterone-receptor-positive tumor.  She was on an aromatase inhibitor as adjuvant therapy, which was discontinued due to severe fatigue and poor sleep. At present, she is scheduled for a 5-year course of adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen. Patient has no other chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin.  Her last menstrual period was 8 years ago. Patient's father had a myocardial infarction at the age 64; otherwise her family history is noncontributory. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her vital signs seems stable, with a BMI of 21 kg/m2.

      Patient has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and asks about potential side effects. Which among the following complications mentioned below is this patient at greatest risk of developing, due to tamoxifen therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperplasia of the endometrium

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are drugs which acts as selective estrogen receptor modulators.
      Their mechanisms of action are competitive inhibitor of estrogen binding and mixed agonist/antagonist action respectively.
      Commonly indicated in prevention of breast cancer in high-risk patients. Tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and Raloxifene in postmenopausal osteoporosis.
      Adverse effects include:
      – Hot flashes
      – Venous thromboembolism
      – Endometrial hyperplasia & carcinoma (tamoxifen only)
      – Uterine sarcoma (tamoxifen only)
      Adjuvant endocrine therapy is commonly used option for treatment of nonmetastatic, hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer; and the most commonly used endocrine agents include tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, and ovarian suppression via GnRH agonists or surgery.

      Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator which is an estrogen receptor antagonist in the breast.  It is the most preferred adjuvant treatment for pre-menopausal women at low risk of breast cancer recurrence.  Tamoxifen is also a second-line endocrine adjuvant agent for postmenopausal women who cannot use aromatase inhibitor therapy due to intolerable side effects.
      Tamoxifen acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and stimulates excessive proliferation of endometrium. Therefore, tamoxifen use is associated with endometrial polyps in premenopausal women, and endometrial hyperplasia and cancer in postmenopausal women. These effects will continue throughout the duration of therapy and resolves once the treatment is discontinued. Even with all these possible complications, benefits of tamoxifen to improve the survival from breast cancer outweighs the risk of endometrial cancer.

      In postmenopausal women, tamoxifen has some estrogen-like activity on the bone, which can increase bone mineral density and thereby reduce the incidence of osteoporosis significantly.  However, tamoxifen is generally not a first-line agent for osteoporosis in treatment due to the marked risk of endometrial cancer.

      Dysplasia of the cervical transformation zone is typically caused due to chronic infection by human papillomavirus, and tamoxifen has no known effects on the cervix.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with any increased risk for adenomyosis, which is characterised by ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium.

      Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries is a precursor lesion for atherosclerosis. Tamoxifen helps to decrease blood cholesterol level and thereby protect against coronary artery disease.

      Tamoxifen is an estrogen antagonist on breast tissue and is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, but it also acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and increases the risk of development of endometrial polyps, hyperplasia, and cancer.

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  • Question 85 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up.

      On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal.

      When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane

      Explanation:

      This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”.  Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).

      An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
      Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.

      Causes of oligohydramnios
      a) Maternal causes includes:
      – Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
      – Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
      b) Placental causes are:
      – Abruption of placenta
      – Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
      – Placental thrombosis or infarction
      c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
      – Chromosomal abnormalities
      – Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
      – Growth restriction
      – Demise
      – Post-term pregnancy
      – Ruptured fetal membranes
      – Infections
      – Idiopathic causes

      During First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.

      During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.

      During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.

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  • Question 86 - Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage requiring hysterectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placenta accreta

      Explanation:

      Placental abnormalities such as placenta previa and placenta accreta are the most common reasons for considering hysterectomy as an inevitable treatment option in postpartum hemorrhage.

      Placental villi normally invade only the superficial layers of endometrial deciduas basalis, but when the invasion is too deep into the uterine wall, the condition is termed as placenta accreta, increta or percreta depending on the depth of invasion.
      – When the villi invade the deeper layers of the endometrial deciduus basalis, but not the myometrium it is called as Placenta accreta. This is the most common type of decidual invasion and accounts for approximately 75% of the cases.
      – When the villi invade the myometrium, but do not reach the uterine serosa or the bladder is called Placenta increta. This type accounts for nearly 15% of cases.
      – In cases were the villi invades into the uterine serosa or the bladder is it called as Placenta percreta and this happens in 5% of cases.

      Prior uterine surgery is the main risk factor for placenta accreta and the best management is elective cesarean hysterectomy.
      postpartum hemorrhage can also be caused by conditions like genital lacerations, uterine atony, retained products of conception and uterine inversion. In most of these above mentioned cases, hysterectomy is not required and remains as the last resort in extremely desperate situations.

      NOTE– Though uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, it is often manageable medically.

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  • Question 87 - A 33-year -old G2Pl woman who is at 10 weeks gestation presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year -old G2Pl woman who is at 10 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic for antenatal visit. It was revealed that she has a twin pregnancy. She was known to have had a complicated previous pregnancy with placental abruption at 34 weeks.

      Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient in addition to routine antenatal care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased iron and folic acid supplementation

      Explanation:

      Twin pregnancies are at risk for iron deficiency due to significant maternal, fetal, and placental demands. Recommendations regarding the optimal iron dose in twin pregnancies are based on clinical expert opinions, advocating doubling the dose of iron from 30 mg of elemental iron to 60 mg routinely during the second and third trimester, regardless of maternal iron stores.

      If pregnant with twins, patient should take the same prenatal vitamins she would take for any pregnancy, but a recommendation of extra folic acid and iron will be made. The additional folic acid and extra iron will help ward off iron-deficiency anaemia, which is more common when patient is pregnant with multiples.

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  • Question 88 - A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old G1P0 female presents to your department with a complaint of not having menstrual periods over the last 6 months. She had her first menstrual periods at the age of 13 and they have been consistent since then with a cycle of 28 days. She reports that she had an unplanned pregnancy 8 months ago and did an elective abortion at the 8th week of gestation. Since that time she has not had menstrual periods. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. The pregnancy test is negative.
      Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, most likely caused by Asherman’s syndrome- Secondary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menstruation for – 3 months in a patient who had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- Asherman’s syndrome as the cause of her amenorrhea is suggested by its beginning shortly after undergoing elective abortion. It is an outflow tract obstruction caused by intrauterine synechiae resulting from the procedure.

      The best diagnostic test to confirm this diagnosis is hysteroscopy. It can allow visualization of the uterine cavity, the nature and extent of intrauterine synechiae.

      → Progesterone withdrawal test is one of the diagnostic studies done in the early work-up of secondary amenorrhoea- It is usually followed by the estrogen-progesterone challenge test and other tests. Progesterone withdrawal test alone would not confirm Asherman’s syndrome.
      → Pelvic ultrasound is more useful in primary amenorrhea work-up when the presence or absence of the uterus is to be confirmed- It is not very useful in the evaluation of intrauterine adhesions.
      → Brain MRI is useful in confirming the presence of pituitary tumours in patients, who are found to have high levels of prolactin. This patient’s most likely cause of secondary amenorrhea is Asherman’s syndrome.
      → TSH and prolactin levels should be the next step in the work-up of secondary amenorrhea after pregnancy has been ruled out; however, these studies cannot confirm Asherman’s syndrome.

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  • Question 89 - A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.

      Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.

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  • Question 90 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation.

      This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.

      Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.

      Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.

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  • Question 91 - A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. What is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methyldopa

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).

      Non-severe Hypertension and asymptomatic at ≥ 20w
      (BP ≥ 140/90 and < 160/110mmHg)
      • Urine dipstick analysis
      • Quantify 24hr urine protein excretion/U-PCR
      • Start Methyldopa 500mg 8hrly
      • Do Hb, Platelet count, s-Cr, AST/ALT, Urine specimen for MC&S
      • If gestational hypertension is diagnosed and BP is well controlled, continue antihypertensive therapy and plan delivery at 38 weeks if all remains well in the interim

      Hypertension with symptoms or severe features
      • Admit in High care unit and nurse in left lateral
      • Insert urinary catheter and IV line
      • Administer IV Ringers lactate (total volume of IV fluid administered should not exceed
      80mls/hr)
      • Start Magnesium Sulphate
      • Control BP
      • Perform an ultrasound (if indicated) or assess clinically to determine fetal viability,
      EFW (Estimated Fetal Weight) and liquor volume and, if possible
      • If GA ≥ 34/40 or EFW ≥ 2200g expedite delivery
      • If GA ≥ 26/40 and < 34/40, administer course of steroids to enhance fetal lung maturity
      • If patient is stabilised, offer expectant management if < 34 weeks and eligible

      Acute severe hypertension (DBP ≥ 110mmHg and or SBP ≥ 160mmHg)
      • Administer Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg per os immediately
      • Start maintenance therapy with Nifedipine (Adalat XL®) 30-60mg BD orally (maximum
      120mg/day)
      • Aim for DBP ≤ 110 and SBP ≤ 160mmHg
      • If BP is still high after 30 minutes, repeat Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg orally every 30
      minutes, for a maximum of three dosages or until BP < 160/110mmHg (contraindication:
      tachycardia > 120 bpm, unable to swallow, cardiac lesion).
      • If after 30 minutes BP is still high then give Labetalol 20, 40, 80, 80 and
      80mg (max 300mg) as bolus doses at 10 minute intervals, checking BP every 10
      minutes until BP < 160/110mmHg. Contra-indications: patients with asthma and
      ischaemic heart disease. If BP monitoring is not achievable at 10 minute intervals then
      patient should be transferred to ICU for a Labetalol infusion.

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  • Question 92 - In twin deliveries: Which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • In twin deliveries: Which is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are at increased risk for postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). A number of maternal and peripartum factors are associated with PPH requiring blood transfusion in twin gestations. Reducing the rate of caesarean delivery in twin pregnancies may decrease maternal hemorrhagic morbidity.

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  • Question 93 - Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.

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  • Question 94 - A 23-year-old primigravida who is at 41 weeks has been pushing for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old primigravida who is at 41 weeks has been pushing for the past 2 and a half ours. The fetal head is at the introitus and is beginning to crown already. An episiotomy was seen to be necessary. The tear was observed to extend through the sphincter of the rectum but her rectal mucosa remains intact.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate type of episiotomy to be performed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third-degree

      Explanation:

      The episiotomy is a technique originally designed to reduce the incidence of severe perineal tears (third and fourth-degree) during labour. The general idea is to make a controlled incision in the perineum, for enlargement of the vaginal orifice, to facilitate difficult deliveries.

      Below is the classification scale for the definitions of vaginal tears:
      First degree involves the vaginal mucosa and perineal skin with no underlying tissue involvement.
      Second degree includes underlying subcutaneous tissue and perineal muscles.
      Third degree is where the anal sphincter musculature is involved in the tear. The third-degree tear can be further broken down based on the total area of anal sphincter involvement.
      Fourth degree is where the tear extends through the rectal muscle into rectal mucosa.

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  • Question 95 - All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The earlier the episiotomy is done during delivery, generally the more beneficial it will be in speeding up delivery

      Explanation:

      The best time of the episiotomy is when the presenting part becomes visible during the contractions. If the episiotomy is performed at the proper time, less time will be required for the delivery. However, if its done too late, it causes excessive stretching of the pelvic floor and further potential lacerations.

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  • Question 96 - One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of...

    Incorrect

    • One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of pregnancy, a 33-year-old woman developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has been on enoxaparin therapy for DVT. Upon discharge, there is a plan to start her on warfarin. When this was explained, the patient was reluctant to take warfarin since she thinks it might cause problems to the baby because she is planning to breastfeed.

      Which of the following is considered correct regarding warfarin and breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should continue to breastfeed her baby while she is on warfarin

      Explanation:

      No adverse reactions in breastfed infants have been reported from maternal warfarin use during lactation, even with a dose of 25 mg daily for 7 days. There is a consensus that maternal warfarin therapy during breastfeeding poses little risk to the breastfed infant.

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  • Question 97 - A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.

      On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.

      Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg

      Explanation:

      For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.

      Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.

      Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.

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  • Question 98 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.

      On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.

      Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

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  • Question 99 - A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of malaise. She has a normal body temperature but clinical examination shows RUQ tenderness. Blood tests revealed a mild anaemia, high liver enzyme values, low platelets and haemolysis. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      HELLP syndrome stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels and is a very severe condition that can happen during pregnancy. Management of this condition requires immediate delivery of the baby.

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  • Question 100 - All of the following statements is considered incorrect regarding the management of deep...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements is considered incorrect regarding the management of deep vein thrombosis in pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding

      Explanation:

      Anticoagulant therapy is the standard treatment for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) but is mostly used in non-pregnant patients. In pregnancy, unfractionated heparin (UFH) and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) are commonly used. Warfarin therapy is generally avoided in pregnancy because of its fetal toxicity.

      Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy, but is safe to use postpartum and is compatible with breastfeeding. Low-molecular-weight heparin has largely replaced unfractionated heparin for prophylaxis and treatment in pregnancy.

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  • Question 101 - During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change? ...

    Incorrect

    • During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tidal volume 500ml.

      Explanation:

      There is a significant increase in oxygen demand during pregnancy due to a 15% increase in the metabolic rate and a 20% increased consumption of oxygen. There is a 40–50% increase in minute ventilation, mostly due to an increase in tidal volume, rather than in the respiratory rate. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration

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  • Question 102 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom. She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void.  She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access. Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s. She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.”  When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure. 

      Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Voiding diary

      Explanation:

      This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day.  Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.

      All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.

      In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.

      Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.

      In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.

      Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point).  This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.

      Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.

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  • Question 103 - A chronic alcoholic lady presented to the medical clinic with complaints of an...

    Incorrect

    • A chronic alcoholic lady presented to the medical clinic with complaints of an increase in abdominal size. Ultrasound was performed and revealed a foetus in which parameters correspond to 32 weeks of gestation. Upon history taking, it was noted that she works in a pub and occasionally takes marijuana, cocaine, amphetamine and opioid.

      Which of the following is considered to have the most teratogenic effect to the foetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      All of the conditions that comprise fetal alcohol spectrum disorders stem from one common cause, which is prenatal exposure to alcohol. Alcohol is extremely teratogenic to a foetus. Its effects are wide-ranging and irreversible. Although higher amounts of prenatal alcohol exposure have been linked to increased incidence and severity of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, there are no studies that demonstrate a safe amount of alcohol that can be consumed during pregnancy. There is also no safe time during pregnancy in which alcohol can be consumed without risk to the foetus. Alcohol is teratogenic during all three trimesters. In summary, any amount of alcohol consumed at any point during pregnancy has the potential cause of irreversible damage that can lead to a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.

      In general, diagnoses within fetal alcohol spectrum disorders have one or more of the following features: abnormal facies, central nervous system abnormalities, and growth retardation.

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  • Question 104 - A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.

    She is at 40 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.

      She is at 40 weeks gestation and complains of a 24-hour history of no fetal movements.

      On auscultation, fetal heart beats are clearly audible with a measurement of 140/min.

      On diagnostic testing, the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal and reactive.

      On physical examination, her cervix is 2cm dilated and fully effaced.

      She is reassured and allowed to return home.

      24 hours later, she calls to complain she has still felt no fetal movements, adding up to a 48 hour history.

      What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for induction of labour.

      Explanation:

      Labour induction is indicated as no fetal movements have been felt for 24 hours, with a normal cardiotocograph (CTG) and the pregnancy is at near/full term with a favourable cervix.

      Amniotic fluid volume assessment would have been indicated 24 hours earlier as, if it was low, induction would have been indicated then, despite a normal CTG.

      Ultrasound examination of the foetus is not indicated as it is necessary to expedite delivery.

      Carrying out another CTG, with or without oxytocin challenge, is not indicated, although MG monitoring during induced labour would be mandatory.

      Delivery immediately by Caesarean section is not indicated unless the lack of fetal movements is due to fetal hypoxia. This can result in fetal distress during labour, necessitating an emergency Caesarean section if the cervix is not fully dilated.

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  • Question 105 - A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental abruption. Choose the single most likely predisposing factor for developing PPH in this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DIC

      Explanation:

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in pregnancy is the most common cause of an abnormal haemorrhage tendency during pregnancy and the puerperium. Although pregnancy itself can cause DIC, its presence is invariably evidence of an underlying obstetric disorder such as abruptio placentae, eclampsia, retention of a dead foetus, amniotic fluid embolism, placental retention or bacterial sepsis.

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  • Question 106 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound together with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97%

      Explanation:

      Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.

      The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).

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  • Question 107 - A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents at 30 weeks gestation with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents at 30 weeks gestation with a complaint of severe itching. She has excoriations from scratching in various areas. She says that she had the same problem during her last pregnancy, and her medical records reveal a diagnosis of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Elevation of which one of the following is most specific and sensitive marker of this disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bile acids

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) classically presents as severe pruritus in the third trimester. Characteristic findings include the absence of primary skin lesions and elevation of serum levels of total bile acids.

      The most specific and sensitive marker of ICP is total serum bile acid (BA) levels greater than 10 micromol/L. In addition to the elevation in serum BA levels, the cholic acid level is significantly increased and the chenodeoxycholic acid level is mildly increased, leading to elevation in the cholic
      henodeoxycholic acid level ratio. The elevation of aminotransferases associated with ICP varies from a mild increase to a 10- to 25-fold increase.

      Total bilirubin levels are also increased but usually the values are less than 5 mg/dL. Alkaline phosphatase (AP) is elevated in ICP up to 4-fold, but this is not helpful for diagnosis of the disorder since AP is elevated in pregnancy due to production by the placenta- Mild elevation of gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT) is seen with ICP but occurs in fewer than 30% of cases. However, if GGT is elevated in cases of ICP, that patient is more likely to have a genetic component of the liver disease.

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  • Question 108 - A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a positive group B Streptococcus vaginal swab.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment needed before labour

      Explanation:

      About 1 in 4 pregnant women carry GBS bacteria in their body. Doctors should test pregnant woman for GBS bacteria when they are 36 through 37 weeks pregnant.

      Giving pregnant women antibiotics through the vein (IV) during labour can prevent most early-onset GBS disease in newborns. A pregnant woman who tests positive for GBS bacteria and gets antibiotics during labour has only a 1 in 4,000 chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease. If she does not receive antibiotics during labour, her chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease is 1 in 200.

      Pregnant women cannot take antibiotics to prevent early-onset GBS disease in newborns before labour. The bacteria can grow back quickly. The antibiotics only help during labour.

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  • Question 109 - The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a...

    Incorrect

    • The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity

      Explanation:

      At the 36‑week appointment, all pregnant women should be seen again. At this appointment: measure blood pressure and test urine for proteinuria; measure and plot symphysis–fundal height; check position of baby; for women whose babies are in the breech presentation, offer external cephalic version (ECV)

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  • Question 110 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman, in her 19 weeks of pregnancy, presents to your...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman, in her 19 weeks of pregnancy, presents to your office complaining of increased frequency and urgency along with dysuria.

      Further investigations established the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and the culture results are pending. The patient also mentioned a history of allergic reaction to penicillin which manifest as a rash.

      For treating this patient, which one of the following would be the antibiotic of choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      The best antibiotic of choice for empirical treatment of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy is cephalexin. Nitrofurantoin and amoxicillin-clavulanate are second and third in-line respectively.
      Patients allergic to penicillin, which is manifested as a rash can also be safely treated with cephalexin. But cephalosporins are not recommended if the presentation of allergic reaction to penicillin was anaphylactic, instead they should be treated with nitrofurantoin.

      NOTE– Asymptomatic bacteriuria, such as >10 to power of 5 colony count in urine culture of an asymptomatic woman in pregnancy, should best be treated with a one week course of antibiotics, followed by confirming the resolution of infection via a urine culture repeated 48 hours after the completion of treatment.

      Amoxicillin without clavulanate is recommended only in cases were the susceptibility of the organism is proven.

      Macrolides like clarithromycin are usually not recommended for the treatment of UTI.

      Aminoglycosides are coming under category D drugs should be avoided during pregnancy, unless there is a severe indication of gram negative sepsis.

      Tetracycline, due to their potential teratogenic effects, are contraindicated in pregnancy.

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  • Question 111 - A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal atresia

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.

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  • Question 112 - A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe vaginal pain 4 days after the procedure.

      At the site of the episiotomy, an 8-cm hematoma is noted on examination. Also the woman is found to be hemodynamically stable.

      Among the following, which is considered the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explore the hematoma

      Explanation:

      In most cases reported, puerperal hematomas arise due to bleeding lacerations related to operative deliveries or episiotomy, and in rare cases from spontaneous injury to a blood vessel in the absence of any laceration/incision of the surrounding tissue. Vulval, vaginal/paravaginal area and retroperitoneum are considered the most common locations for puerperal hematomas.

      Most puerperal hematomas are diagnosed based on the presence of characteristic symptoms and physical examination findings:
      VuIvar hematoma usually presents as a rapidly developing, severely painful, tense and compressible mass which is covered by skin of purplish discoloration. A vulvar hematoma can also be an extension of a vaginal hematoma which was dissected through a loose subcutaneous tissue into the vulva.
      Vaginal hematomas often present with rectal pressure, were hemodynamic instability caused due to bleeding into the ischiorectal fossa and paravaginal space are the first signs and can result in hypovolemic shock. In these cases a large mass protruding into the vagina is often found on physical examination.
      Retroperitoneal hematomas are asymptomatic initially and extend between the folds of broad ligament. Patients suffering will often present with tachycardia, hypotension or shock due to the significant accumulated of blood in the retroperitoneal space. Unless the hematoma is associated with trauma, patients will not present with pain, only signs will be a palpable abdominal mass or fever.

      Treatment of hematoma depends mostly on the size and location:
      Non-expanding hematomas which are <3cm in size can be managed conservatively with analgesics and application of ice packs. An expanding hematoma or those greater than 3cm is managed effectively with surgical exploration under anesthesia, were an incision is made to evacuate the hematoma. The surgical site should not be sutured and vagina is often packed for 12-24 hours, an indwelling urinary catheter also may be indicated. In the given case, patient presents with a large haematoma (>3cm) which needs surgical excision and evacuation.

      Aspiration of the hematoma is not an appropriate treatment. If surgical intervention is indicated excision and evacuation is the preferred option, followed by vaginal packing for 12-24 hours.

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  • Question 113 - A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain. The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma. Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered. 

      On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. 

      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
      – In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
      – Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.

      In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.

      Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.

      Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.

      In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.

      Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.

      After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.

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  • Question 114 - A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she has not urinated since then and claims she had no urinary complaints before the operation. Upon inspection she appears unwell and her abdomen is distended and tender suprapubically and in the left flank. Auscultation reveals no bowel sounds. Further examination reveals the following: Temp=37.5C, BP=94/73mmHg, Pulse=116bpm, Sat=97%. What's the most likely complication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract injury

      Explanation:

      Urologic injury is the most common injury at the time of either obstetric or gynaecologic surgery, with the bladder being the most frequent organ damaged. Risk factors for bladder injury during caesarean section include previous caesarean delivery, adhesions, emergency caesarean delivery, and caesarean section performed during the second stage of labour.

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  • Question 115 - A 37-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to labor unit at 39 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to labor unit at 39 weeks of gestation, due to regular uterine contractions. Her cervix is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetus’ vertex at +1 station. Initially the fetal heart rate was 150 bpm, as the labor progressed, it falls to 80 bpm without any changes in the mother’s general condition.
      Which among the following options would be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiotocography

      Explanation:

      Bradycardia of <100 bpm for more than 5 minutes or <80 for more than 3 minutes is always considered abnormal. The given case describes fetal bradycardia detected on fetal heart auscultation and the most common causes for severe bradycardia are prolonged cord compression, cord prolapse, epidural and spinal anesthesia, maternal seizures and rapid fetal descent. Immediate management including identification of any reversible causes for the abnormality and initiation of appropriate actions like maternal repositioning, correction of maternal  hypotension, rehydration with  intravenous fluid,  cessation of oxytocin, tocolysis for excessive uterine activity, and initiation or maintenance of continuous CTG should be considered in clinical situations where abnormal fetal heart rate patterns are noticed. Consideration of further fetal evaluation and delivery if a significant abnormality persists are very important. The next step in this scenario where the baby is in 1+ station, with an abnormal fetal heart rate detected on auscultation would be to perform a confirmatory cardiotocography (CTG) and if the CTG findings confirm the condition despite initial measures obtained, prompt action should be taken. Cord compression or prolapse should come on the top of the differential diagnoses list as the the mother shows normal general conditions, but since the cervix is 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal head is already engaged, cord prolapse would be unlikely; therefore, repeating vaginal exam is not as important as confirmatory CTG. However a vaginal exam should be done, if the scenario indicates any possibility of cord prolapse, to exclude cord compression or prolapse. NOTE– In cases of severe prolonged bradycardia, immediate delivery is recommended, if the cause cannot be identified and corrected.

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  • Question 116 - A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she twisted her...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she twisted her ankle, once initial management of her current  problem is done, you realize that she is 10 weeks pregnant.

      On further questioning, she admits to heroin addiction and says that Doc, I sometimes need to get high on meth, but my favorite wings to fly are cocaine though, since I cannot afford it, I take a bit when I manage to crash a party. She also drinks a bottle of whisky every day. During the past few weeks, she started worrying about not being a good mother, and for this she is taking diazepam at night which she managed to get illegally.

      Considering everything this patient revealed, which is most likely to cause fetal malformations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Woman in the given case is taking a full bottle of Whisky every day. As per standards, a small glass of Whisky (1.5 Oz) is equivalent of a standard drink and a bottle definitely exceeds 12 standard drinks. This makes her fetus at significant risk for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) which is associated with many congenital malformations. Low-set ears, midfacial hypoplasia, elongated philtrum, upturned nose and microcephaly along with skeletal and cardiac malformations are the congenital malformations commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.

      Health risks of benzodiazepines during pregnancy has not been clearly established, but there are inconsistent reports of teratogenic effects associated with fetal exposure to benzodiazepines. Neonatal abstinence syndrome of delayed onset can be associated with regular use of benzodiazepine in pregnancy.

      Use of Amphetamine in controlled doses during pregnancy is unlikely to pose a substantial teratogenic risk, but a range of obstetric complications such as reduced birth weight and many these outcomes which are not specific to amphetamines but influenced by use of other drug and lifestyle factors in addition to amphetamine are found commonly among women who use it during pregnancy. Exposure to amphetamines in utero may influence prenatal brain development, but the nature of this influence and its potential clinical significance are not well established.

      3,4- methylenedioxymetham phetamine(MOMA), which is an amphetamine derivative and commonly known as ecstasy, have existing evidences suggesting that its use during first trimester poses a potential teratogenic risk. So it is strongly recommended to avoided the use of ecstasy during 2-8 weeks post conception or between weeks four to ten after last menstrual period as these are the considered periods of organogenesis.

      Role of cocaine in congenital malformations is controversial as cases reported of malformations caused by cocaine are extremely rare. However, it may lead to fetal intracranial haemorrhage leading to a devastating outcome.

      Opiate addictions carry a significant risk for several perinatal complications, but it has no proven association with congenital malformation.

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  • Question 117 - Regarding threatened abortion: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding threatened abortion:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

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  • Question 118 - A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations.

      Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.

      Explanation:

      Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
      In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed.

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  • Question 119 - A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
      It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
      All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
      Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
      Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
      Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
      Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
      Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
      Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
      This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease.

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  • Question 120 - A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally, presented with a history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home.

      On examination, she is conscious and pale.
      Her vital signs include blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and a pulse rate of 115 beats per minute which is weak.
      Her abdomen is irregularly distended, with both shifting dullness and fluid thrill present. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      What will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation is classic for uterine rupture, were she developed sudden abdominal pain followed by cessation of contractions, termination of urge to push and vaginal bleeding.
      Abdominal examination shows no fetal cardiac activity and signs of fluid collection like fluid thrill and shifting dullness. The fluid collected will be blood, which usually enters the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus. In such patients vaginal examination will reveal a range of cervical dilatation with evidences of cephalopelvic disproportion.
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site for spontaneous uterine rupture. Patient in the case presenting with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and will require urgent resuscitation.

      Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding from the vagina and Placental abruption will present with painful vaginal bleeding with tender and tense uterine wall, however, in contrary to that of uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in both these cases.

      Shoulder dystocia is more likely to present in a prolonged labour with a significant delay in the progress of labour. However, in this case, there is no mention of shoulder dystocia.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition which is causes due to abnormal and excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood which results in bleeding from every skin puncture sites. It results in increased platelet aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors which results in bleeding at some sites and thromboembolism at other sites. Placental abruption, or retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the causes for DIC.

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  • Question 121 - A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby.

      Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.

      HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.

      In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.

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  • Question 122 - A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago.

      Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.
      Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid.

      Further examination was done and her results were:
      Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
      Pulse is 112/min

      Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss

      Explanation:

      Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
      – baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
      – baseline FHR variability moderate
      – accelerations present or absent
      – late or variable decelerations absent
      – early decelerations present or absent

      The onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.

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  • Question 123 - An 18-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. She is...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. She is at the 5th week of gestation. Except for morning nausea, she denies any problems with her pregnancy so far. The patient is allergic to penicillin. Physical exam is unremarkable and appropriate for gestational age. Routine screening lab tests were ordered. VDRL screening returned positive and was confirmed by the FTA-ABS test.

      Which of the following is considered the best management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penicillin allergy skin testing and penicillin desensitization, if necessary

      Explanation:

      Penicillin is the treatment of choice for treating syphilis. For treatment of syphilis during pregnancy, no proven alternatives to penicillin exist. Treatment guidelines recommend desensitization in penicillin-allergic pregnant women, followed by treatment with penicillin. Syphilis in pregnancy is associated with mental retardation, stillbirth and sudden infant death syndrome; therefore it should be treated promptly.

      – Data are insufficient to recommend ceftriaxone for treatment of maternal infection and prevention of congenital syphilis.
      – Erythromycin and azithromycin should not be used, because neither reliably cures maternal infection or treats an infected foetus.
      – Tetracycline and doxycycline are contraindicated in pregnancy and ceftriaxone is much less effective than penicillin.

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  • Question 124 - A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis – Hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine and can be used safely in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis. This patient has been exposed to sexual transmission for at least 6 weeks, given that the incubation period is at least that long, so it is too late to use condoms to prevent infection. The patient is unlikely to be previously immune to hepatitis B, given that she has no history of hepatitis B infection, immunization, or carriage- Because the patient’s HBsAg is negative, she is not the source of her husband’s infection. Full treatment for this patient has an efficacy of only 75%, so follow-up testing is still needed.

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  • Question 125 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. She noted that her symptoms began 2 days ago but has severely increased over the last 3 hours. It was also noted that the patient has passed several vaginal blood clots in the last hour.
      Upon history taking, it was noted that she has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and is not sure of the date of her last period. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with a bicornuate uterus during an infertility evaluation. Aside from these, the patient has no other medical conditions and has no past surgeries.

      Further examination was done and the following are her results:
      BMI is 28 kg/m2
      Blood pressure is 90/56mmHg
      Pulse is 120/min

      An abdominal examination was performed and revealed guarding with decreased bowel sounds. Speculum examination also revealed moderate bleeding with clots from the cervix. Her urine pregnancy test result turned out positive. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed and revealed a gestational sac at the upper left uterine cornu and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis.

      Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical exploration

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy is a known complication of pregnancy that can carry a high rate of morbidity and mortality when not recognized and treated promptly. It is essential that providers maintain a high index of suspicion for an ectopic in their pregnant patients as they may present with pain, vaginal bleeding, or more vague complaints such as nausea and vomiting. Ectopic pregnancy, in essence, is the implantation of an embryo outside of the uterine cavity most commonly in the fallopian tube.

      Providers should identify any known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in their patient’s history, such as if a patient has had a prior confirmed ectopic pregnancy, known fallopian tube damage (history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal surgery, known obstruction), or achieved pregnancy through infertility treatment.

      Performance of laparoscopic surgery is safe and effective treatment modalities in hemodynamically stable women with a non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

      Patients with relatively low hCG levels would benefit from the single-dose methotrexate protocol. Patients with higher hCG levels may necessitate two-dose regimens. There is literature suggestive that methotrexate treatment does not have adverse effects on ovarian reserve or fertility. hCG levels should be trended until a non-pregnancy level exists post-methotrexate administration.

      Surgical management is necessary when the patients demonstrate any of the following: an indication of intraperitoneal bleeding, symptoms suggestive of ongoing ruptured ectopic mass, or hemodynamically instability. Women who present early in pregnancy and have testing suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy would jeopardize the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy if given Methotrexate. The patient may have a cervical ectopic pregnancy and would thus run the risk of haemorrhage and potential hemodynamic instability if a dilation and curettage are performed.

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  • Question 126 - A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.

      In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone

      Explanation:

      This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).

      Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.

      Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.

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  • Question 127 - A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic. She is complaining of restricted joint movement and severe pain in her joints. Choose the most appropriate medication for her from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is safe to take during pregnancy and has shown no harm to unborn children during studies. It is the treatment of choice for mild to moderate pain during pregnancy.

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  • Question 128 - A 32-year-old woman visited your clinic at her 30th week of gestation, complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visited your clinic at her 30th week of gestation, complaining of left lower limb pain.
      The doppler ultrasound findings had confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis and she was treated with low molecular weight heparin.

      Now she is at her 34 weeks of gestation, and is expecting delivery in next four weeks. What would be your advice for her today?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin should be switched to unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy and required anti-coagulation as part of treatment for up to 3-6 months. Enoxaparin, which is a low molecular weight heparin, is preferred over heparin due to the once or twice a day therapeutic dosing. Also monitoring of aPTT is not required in this case.

      There is an association between Enoxaparin and an increased risk for epidural hematoma in women receiving epidural anaesthesia during labour. Considering that the patient mentioned is expected to go for delivery in 4 weeks and the possibility of her needing an epidural anaesthesia or general anaesthesia in case of undergoing a cesarean section, enoxaparin should be switched to unfractionated heparin, four weeks prior to the anticipated delivery. This is because of the fact that heparin can be antidoted with protamine sulphate.

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  • Question 129 - A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of her abdomen skin at 30 weeks of pregnancy in her first pregnancy. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, her fundal height is 29 cm above the pubic symphysis, and her liquid volume is a little lower than expected. Laboratory investigations reveal:
      Serum bilirubin (unconjugated): 5 mmol/L (0-10)
      Serum bilirubin (conjugated): 12 mmol/L (0-5)
      Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 450U/L (30--350)
      Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45U/L (<55)
      Serum bile acids: 100 mmol/L (1-26)
      The most likely cause for her presentation is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obstetric cholestasis.

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Obstetric Cholestasis.
      The characteristics (elevated bile acids, conjugated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels) are typical with obstetric cholestasis, which affects roughly 3-4 percent of pregnant women in Australia. Obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed when otherwise unexplained pruritus occurs in pregnancy and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery. Pruritus that involves the palms and soles of the feet is particularly suggestive.
      Liver function tests and bile acid levels measurements are used to validate this diagnosis.
      All of the other diagnoses are theoretically possible, but unlikely.
      On liver function tests, hepatitis A and acute fatty liver of pregnancy (which is frequently associated with severe vomiting in late pregnancy) usually show substantially worse hepatocellular damage.
      Pre-eclampsia is connected with hypertension and proteinuria (along with changes in renal function and, in certain cases, thrombocytopenia), while cholelithiasis is associated with obstructive jaundice and pale stools due to a stone in the CBD.

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  • Question 130 - A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria.

      Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).

      Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.

      Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.

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  • Question 131 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

    Incorrect

    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

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  • Question 132 - Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple Gestation is frequently associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-maturity

      Explanation:

      Multiple pregnancy is considered a high risk for obstetric complications such as spontaneous abortion, hypertensive disorders, placenta previa, and fetal malformations. Specifically, the incidence of hypertensive disorders, a common source of maternal morbidity, is 15% to 35% in twin pregnancies, which is two to five times higher than in singleton pregnancies. Additionally, the aetiology of preterm birth is not completely understood, but the association between multiple pregnancy and preterm birth is well known. A secondary analysis of the WHO Global Survey dataset indicated that 35.2% of multiple births were preterm (< 37 weeks gestation); of all multiple births, 6.1% of births were before 32 weeks gestation, 5.8% were during weeks 32 and 33, and 23.2% were during weeks 34 through 37

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  • Question 133 - A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%.

      Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant

      Explanation:

      Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.

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  • Question 134 - A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes to your office for an initial prenatal visit. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping and her first pregnancy was uncomplicated which ended with a spontaneous term vaginal delivery. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Patient takes a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her blood pressure is 122/80 mm of Hg and pulse is 70/min and BMI is 24 kg/m2.  The uterine fundus is palpated above the pubic symphysis. 
      Pelvic ultrasound shows 2 viable intrauterine gestations, a single fundal placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle. 

      Among the below mentioned complications, this patient is at highest risk for which one to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are generally at increased risk of complications and this risk is further stratified based on the chorionicity ie. number of placentas and amnionicity, the number of amniotic sacs of the gestation. In the given case patient has monochorionic diamniotic twins, which means 1 placenta and 2 amniotic sacs, based on the presence of 2 embryos, a single placenta and a thin intertwin membrane composed of 2 amniotic sacs that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle (“T sign”). In patients who appear to have a single placenta, the base shape of the intertwin membrane distinguishes between a monochorionic (“T sign”) and fused dichorionic (“lambda sign”) gestation.
      Monochorionic twins are at high risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS), which is a complication that can result in heart failure and fetal
      eonatal mortality in both twins. In TTTS, unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses are present between the shared placental vessels that supply the twins, because of these anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries from one twin (donor), which is of high resistance/pressure, is shunted into the placental veins of the other twin (recipient) with low resistance/pressure. This shunting of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low-output heart failure, and fetal growth restriction. In contrast, the shunting of blood toward the recipient twin causes polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high-output heart failure and hydrops fetalis. This in turn makes both twins at high risk for intrauterine and neonatal death.
      Mild TTTS is expectantly managed with serial ultrasounds to evaluate for worsening clinical features, whereas moderate-to-severe cases are treated with laser coagulation of the placental anastomoses.

      In monozygotic twins, placentation type is determined by timing of the twinning.  Twinning that occurs shortly after fertilization yields a dichorionic diamniotic gestation.  In contrast, the incomplete division (ie, fission) that can lead to conjoined twins occurs later in development and yields a monochorionic monoamniotic gestation. As the twins are in the same sac, monochorionic monoamniotic gestations can be complicated by cord entanglement but not possible in the given case as this patient has diamniotic twins.

      Risk factors for placenta accreta, implantation of the placenta directly into the myometrium, include placenta previa and prior uterine surgeries like cesarean delivery, myomectomy, etc

      Twin pregnancies are at increased risk of placenta previa (placental tissue that covers the internal cervical os); however, this patient has a fundal placenta, making this complication unlikely.

      Monochorionic twin gestations can be complicated by twin-twin transfusion syndrome, which is potentially a fatal condition that results from unbalanced vascular anastomoses between the vessels supplying umbilical cords of each twin.

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  • Question 135 - Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your...

    Incorrect

    • Katherine, 28 years old at her 37 weeks of pregnancy, presents at your office with soreness down below.

      Physical exam is highly suggestive of genital herpes, and patient says she never had such lesions before and this is the first time she is experiencing such a problem. Laboratory investigations like PCR and culture results confirm the diagnosis of primary herpes simplex infection.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management of the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral therapy

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman develops primary herpes simplex infection after 30 weeks gestation, her risk for transmission of herpes simplex virus to the neonate leading to neonatal infection increases significantly.
      Below mentioned are the most common risk factors resulting in intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the baby:
      – Premature labor
      – Premature rupture of membrane
      -Primary herpes simplex infection near the time of delivery
      – Multiple lesions in the genital area
      The most appropriate management for such case includes:
      – Checking for herpes simplex infection with PCR testing (cervical swab)
      – Prophylactic antiviral therapy of the mother from 36th week until delivery
      – Cesarean section delivery

      In the case above mentioned, it is better to start antiviral therapy immediately and consider cesarean section to minimize the risk of vertical transmission of infection to the neonate.

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  • Question 136 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department. Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days. Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. 

      On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min. Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. 

      On systemic examination:
      Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. 
      Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. 
      The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. 
      There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally.  Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. 

      Laboratory results are as follows:
      a) Complete blood count shows
      - Hematocrit: 33%
      - Platelets: 140,000/mm3
      - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3
      b) Serum chemistry
      - Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Chloride: 96 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L
      - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L
      - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L
      - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L
      c) Urinalysis
      - Protein: none
      - Ketones: present

      CT scan of the head is normal. 

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

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  • Question 137 - All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.

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  • Question 138 - A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of right upper quadrant pain unrelated to the surgical wound. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LFT

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of developing HELLP syndrome in pre-eclamptic patients. Considering that she is complaining of right upper quadrant pain, a LFT should be done immediately.

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  • Question 139 - A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with a urinary dipstick result positive for leukocyte and nitrite. She is otherwise asymptomatic so you send her urine for culture and sensitivity test.

      From the options below mentioned, which is the next best management for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      There is an association between 20 to 30% increase in the risk for developing pyelonephritis during later pregnancy and untreated cases of bacteriuria in pregnancy. This is due to the physiological changes occurring to urinary tract during pregnancy, it is also found that untreated bacteriuria can be associated with even preterm birth and low birth weight. Risk of symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy can be reduced by antibiotic treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria

      The most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria is Escherichia coli, which accounts to more than 80% of isolates and the second most frequently cultured uropathogen is Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Other Gram-positive cocci, like group B streptococci, are less common. Gram-negative bacteria such as Klebsiella, Proteus or other Enterobacteriaceae are the other organisms involved in asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Although the context patient is asymptomatic, her urine dipstick shows positive nitrite and leukocyte, suggestive of urinary tract infection, so oral antibiotics like cephalexin or nitrofurantoin are advisable. Normally a five day course of oral antibiotic will be sufficient for the treatment of uncomplicated UTI or asymptomatic bacteraemia in pregnant women. As the patient is currently at her 38 weeks of gestation nitrofurantoin is contraindicated so it is best to prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin. This is because nitrofurantoin is associated with an increased risk of neonatal jaundice and haemolytic anaemia, so should not be used close to delivery, that is after 37 weeks of gestation or sooner if early delivery is planned.

      Acute pyelonephritis should be treated with Intravenous antibiotic treatment, guided by urine culture and sensitivity reports as soon a available. A course of minimum of 10-14 days with IV + oral antibiotics is recommended as treatment for pyelonephritis, along with an increased fluid intake as intravenous fluids in clinically dehydrated patients. Even though urinary alkalisers are safe in pregnancy, prescription of urinary alkalisers alone is not recommended due to its low effectiveness compared to antibiotics, also as it can result in a loss of treatment efficacy urinary alkalisers should never be used in combination with nitrofurantoin.

      At any stage of pregnancy, if Streptococcus agalactiae, a group B streptococcus [GBS], is detected in urine the intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS is usually indicated.

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  • Question 140 - A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman is found to be lgM positive, but lgG negative...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman is found to be lgM positive, but lgG negative after exposure to a child with rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy.
      On laboratory investigation, rubella infection is confirmed as repeated serology testing shows not only a positive lgM, but also a rising titers of lgG.

      Among the following next steps in management, which one is considered to be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Termination of the pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Antenatal screening for rubella IgG is a routine recommended for all pregnant women at their first visit. All pregnant women who have a history of contact with rubella or any clinical features consistent with rubella –like illness should be screened for the presence of rising antibody titre and / or rubella specific IgM. Serological confirmation is mandatory for diagnosing rubella.
      As in this case scenario, positive lgM for rubella indicates active rubella infection, in such cases it is recommended to repeat the test. If lgM is still positive, it confirms rubella infection. No further testing from another laboratory is required.
      The risk for fetal infection and damage is higher if rubella infection occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy, which is 85% in the first two months of pregnancy and 50 -80% in the third month. Therefore, termination of pregnancy is usually recommended in this situation. NHIG has been used in trials for prophylaxis and prevention of congenital rubella syndrome after contact to a case with rubella infection, but the results have been discouraging, therefore, it is not advisable.
      In the given case, rubella infection has been established already, so NHIG will not be of any benefit as primary prevention.
      Rubella-containing vaccines like MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine are contraindicated throughout pregnancy, it should be avoided; and women who remain susceptible to rubella should receive MMR vaccine postpartum.
      Risk of fetal infection and/or fetal damage or for development of congenital rubella syndrome is related to the timing of maternal infection. Cases with Primary infection is found to be in higher risk
      In cases of asymptomatic re-infection with a good history of previous positive serology, even though it is difficult to quantify, the risk of fetal infection has been reported to be < 5 percent. Congenital rubella syndrome following maternal re-infection is considered rare particularly if re-infection occurs after 12 weeks. If the clinical picture is typically of rubella or if possibility of previous immunity is inconclusive based on serology, then the risk is assumed to be the same as that of primary infection.

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  • Question 141 - A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina.

      Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode.

      Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induce labour now

      Explanation:

      Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.

      A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.

      Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.

      The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
      – Admitting the patient to hospital.
      – Take a vaginal
      ervical smears.
      – Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
      – Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
      – In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
      – Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
      – Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection.

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  • Question 142 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview, it was noted that she has been having unprotected intercourse with her husband regularly for the past year but has not become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her menses occur every 28 to 30 days and they last 4 to 5 days. A day before her menses, she has episodes of severe lower abdominal pain that is only partially relieved by ibuprofen.
      Further history taking was done and revealed that she was treated for gonococcal cervicitis at age 19. The patient also takes a prenatal vitamin every day and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her 31-year-old husband recently had semen analysis and his results were normal.

      Further examination was done and the following are her results:
      Blood pressure is 126/70mmHg
      Pulse is 85/min
      BMI is 31 kg/m2

      Upon further examination and observation, it was revealed that she has a small uterus with a cervix that appears laterally displaced and there is accompanying pain upon cervical manipulation.

      Which of the following is most likely considered the cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecologic disease characterized by the development and presence of histological elements like endometrial glands and stroma in anatomical positions and organs outside of the uterine cavity. The main clinical manifestations of the disease are chronic pelvic pain and impaired fertility. The localization of endometriosis lesions can vary, with the most commonly involved focus of the disease the ovaries followed by the posterior broad ligament, the anterior cul-de-sac, the posterior cul-de-sac, and the uterosacral ligament.

      The clinical presentation of the disease differs in women and may be unexpected not only in the presentation but also in the duration. Clinicians usually suspect and are more likely to diagnose the disease in females presenting with the typical symptomatology such as dyspareunia, namely painful sexual intercourse, pelvic pain during menstruation (dysmenorrhea), pain in the urination (dysuria), defecation (dyschezia), and/or infertility. The pain is usually characterized as chronic, cyclic, and progressive (exacerbating over time). Furthermore, some women suffering from endometriosis experience hyperalgesia, a phenomenon, when even with the application of a nonpainful stimulus, an intolerable painful reaction is released. This condition indicates neuropathic pain.

      Tenderness on vaginal examination, palpable nodules in the posterior fornix, adnexal masses, and immobility of the uterus are diagnostically indicating findings of endometriosis.

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  • Question 143 - Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress,...

    Incorrect

    • Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress, a 24-year-old woman develops fever with a temperature of 37.9°C. Intraoperative notes show that she was administered one dose of prophylactic antibiotics. She had been afebrile during the post-partum period until today.

      Which is the least likely cause of her fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Explanation:

      This question is about the differential diagnoses that should be considered if a patient presents with postpartum fever. The work-up for such patients would usually involve vaginal swabs, midstream urine culture and sensitivity and an ultrasound scan of the wound to look for any presence of a haematoma. LSCS is a major surgery and one common cause of puerperal fever would be surgical site infection. It is not surprising that women who deliver via LSCS are at higher risk of developing post-partum fever compared to those who deliver vaginally. Other common causes include endometritis and UTI. Ultrasound examination of the pelvic deep venous system and the legs would also be done to look for any thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis can occur due to immobility, however it is unlikely to present with fever.

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  • Question 144 - Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
      Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.

      Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
      ‌- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
      ‌- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
      ‌- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
      ‌- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
      ‌- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
      ‌- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.

      Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.

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  • Question 145 - A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following a vaginal delivery. Her uterus was well contracted during labour. Her baby's weight is 4.4 kg. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her post partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical/vaginal trauma

      Explanation:

      A well contracted uterus excludes an atonic uterus. Delivery of large baby by a primigravida can cause cervical +/- vaginal tears which can lead to PPH.

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  • Question 146 - A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.

      What is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery

      Explanation:

      This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.

      Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.

      The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
      – checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
      – starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
      – preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.

      Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.

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  • Question 147 - Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) at around 36 weeks of gestation now...

    Incorrect

    • Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) at around 36 weeks of gestation now is common practice as up to 20% of women carry the organism in the vagina.

      If a pregnant woman is found to have GBS at this stage, which treatment would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parenteral penicillin given six-hourly in labour.

      Explanation:

      Up to 20% of women have been found to have Group B streptococcus (GBS). GBS is considered a normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract. GBS infection is generally asymptomatic although some women might end up having a UTI. Infants born to mothers who are colonised with GBS during labour are at a higher risk of developing early-onset GBS infection. If a pregnant woman develops a UTI due to GBS, it is suggestive of significant GBS colonisation. IV penicillin would be the drug of choice and is to be administered to the mother during labour which would provide sufficient protection for the foetus and would be effective enough. If penicillin is unavailable, ampicillin is a reasonable alternative. If a patient has penicillin allergy, vancomycin can be used. If not for penicillin, roughly 50% of babies delivered vaginally to women who are GBS positive would be colonised with the organism and out of this percentage, 1-2% can go on to develop a severe infection such as septicaemia and meningitis which could often be fatal.

      IM penicillin can be administered to the newborn immediately post-delivery would be an effective prophylaxis in most cases but one should not wait until signs of infection are present to give the injection. Many newborns would still have an immature immune system which could cause some to die. Hence, it is more suitable to treat all women who tested positive during labour and the newborn as well if any signs of infection do appear. The majority of babies don’t need antibiotic treatment if their mother has been treated.

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  • Question 148 - A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due to spontaneous rupture of membranes. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and delivered at term via vaginal delivery. 24 hours since rupture of her membranes, no spontaneous labour was noted, hence a syntocinon/oxytocin infusion (10 units in 1L of Hartmann solution) was started at 3DmL/hour and increased to 120 mL over 9 hours. After 10 hours of infusion, during which Syntocinon dosage was increased to 30 units per litre, contractions were noted. Which is the most common complication of Syntocinon infusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal distress.

      Explanation:

      In this case, induction of labour at 37 weeks of gestation was necessary due to the absence of spontaneous of labour 24 hours after rupture of membranes. High doses of Syntocin and large volume of fluids may be required particularly when induction is done before term.

      Syntocin infusion can lead to uterine hypertonus and tetany which can result in fetal distress at any dosage. This is a common reason to decrease or stop the infusion and an indication for Caesarean delivery due to fetal distress

      Uterine rupture can occur as a result of Syntocin infusion especially when the accompanying fluids do not contain electrolytes, which puts the patient at risk for water intoxication.

      Maternal hypotension results from Syntocin infusion, not hypertension.

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  • Question 149 - Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing...

    Incorrect

    • Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing postpartum endometritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advanced maternal age

      Explanation:

      The most common clinical findings in a postpartum women with endometritis are postpartum fever, with tachycardia relative to the rise in temperature, midline lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness from the 2nd to 10th day of postpartum.

      Most common risk factors for the development of postpartum endometritis are:
      – Cesarean deliveries are considered as the most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis, especially those performed after the onset of labour.
      – Young maternal age.
      – Multiple digital cervical examinations.
      – Prolonged rupture of membranes.
      – Retention of placental products.
      – Prolonged labour.
      – Chorioamnionitis.
      Advanced maternal age is not considered as a risk factor for development of postpartum endometritis.

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  • Question 150 - A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.

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  • Question 151 - A woman in her 27 weeks of gestation presents to your clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 27 weeks of gestation presents to your clinic with gushing of clear yellow vaginal fluid.

      Premature rupture of membrane (PPROM ) is confirmed on speculum examination, and the cervical os is closed.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate management, in addition to transfer to a tertiary center?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Cases with spontaneous rupture of membrane before the onset of labour, prior to 37 weeks of gestation is defined as preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). It complicates almost 2-4% of all singleton and 7- 20% of twin pregnancies and is commonly associated with more than 60% of all preterm births.

      Management of PPROM In the absence of chorioamnionitis, depends on the gestational age. That is in cases of PPROM before 23 weeks, labor may be induced or the patient be sent home for bed rest and is asked to wait until any signs of spontaneous delivery to start. Between 23 and 34 + 0/7 weeks, the patient should be transferred to a tertiary hospital and be admitted there as it is very important to administer systemic corticosteroids, for the fetal lung to attain maturity. It is also mandatory the patient gets adequate bed rest, cervical and vaginal swabs for microscopy and culture, along with prophylactic antibiotics for prevention of chorioamnionitis.
      NOTE –  regardless of the gestational age, chorioamnionitis is said to be an absolute indication for the termination of pregnancy.

      In the given case, patient is currently in her 28th week of gestation, so she should be immediately transferred to a tertiary hospital and given systemic steroids to promote fetal lung maturation in case preterm delivery ensues.

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  • Question 152 - A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.

      Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.

      For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.

      Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.

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  • Question 153 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland.

      What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
      Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.

      Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.

      Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.

      So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.

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  • Question 154 - A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for the past one month. Patient has tried various over-the-counter vaginal douche products without any improvement.  Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, during which she noticed no change in her symptoms. In addition to the discharge, patient also experiences intermittent, crampy abdominal pain along with a feeling of gas passing through her vagina. Patient has had no history of surgeries in the past.

      On examination her vital signs seems to be normal.  Speculum examination shows a malodorous, tan vaginal discharge with an erythematous patch over the posterior vaginal wall. The cervix is nulliparous and has no visible lesions or areas of friability. A sinus with purulent drainage is found in the perianal skin. 

      Which among the following conditions will be the most likely underlying cause for this patient’s presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transmural inflammation of the bowel

      Explanation:

      Common risk factors for Rectovaginal fistula are Pelvic radiation, Obstetric trauma, Pelvic surgery, Colon cancer, Diverticulitis and Crohn disease. Uncontrollable passage of gas &/or feces from the vagina is considered the common clinical feature of Rectovaginal fistula.
      Diagnosis is done with the help of physical examination, fistulography, Magnetic resonance imaging and Endosonography.

      This patient, mentioned in the case, presents with malodorous vaginal discharge (ie, stool), gas passing through the vagina, and a posterior vaginal lesion most likely has a rectovaginal fistula, which is an aberrant connection between bowel and vagina.  Although development of rectovaginal fistula is commonly associated with obstetric trauma or pelvic surgery, patients without these risk factors are recommended to be evaluated for other additional causes like gastrointestinal conditions.
      This patient’s intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and perianal sinus in the setting of a rectovaginal fistula is most likely due to an underlying Crohn disease.  Crohn disease, is a transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, which predisposes patients to bowel abscess, fissure, and fistula formation.  Although the rectum is typically spared in Crohn disease, a non-healing, transmural ulcer present in the anal canal can progress to form a rectovaginal fistula.
      In addition to standard Crohn disease management like anti-TNF inhibitors, glucocorticoids, etc patients with a rectovaginal fistula may require surgical correction.

      Bartholin gland cysts or abscesses can present with malodorous vaginal discharge; however, patients typically have a posterior vulvar mass located at the 4 or 8 o’clock position. In addition, Bartholin gland cysts will not present with crampy abdominal pain or passage of flatus or stool through the vagina.

      Hidradenitis which is the chronic occlusion and inflammation of hair follicles, can cause groin abscesses with sinus tracts and associated purulent drainage.  However, it is not associated with abdominal pain or malodorous vaginal discharge. In addition, this condition is typically multifocal and located in more than one intertriginous areas like axillary, inguinal or gluteal regions.

      Cervical cancer or a retained foreign body in the vagina can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and abdominal pain.  However, patients will typically have visible findings like cervical lesion, foreign body etc on speculum examination, and these neither are associated with the passage of flatus through the vagina.

      Complications of Crohn disease include perianal disease like abscess, fissure and fistula like rectovaginal fistula, due to transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.  Patients with a rectovaginal fistula typically presents with malodorous, tan vaginal discharge, passage of flatus through the vagina and a posterior vaginal lesion.

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  • Question 155 - Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retroverted uterus

      Explanation:

      Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
      – Age above 35 years.
      – Smoking.
      – High intake of caffeine.
      – Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
      – Viral infections.
      – Thrombophilia.
      – Chromosomal abnormalities.
      Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
      The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards.

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  • Question 156 - An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for? ...

    Incorrect

    • An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dating of the pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Early ultrasound improves the early detection of multiple pregnancies and improved gestational dating may result in fewer inductions for post maturity.

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  • Question 157 - A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant.

      Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F).

      Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.

      The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.

      The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding

      The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.

      Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.

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  • Question 158 - An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal...

    Incorrect

    • An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She claims to have had regular menstrual cycles even while she was on oral contraceptives (OCP). 20 weeks ago, she stopped taking her OCPs and had a menstrual period few days after. No vaginal bleeding or fluid loss were noted since then. On physical examination, the uterus is palpated right above pubic symphysis. Fetal heartbeats are evident on handheld Doppler ultrasound. Which of the statements can mostly explain the difference between the dates and uterine size?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovulation did not occur until 6-8 weeks after her last period.

      Explanation:

      When the palpated uterine size is in discrepancy with the expected size based on the duration of amenorrhoea, it can have several causes including reduced fluid volume or fetal growth (both of which are more common when there is fetal malformation), or miscalculated age of gestation as a result of wrong dates or actual ovulation occurring at a later date than expected. Reduced fluid volume and fetal growth are the most likely aetiologies during the third trimester of pregnancy, unlike in this patient at 20 weeks age of gestation.

      Premature rupture of membranes is less likely the cause when there is negative vaginal fluid loss like this patient.

      The most likely cause in this case is that ovulation did not occur as expected, especially when the patient ceased her OCPs during this period. In some instances, ovulation can occur 2 weeks later in about 50% of women, 6 weeks later in 90%, and may still not occur 12 months later in 1% of women.

      The other listed statements are unlikely to explain the discrepancies in dates and the observed uterine size in this patient.

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  • Question 159 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal discharge.  She has had malodorous vaginal discharge and small amounts of vaginal bleeding for about a week. Her mother called the patient’s primary care provider and instructed to stop giving bubble baths to the child, however, the symptoms have not improved. Aside from the discharge, the girl is normal, she was toilet trained at age 2 and has had no episodes of incontinence.  She started kindergarten a month ago. Mother informed that patient has no fever, abdominal pain, or dysuria. 

      On examination, the labia appear normal but a purulent, malodorous vaginal discharge is noted.  Visual inspection with the child in knee-chest position shows a whitish foreign body inside the vaginal introitus. 

      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irrigate with warmed fluid after local anesthetic application

      Explanation:

      Vaginal spotting, malodorous vaginal discharge and no signs of trauma like lacerations are the clinical features of vaginal foreign bodies in prepubertal girls. The most common object found as foreign body is toilet paper and its management includes warm irrigation and vaginoscopy under sedation/anesthesia.

      Common cause of vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls are vaginal foreign bodies. Although other objects like small toys, hair bands, etc can be occasionally found, the most common vaginal foreign body is toilet paper. Symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding or spotting and urinary symptoms like dysuria are caused due to the chronic irritation caused by the foreign body (the whitish foreign body in this case) on the vaginal tissue.

      An external pelvic examination is performed with the girl in a knee-chest or frog-leg position in cases of suspected vaginal foreign body. An attempt at removal, after application of a topical anesthetic in the vaginal introitus, using vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or a swab can be done in case of an easily visualized small foreign body like toilet paper. In cases were the age of the girl or the type of foreign body prohibit adequate clinical evaluation the patient should be sedated or given a general anesthesia for examination using a vaginoscope and the foreign body should be removed.

      In cases where child abuse or neglect is suspected Child Protective Services should be contacted. Vaginal or rectal foreign bodies can be the initial presentation of sexual abuse; however in otherwise asymptomatic girls with no behavioral changes, urinary symptoms and vulvar or anal trauma, presence of toilet paper is not of an immediately concerning for abuse.

      To evaluate pelvic or ovarian masses CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be used; but it is not indicated in evaluation of a vaginal foreign body.

      Patients in there prepubertal age have a narrow vaginal introitus and sensitive hymenal tissue due to low estrogen levels, so speculum examinations should not be performed in such patients as it can result in significant discomfort and trauma.

      Topical estrogen can be used in the treatment of urethral prolapse, which is a cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls. This diagnosis is unlikely in this case as those with urethral prolapse will present with a beefy red protrusion at the urethra and not a material in the vagina.

      Prepubertal girls with retained toilet paper as a vaginal foreign body will present with symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting secondary to irritation. Initial management is topical anaesthetic application and removal of foreign body either by vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or removal with a swab.

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  • Question 160 - Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin 1gram as single dose

      Explanation:

      The best treatment option for chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy is Azithromycin 1g as a single dose orally. This is the preferred option as the drug is coming under category B1 in pregnancy.

      Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, should never be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women.

      Erythromycin Estolate is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin is not commonly used for treating chlamydial urethritis and its use is not safe during pregnancy.

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  • Question 161 - A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87 mmHg. You considered Pre-eclampsia. What symptom might be expected in a patient with uncomplicated pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Extreme headache, vision defects, such as blurring of the eyes, rib pain, sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet are all consistent with pre-eclampsia. Women with the mentioned symptoms should have their blood pressure checked immediately. They should also be checked for proteinuria.

      Diarrhoea is not related to pre-eclampsia. Pruritus would be more related to pregnancy cholestasis. Meanwhile, bruising and abnormal LFTs are common in complicated pre-eclampsia but not in an uncomplicated one.

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  • Question 162 - Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication for suppression of labour.
      Suppression of labour known as tocolysis is contraindicated in situations like suspected foetal compromise, which is diagnosed by cardiotocograph warranting delivery, in cases of placental abruption, in chorioamnionitis, in severe pre-eclampsia, cases were gestational age is more than 34 weeks, in cases of foetal death in utero and in cases where palliative care is planned due to foetal malformations.

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  • Question 163 - Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of a pregnancy before 20 weeks in Australia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suction and curettage

      Explanation:

      Medical abortion is preferred from 4 to 9 weeks of gestation and in Australia, suction curettage is the most frequently used method of abortion as it is considered useful from 6 to 14 weeks of gestation.

      Mifepristone is a synthetic anti-progesterone, which is found to be effective for abortion when combined with misoprostol. There are evidences which suggest the effectiveness of misoprostol and mifepristone in both first and second trimesters. It is most commonly administered as a single dose of mifepristone followed by misoprostol, a prostaglandin, given orally or vaginally two days later. Prostaglandin can be repeated at an interval of 4 hours if required.
      As the vaginal use shows only few gastrointestinal side effects Misoprostol is more effective and better tolerated vaginally than orally. Misoprostol is not approved for its use in termination of pregnancy, but is available in the market due to its indications in other conditions.
      Methotrexate can be used orally or as an intramuscular injection followed by misoprostol up to seven days later, but this also is not a preferred method for termination of pregnancy in Australia.

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  • Question 164 - A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

    6 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

      6 hours ago, she spontaneously began labour. The membranes ruptured two hours ago and the liquor was stained with meconium.

      On cardiotocography (CTG) was conducted and it showed some intermittent late decelerations, from 140 to 110 beats/min.

      On vaginal examination, her cervix id 5 cm dilated. The foetus is in cephalic presentation, in the left occipitotransverse (LOT) position, with the bony head at the level of the ischial spines (IS).

      Due to the deceleration pattern, a fetal scalp pH estimation was performed and the pH was measured at 7.32.

      An hour later, the CTG showed the following pattern over a period of 30 minutes:

      Baseline 140/min
      Baseline variability 1/min
      Accelerations None evident
      Decelerations Two decelerations were evident, with the heart rate falling to 80/min, and with each lasting 4 minutes

      Another vaginal examination is conducted and her cervix is now 8cm dilated, but otherwise unchanged from one hour previously.

      What would be the next best line management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate delivery by Caesarean section.

      Explanation:

      The next best line of management is immediate delivery via Caesarean section ( C section).

      This is because of the change in cardiotocography (CTG). The pattern became much more severe with a virtual lack of short-term variability and prolonged decelerations. These changes indicate the necessity for an immediate C section as the cervix is not fully dilated.

      As immediate delivery is indicated, another pH assessment is unnecessary as it would delay delivery and increase the likelihood of fetal hypoxia.

      Delivery by ventose, in a primigravida where the cervix is only 8cm dilated is not indicated as it would allow the labour to proceed or augmenting with Syntocinon.

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  • Question 165 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.

      Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.

      Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.

      If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.

      Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.

      It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.

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  • Question 166 - A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected.

      A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative.
      Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.

      Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia­ hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
      The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.

      Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
      After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.

      This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.

      – Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
      – Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.

      Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:

      If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.

      If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.

      If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.

      If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.

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  • Question 167 - A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.

      Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.

      Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.

      Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.

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  • Question 168 - A 35 year old lady presented in her 3rd trimester with severe features...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old lady presented in her 3rd trimester with severe features of pre-eclampsia. The drug of choice to prevent the patient going into impending eclampsia would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The drug of choice for eclampsia and pre-eclampsia is magnesium sulphate. It is given as a loading dose of 4g i/v over 5 minutes, followed by an infusion for the next 24 hours at the rate of 1g/hr. If the seizures are not controlled, an additional dose of MgSO4 2-4gm i/v can be given over five minutes. Patients with eclampsia or pre-eclampsia can develop any of the following symptoms: persistent headache, visual abnormalities like photophobia, blurring of vison or temporary blindness, epigastric pain, dyspnoea and altered mental status.

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  • Question 169 - A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. 

      Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy.  On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. 

      The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse.  Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head.  Fetal monitoring is category I.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction.  The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. 

      Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal malposition

      Explanation:

      Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.

      The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.

      When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.

      Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
      Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
      Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.

      Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.

      Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture.  In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.

      When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.

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  • Question 170 - Engagement of the foetus can be defined as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Engagement of the foetus can be defined as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When the greatest biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      Engagement means when the fetal head enters the pelvic brim/inlet and it usually takes place 2 weeks before the estimated delivery date i.e. at 38 weeks of pregnancy.

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  • Question 171 - A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to the ER with severe hypertension (210/100) and proteinuria (+++). Soon after admission, she developed generalized tonic clonic fits. What is the first line of management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate IV

      Explanation:

      Magnesium Sulphate is the drug of choice in eclamptic patients. A loading dose of 4g magnesium sulphate in 100mL 0.9% saline IVI over 5min followed by maintenance IVI of 1g/h for 24h. Signs of toxicity include respiratory depression and jerky tendon reflexes. In recurrent fits additional 2g can be given. Magnesium should be stopped when the respiratory rate is <14/min, absent tendon reflexes, or urine output is <20mL/h.

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  • Question 172 - A 28-year-old woman presented with nausea and vomiting along with headache during pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presented with nausea and vomiting along with headache during pregnancy. She also has a past medical history of a migraine.

      What among the following will be the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Codein and promethazine

      Explanation:

      This patient should be given promethazine and codeine as she presents with severe migraine.

      Usage of metoclopramide is safe during pregnancy and for increasing effectiveness it can be added to paracetamol. However, because of its risk for causing extrapyramidal effects it should be used only as a second-line therapy and Promethazine should be considered as the first line choice of remedy. So the answer is Codeine and promethazine.

      Opioid pain relievers such as codeine are not been reported of having any associated with increased birth defects or miscarriage, but its long-term use can lead to dependency in mother and withdrawal signs in the baby.

      Paracetamol alone or combined with codeine is not found to be useful in controlling vomiting.

      It is advised to completely avoid dihydroergotamine and the triptans throughout pregnancy.

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  • Question 173 - A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up. She is about 7-8 weeks pregnant and enquiries about antenatal screening tests as she is concerned that her baby might have chromosomal abnormalities.

      Among the following results, which would indicate further assessment for trisomy 21?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) in the first trimester of pregnancy is an indication to carry out further diagnostic testing for Down syndrome.

      Antenatal tests available for screening Down syndrome are divided into two types:
      – Screening tests includes maternal serum screening and ultrasound which are safe to conduct with relatively low predictive values.
      – Diagnostic tests like chorionic villous sampling and amniocentesis are confirmative but carries higher risk of miscarriage as 1 in 100 and 1 in 200 respectively.

      a) Serum screening tests for Down syndrome during first-trimester includes:
      1. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) will be decreased in case of Down syndrome.
      2. Free ß-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) will be increased in cases of Down syndrome.
      If these screening tests are combined with first-trimester ultrasound nuchal translucency, it is found to be more accurate than doing only one of these tests.

      b) Second-trimester serum screening tests for identifying Down syndrome:
      1.Alpha-fetoprotein will be decreased.
      2.Unconjugated oestriol will be decreased.
      3.Free ß-HCG will be increased
      4.Inhibin A will be increased.
      These tests combined with maternal age and ultrasound results will provide more accurate predictive values.

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  • Question 174 - Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large for gestational age

      Explanation:

      Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.

      Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
      – Hypocalcemia in newborn.
      – Development of Rickets later in life.
      – Defective tooth enamel.
      – Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
      – Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia.

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  • Question 175 - A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perinatal mortality

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.

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  • Question 176 - Lidiya is a 30-year-old hospital nurse in her nine weeks of pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • Lidiya is a 30-year-old hospital nurse in her nine weeks of pregnancy. She has no history of chickenpox, but by regularly attending the facial sores of an elderly patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus she has been significantly exposed to shingles.

      What would you advise her as preventive management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If she had chicken pox immunization in the past, she needs to have her Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies checked to assure immunity

      Explanation:

      Patient in the given case is nine weeks pregnant, and she has been exposed to a herpes zoster rash because she is working as a hospital nurse and has no prior history of chickenpox.
      The most appropriate next step in this case would be checking for Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies which assures immunity to varicella infections. If VZV IgG is present no further action is needed, but if VZV IgG antibodies are absent, then she will need Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulins within ten days from the exposure to shingles.

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  • Question 177 - A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She wants to know the age of her baby.

      Which of the following methods is considered the most accurate for estimating gestational age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound at 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound has emerged as the more accurate method of assessing fetal gestational age, especially in the first trimester. Both transvaginal and transabdominal probe assessments are used to obtain a more accurate measurement of gestational age. Transvaginal is more helpful in first trimester pregnancies.

      A transvaginal ultrasound exam should not be performed in a pregnant patient with vaginal bleeding and known placenta previa, a pregnant patient with premature rupture of membranes, and a patient who refuses exam despite informed discussion.

      Sonographic assessment within the first 13 weeks and 6 days will provide the most accurate estimate of gestational age. Both transvaginal and transabdominal approaches may be used. However, the transvaginal approach may provide a more clear and accurate view of early embryonic structures. Although the gestational sac and yolk sac are the first measurable markers visible on ultrasound, these poorly correlate with gestational age.

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  • Question 178 - Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the medical clinic because she developed a rash characteristic of chickenpox after 2 days of low-grade fever and mild malaise. Serological test was performed and revealed positive anti-varicella lgM.

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate course of action for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiviral therapy and pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox or varicella is a contagious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The virus is responsible for chickenpox (usually primary infection in non-immune hosts) and herpes zoster or shingles (following reactivation of latent infection). Chickenpox results in a skin rash that forms small, itchy blisters, which scabs over. It typically starts on the chest, back, and face then spreads. It is accompanied by fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, and headaches which usually last five to seven days. Complications include pneumonia, brain inflammation, and bacterial skin infections. The disease is more severe in adults than in children.

      Primary varicella infection during pregnancy can also affect the foetus, who may present later with chickenpox. In pregnant women, antibodies produced as a result of immunization or previous infection are transferred via the placenta to the foetus. Varicella infection in pregnant women could spread via the placenta and infect the foetus. If infection occurs during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy, congenital varicella syndrome may develop. Effects on the foetus can include underdeveloped toes and fingers, structural eye damage, neurological disorder, and anal and bladder malformation.

      Prenatal diagnosis of fetal varicella can be performed using ultrasound, though a delay of 5 weeks following primary maternal infection is advised.

      Antivirals are typically indicated in adults, including pregnant women because this group is more prone to complications.

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  • Question 179 - The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.

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  • Question 180 - A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.

      Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.

      Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.

      Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.

      Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.

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  • Question 181 - A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation. Her membranes ruptured about 8 hours ago. At the moment, she is having contractions lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and is 8 cm dilated. The fetal heart tone baseline is currently 80/min with absent variability. The pregnancy was uneventful and she had regular prenatal check-ups.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal position change and oxygen

      Explanation:

      This patient is towards the end of the first stage of labour and is having complications. Labour is divided into 3 stages. The first stage begins at regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm. It has a latent phase and an active phase- The active phase is usually considered to have begun when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. So this patient is in the active phase of the first stag- The second stage begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the foetus. The third stage of labour is the period between the delivery of the foetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes.

      This patient’s contractions seem adequate and yet the fetal heart tone with baseline 80/min and absent variability suggests fetal distress. This is category III of the fetal heart rate pattern because the baseline rate is < 110/min with absent variability. It is usually predictive of abnormal acid-base status. The recommended actions are maternal position change and oxygen administration, discontinuation of labour stimulus such as oxytocin, treatment of possible underlying conditions, and expedited delivery.
      → Magnesium sulphate infusion is mainly used to prevent eclamptic seizures and despite no evidence of its effectiveness as a tocolytic agent, it is used sometimes to reduce risks of preterm birth.
      → Fetal scalp pH monitoring would help determine if there is indeed an acidosis and should be done before deciding whether a Caesarean section is necessary, but maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
      → Ultrasonography may be used for preinduction cervical length measurement or if the active stage has already started- It is considered more accurate than digital pelvic exam in the assessment of fetal descent; however, at this point maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
      → Immediate Caesarean section would be done if fetal scalp pH monitoring revealed a pH < 7.20. At this point, the best next step is maternal position change and oxygen administration.

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  • Question 182 - A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.

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  • Question 183 - Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function

      Explanation:

      These are the six routine blood tests that every mum-to-be has to undergo around week 7 of pregnancy: Full Blood Count, Blood Typing, Hepatitis B Screening, Syphilis Screening, HIV Screening and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

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  • Question 184 - The chance of multiple pregnancy increases: ...

    Incorrect

    • The chance of multiple pregnancy increases:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: With advancing maternal age

      Explanation:

      Dizygotic twin pregnancies are known to increase with age of the mother. Naturally conceived twins are thought to occur in a 0.3% rate in women under 25 years, 1.4% between 25 and 34, 3% between 34 and 39, and 4.1% in women in their 40s or over. We also know that at least 50% of all twin pregnancies are conceived through ART and that this proportion is probably higher for women in their 40s.

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  • Question 185 - Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications: ...

    Incorrect

    • Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coagulopathy

      Explanation:

      A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.

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  • Question 186 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Incorrect

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

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  • Question 187 - Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture

      Explanation:

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.

      The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.

      The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.

      Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.

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  • Question 188 - A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and positive anticardiolipin antibodies. She has a history of three miscarriages, each one during the first trimester. What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin & heparin

      Explanation:

      The syndrome with which the woman was diagnosed is an autoimmune, hypercoagulable state which most possibly was the reason of her previous miscarriages. This is the reason why she should be on aspirin and heparin in order to prevent any future miscarriage.

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  • Question 189 - The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:...

    Incorrect

    • The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hegar's sign

      Explanation:

      Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.

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  • Question 190 - A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain.

      Transvaginal ultrasound finding shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal.

      Which among the following risk factors is not related to the development of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol abuse

      Explanation:

      This woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency, is a painless dilation of cervix resulting in the delivery of a live fetus during the 2nd trimester or premature delivery.

      The following has been identified as the risk factors associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency:
      – Congenital disorders of collagen synthesis like Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
      – Prior cone biopsies.
      – Prior deep cervical lacerations, which is secondary to vaginal or cesarean delivery.
      -Müllerian duct defects like bicornuate or septate uterus.
      – More than three prior fetal losses during the 2nd trimester

      From the given options, alcohol abuse is the only one not associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency.

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  • Question 191 - A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting at 8 weeks of being pregnant. She is unable to take solid food but is capable of drinking small sips of liquids. She is concerned that she might have gastroenteritis because her partner was noted to have recently been diagnosed with it.

      Which of the following is considered the next best step to investigate given the situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia.

      The exact cause of hyperemesis gravidarum remains unclear. However, there are several theories for what may contribute to the development of this disease process such as:
      1. Hormone changes – hCG levels peak during the first trimester, corresponding to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. Estrogen is also thought to contribute to nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
      2. Changes in the Gastrointestinal System – the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
      3. Genetics – an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum has been demonstrated among women with family members who also experienced hyperemesis gravidarum.

      The average onset of symptoms happens approximately 5 to 6 weeks into gestation. The physical exam should include fetal heart rate (depending on gestational age) and an examination of fluid status, including an examination of blood pressure, heart rate, mucous membrane dryness, capillary refill, and skin turgor. A patient weight should be obtained for comparison to previous and future weights. If indicated, abdominal examination and pelvic examination should occur to determine the presence or absence of tenderness to palpation.

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  • Question 192 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.

      On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring.

      Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.

      As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
      Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.

      A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
      – Regular uterine contractions
      – Vaginal bleeding
      – A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
      – Abdominal/uterine pain
      – Significant trauma to the abdomen

      Considering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.

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  • Question 193 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning to conceive and has never been pregnant before. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no history of diabetes, mental health issues, and is not taking any regular medication.

      Which of the following is considered the best recommendation to give to the patient for the prevention of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 0.4 mg daily for a minimum of one month before conception to first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      Women who are at high risk of having babies with neural tube defects and who would benefit from higher doses of folic acid include those with certain folate-enzyme genotypes, previous pregnancies with neural tube defects, diabetes, malabsorption disorders, or obesity, or those who take antifolate medications or smoke. Such women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.

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  • Question 194 - A 20-year-old primigravida at her 16 weeks of gestation, presented with the history...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old primigravida at her 16 weeks of gestation, presented with the history of lower vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain.

      Transvaginal ultrasound shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal. Findings confirms the woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency which may lead to premature delivery.

      Which among the following is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reinforcement of the cervical ring with nonabsorbable suture material

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the given case has developed clinical features of cervical insufficiency and the possible treatment options include:
      1- Cerclage, which is the technique used for the reinforcement of cervical ring with nonabsorbable suture material and is indicated based on ultrasonographic findings. It is the treatment of choice when cervical shortening is detected by ultrasonography before 22 to 24 weeks of gestation.

      2- Vaginal progesterone is used to reduce the risk of preterm delivery in women who have a prior history of idiopathic preterm delivery or cervical shortening, which is confirmed in the current pregnancy also by ultrasonography.This method is applicable only to those women who do not meet the criteria for Cerclage.

      All the other options of management are incorrect in the given case.

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  • Question 195 - Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Immediate therapy for infants with suspected meconium should routinely include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clearing of the airway

      Explanation:

      Immediate treatment for infants with suspected meconium aspiration syndrome is to clear/suction the airway. Intubation and tracheal toileting have remained a matter of debate till the most recent times. All neonates at risk of MAS who show respiratory distress should be admitted to a neonatal intensive care unit and monitored closely. The treatment is mainly supportive and aims to correct hypoxemia and acidosis with the maintenance of optimal temperature and blood pressure.

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  • Question 196 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

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  • Question 197 - A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented to the medical clinic to receive human papillomavirus vaccination.

      Which of the following is considered the best step to do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postpone vaccination until after delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital HPV is a common virus that is passed from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Most HPV types cause no symptoms and go away on their own, but some types can cause cervical cancer in women and other less common cancers — like cancers of the anus, penis, vagina, and vulva and oropharynx. Other types of HPV can cause warts in the genital areas of men and women, called genital warts.

      HPV vaccination is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old girls. It is also recommended for girls and women age 13 through 26 years of age who have not yet been vaccinated or completed the vaccine series; HPV vaccine can also be given to girls beginning at age 9 years. CDC recommends 11 to 12 year olds get two doses of HPV vaccine to protect against cancers caused by HPV.

      The vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women. Studies show that the HPV vaccine does not cause problems for babies born to women who were vaccinated while pregnant, but more research is still needed. A pregnant woman should not get any doses of the HPV vaccine until her pregnancy is completed.

      Getting the HPV vaccine when pregnant is not a reason to consider ending a pregnancy. If a woman realizes that she got one or more shots of an HPV vaccine while pregnant, she should wait until after her pregnancy to finish any remaining HPV vaccine doses.

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  • Question 198 - In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around...

    Incorrect

    • In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had come into touch with a youngster who had been diagnosed with rubella two weeks prior. Which of the following would be the best next step in your management career?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial blood samples for rubella antibody assessment.

      Explanation:

      If the patient already has immunity (IgG positive) and if maternal rubella infection is the cause of the current symptoms (initial lgG and IgM negative, but IgM positive on a second sample 2-3 weeks later), amniocentesis may be required to confirm fetal infection.
      Ultrasound may reveal growth limitation in late pregnancy, but a fetal congenital defect is rare when the infection begins at 10 weeks of pregnancy, and ultrasound testing at 12 weeks of pregnancy is unlikely to detect abnormalities, while it may discover one from 18-20 weeks. Given the well-known deleterious fetal effects of rubella infection in early pregnancy, gamma-globulin is unlikely to be beneficial at this point in the infective process, and pregnancy termination would certainly be considered by some individuals.
      On the basis of prenatal rubella infection, this would not be recommended unless the infection was shown to have occurred.

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  • Question 199 - Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      At the time of delivery, the most important signs of complete placental separation are lengthening of the umbilical cord, per vaginal bleeding and change in shape of uterus from discoid to globular shape. The uterus contracts in size and rises upward.

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  • Question 200 - A 35 year old primigravida was in labour for 24 hours and delivered...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old primigravida was in labour for 24 hours and delivered after an induction. She developed postpartum haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most likely cause for PPH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atonic uterus

      Explanation:

      Uterine atony and failure of contraction and retraction of myometrial muscle fibres can lead to rapid and severe haemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Poor myometrial contraction can result from fatigue due to prolonged labour or rapid forceful labour, especially if stimulated.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (8/20) 40%
Passmed