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  • Question 1 - What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia. It is usually caused by a tumour of the parathyroid gland. Symptoms are related to increased calcium levels which can cause kidney stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric overtones and bones disease such as osteoporosis,osteomalacia and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      90% of genital candida infections are the result of Candida albicans. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for...

    Correct

    • A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for a consultation and enquires about the harmful effects of vitamin deficiencies. A deficiency of which vitamin can lead to teratogenic effects in the child?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women need to get enough folic acid. The vitamin is important to the growth of the foetus’s spinal cord and brain. Folic acid deficiency can cause severe birth defects known as neural tube defects. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for folate during pregnancy is 600 micrograms (µg)/day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed. She is a known to the case of multiple uterine fibroids. Her past surgical history is significant for tubal ligation and dilation and curettage without any definite diagnosis or any improvement in her symptoms.
      Examination reveals an enlarged uterus of about 12-week gravid size.
      A complete blood picture shows anaemia (Hb 80g/L).

      What should be the next step in the management of such a patient?

      Your Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids (uterine leiomyomas) are benign uterine tumours. Asymptomatic uterine leiomyomas merely require follow-up without any specific intervention because histological confirmation of the clinical diagnosis is not required in most cases.

      Symptoms and consequences necessitate treatment. The definitive therapy is hysterectomy. Other options include various types of myomectomy, endometrial ablation, uterine artery embolization, and myolysis.
      The following situations call for a hysterectomy:

      Women suffering from an acute haemorrhage who have failed to react to various treatments
      Women who are finished having children who are at risk for other disorders (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, endometriosis, adenomyosis, endometrial hyperplasia, or greater risk of uterine or ovarian cancer) that a hysterectomy might eliminate or reduce.

      Women who have had previous attempts at minimally invasive therapy for leiomyomas failed.
      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a desire for a permanent cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the procedure of choice.
      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to keep their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have further children, has had her tubes tied, and is experiencing painful symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is superior to endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea is achieved after endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas remain untreated.

      Women who have previously failed minimally invasive treatment for leiomyomas

      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a strong desire for a cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the preferred technique.

      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to maintain their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have any more children and has had her tubal ligation removed. She also has troublesome symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is better than endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea can be accomplished with endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas are not.

      Myomectomy is not recommended unless you want to increase your fertility. There is a chance of recurrence, which would demand additional procedures. It will also be difficult to remove all of the leiomyomas if the uterus is enlarged with several leiomyomas. Remaining leiomyomas might grow and cause symptoms again over time.

      Hormonal therapies such as combination contraceptive tablets, progesterone-only approaches, danazol, and others have been used with anecdotal results on symptoms like menorrhagia. Some have dubious efficacy, while others with confirmed efficacy have unfavourable side effects, restricting their use.
      In leiomyomas-related menorrhagia, NSAIDs have not been widely researched. Although NSAIDs do not appear to diminish blood loss in women with leiomyomas, they do lower painful menses and may be effective for this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal discharge. Which facultative anaerobic bacteria is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common infection of the vagina caused by the overgrowth of atypical bacteria, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis, a gram indeterminate bacteria, which is also a facultative anaerobe. Patients often complain of foul-smelling fishy discharge and dysuria. In diagnosing BV, a swab is taken for microscopy, often revealing clue cells. Of the other organisms listed in the options, Neisseria is an obligate anaerobe, while Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular aerobe. Treponema Pallidum is an aerophilic bacteria and Mycoplasma hominis is a pleomorphic parasitic bacterium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact...

    Incorrect

    • According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact membranes should be offered amniotomy if there is inadequate progress of the active second stage of labour (in terms of rotation and/or descent of the presenting part) after how long?

      Your Answer: 90 minutes

      Correct Answer: 30 minutes

      Explanation:

      Multiparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 30 minutes Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section Nulliparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 2 hours If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?...

    Correct

    • Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?

      Your Answer: 110-160

      Explanation:

      The normal FHR is 110-160

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms? ...

    Correct

    • Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms?

      Your Answer: Treponema Pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by spirochete called treponema pallidum. It can be divided into three stages. i.e. primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis.
      – Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre formation at the site of sexual contact.
      – Secondary syphilis ranges from maculopapular lesions to scaly lesions, inguinal lymphadenopathy, condylomata lata and split papules at the corner of mouth.
      – Tertiary syphilis is the late stage of syphilis which is characterized by gummas formation and general paresis along with signs and symptoms of visceral involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman, at her 29th week of gestation, presents to physician...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman, at her 29th week of gestation, presents to physician with flu-like symptoms for the past 3 days along with runny nose, mild headache and she feels achy. She also has mild fever and diffuse rash all over her body. She is concerned about the health of her baby and wants to know if there are any safe medications which will make her feel better in a short time. She has received tetanus vaccination as part of antenatal care program since she immigrated at the end of her first trimester from Romania. Patient is otherwise healthy.

      Considering the symptoms and travel history of this patient, she is at higher risk of giving birth to a newborn with which of the following options?

      Your Answer: Wide pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      This pregnant woman likely has an infection with the rubella virus, which increases the risk of congenital rubella syndrome in her newborn. congenital heart diseases, particularly patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is a part of this syndrome. Persistence of a patent vessel between the left pulmonary artery and aorta which is supposed to closes in the first 18 hours functionally and in the first 2–3 days of life anatomically is called as PDA.

      Normally there is right to left shunting in utero, but in case of PDA blood is shunted from the left (aorta) to the right (pulmonary artery) due to the decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance after birth. This causes right ventricular hypertrophy, if left untreated it can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy and heart failure. There will be a continuous machine-like murmur, heard over the left upper sternal border, as the blood is shunted throughout cardiac cycle. Diastolic BP becomes lower than normal, leading to a higher pulse pressure which is felt as a bounding pulse due to the lost volume from aorta. Though PDA is a non-cyanotic condition, it may lead to Eisenmenger’s syndrome in which R to L shunting persists, resulting in cyanosis, clubbing and polycythemia. Treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like indomethacin can close patent PDA. Other symptoms in infants born with rubella syndrome are microcephaly and cataract.

      The characteristic feature of an atrial septal defect or ASD, which is a congenital heart disease presenting as an opening in the septa between right and left atria, is a single fixed S2. There will be a delay in closure of the pulmonic valve, due to the excess amount of blood diverted to the right side.

      Brachial-femoral delay is a finding in coarctation of aorta, which presents as hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities.

      A double split S2 is a physiological finding caused by the closure of pulmonary and aortic valves on inspiration.

      PDA and pulmonary artery stenosis are the most common cardiac defects reported along with congenital rubella syndrome (CRS), whereas tricuspid valve regurgitation is never reported along with it.

      Learning objective: is associated with a continuous machine-like murmur heard over the left upper sternal border, bounding pulse and an increased pulse pressure are the usual symptoms associated with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is mostly seen along with congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and some weight gain reports to clinic for a review. Her medical records show evidence of hypothyroidism. On examination, a non tender, hard goitre is palpated. Further tests reveal elevated anti TPO (anti thyroid peroxidase) and anti -Tg (anti thyroglobulin). Which of the following conditions is most likely to present like this?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto's

      Explanation:

      The case presented points to a diagnosis of an autoimmune thyroiditis leading to hypothyroidism. The most common form of autoimmune hypothyroidism, Hashimoto’s, often presents with a goitre, positive for antibody tests against thyroid components i.e. anti-TPO and anti-thyroglobulin. Graves disease and toxic diffuse goitre are more likely to cause hyperthyroidism. While De-Quervain’s and endemic goitre may cause hypothyroidism, they don’t result in positive antibody tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows invasion of the inguinal lymph nodes. What is this patients 5-year survival?

      Your Answer: 45-60%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Lymph node involvement means that the carcinoma is stage 4. The 5 year survival of stage 4 endometrial carcinoma is 16%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been breastfeeding her baby 24 hours though she had previously stated she intended exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. She feels sad most of the time and her mood has been very low for the past 2 weeks, she has trouble sleeping at night and feels tired all day. She complains that her husband doesn’t seem to know how to help. For the past 24 hours she feels like she is not fit to be a mother and doesn’t want to feed the baby anymore. She has been frightened by thoughts to harm herself and the baby. Her baby is 7 weeks old.
      In addition to antidepressant medication, which of the following treatment is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents because of significant mood changes since she gave birth to her child: she is sad most of times and she is having guilt feelings about her adequacy for motherhood- She is also complaining of insomnia, tiredness, and even some suicidal ideation. These symptoms are highly suggestive postpartum depression. This should be differentiated from postpartum blues, which usually present within the first 2 weeks and last for few days. This patient’s symptoms started 5 weeks postpartum. Postpartum depression usually presents within the first 6 weeks to the first year postpartum.

      Postpartum depression is the most common complication of childbearing and affects the mother, the child, and relationship with the partner. It is diagnosed the same way as major depressive disorder in other patients. Since untreated postpartum depression can have long-term effects on the mother and the child, appropriate therapy should be undertaken as soon as possible- Antidepressant medications such as sertraline can be used to treat postpartum depression. In a patient who has suicidal ideation, electroconvulsive therapy has a more rapid and effective action than medication and should be considered in these patients.

      → Cognitive behavioural therapy is effective in women with mild to moderate postpartum depression; it would not be a good choice in this patient with suicidal ideation and at risk of harming the baby.
      → Estrogen therapy used alone or in combination with antidepressant, has been shown to significantly reduce the symptoms of postpartum depression; however, it would not be the most appropriate choice in a patient with suicidal ideation.
      → Peer support has shown equivocal results in various studies even though most postpartum patients report that lacking an intimate friend or confidant or facing social isolation are factors leading to depression.
      → Non-directive counselling also known as ”listening visits“ has been found to be effective in postpartum patients, though the studies that were conducted are deemed to be of small sample and larger studies still need to be done to validate these findings. It would not be an appropriate choice for this patient with suicidal ideation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in patients of childbearing age?

      Your Answer: Candida albicans

      Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Vaginosis is a common condition which results in a foul smelling discharge from the vagina without any inflammation. It is the most common cause of abnormal PV discharge. Most of the women are asymptomatic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post...

    Correct

    • What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post menopausal uterus?

      Your Answer: 4mm

      Explanation:

      In post menopausal women the thickness of the endometrium should be 4mm or less or women on tamoxifen is should be less than 5mm. If it is more than this the patient should be worked up for endometrial carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the incubation period for Varicella Zoster infection? ...

    Correct

    • What is the incubation period for Varicella Zoster infection?

      Your Answer: 10-21 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of varicella is 10-21 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as showing a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mature teratoma

      Explanation:

      Dermoid cysts and teratomas contain elements from multiple germ cell layers. They are often considered the same entity (even in medical texts) however a dermoid is composed only of dermal and epidermal elements. A teratoma has mesodermal and endodermal elements Mature teratomas are composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2/3 germ cell layers (i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They contain developmentally mature skin complete with hair follicles, sweat glands, sometimes hair, and sometimes sebum, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 39-year-old woman comes to your clinic for assessment and advice as she...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman comes to your clinic for assessment and advice as she is planning to conceive over past three months with no success.
      She has a history of obesity with BMI 40 and type 2 diabetes mellitus with latest HbA1c value of 11%. She had her last eye check six months ago which shows no evidence of retinopathy, and she does not have diabetic nephropathy.

      Among the following which is a contraindication to pregnancy in this case?

      Your Answer: History of type 2 diabetes mellitus with HBA1C above 10

      Explanation:

      In patients who have an HbA1C value above 10%, it is better to postpone pregnancy until diabetes is under control. Also in those patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are suffering from severe gastroparesis, those with advanced retinopathy, with severe diabetic renal disease and severe ischemic heart disease with uncontrolled hypertension pregnancy is contraindicated.

      All the other options mentioned are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Ovarian cancer is associated with which type of metastasis? ...

    Correct

    • Ovarian cancer is associated with which type of metastasis?

      Your Answer: Transcoelomic

      Explanation:

      The common route of metastases of the ovarian cancer is transcoelomic route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - DEXA scans measure bone density by ...

    Correct

    • DEXA scans measure bone density by

      Your Answer: Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site

      Explanation:

      DEXA works by passing two low dose XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the patient’s bone. Some of the XRAY radiation will be absorbed (the greater the density the greater the absorption) whilst some will pass through to a detector. Soft tissue absorption is subtracted out and the BMD can be determined from the absorption of each beam. It is important to realise that two beams are used at each site when measuring bone density (hence ‘dual’). Although two sites are typically used (spine and femoral neck) when measuring bone density this is not why the term dual is used Computer analysis of multiple X-ray beams taken from different angles and geographical digital processing are features of CT scanning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?

      Your Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now

      Explanation:

      To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.

      Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
      If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.

      Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
      Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as ...

    Correct

    • WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as

      Your Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births

      Explanation:

      The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births.
      According to WHO the perinatal period commences at 22 completed weeks (154 days) of gestation and ends seven completed days after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following has the most significant effect on slowing drug...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following has the most significant effect on slowing drug metabolism in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Progesterone effect on gastric motility

      Explanation:

      Progesterone down regulates gastric motility meaning drugs are absorbed and metabolised more slowly, thus drugs are absorbed, metabolised and cleared more slowly. Most of the drugs are transported after binding to the albumin.
      Lower albumin levels mean a greater unbound drug fraction but as this may be thought to increase drug concentrations it actually leaves more available for hepatic clearance or renal excretion so overall drug concentrations are unchanged and metabolism increased.
      Increase in hepatic flow will increase the metabolism of the drug as the drug will be transported faster.
      Increased renal blood flow will result in the faster clearance of the drug from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of her pregnancy, complaining of a mild vaginal bleeding since last 12 hours along with mild but periodic pain.

      On vaginal examination, cervical os is found to be closed with mild discharge which contains blood clots. Ultrasound performed confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal foetal heart sound.

      What among the following will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      The case is most likely diagnosed a threatened miscarriage.
      A diagnosis of threatened miscarriage is made when there is uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix and is confirmed by the sonographic visualisation of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity. Miscarriages may not always follow even though there was multiple episodes or large amounts of bleeding, therefore the term “threatened” is used in these cases.
      At 7 to 11 weeks of gestation, about 90 to 96 percent cases of pregnancies, will not usually miscarry if they have presented with an intact fetal cardiac activity along with vaginal bleeding and if bleeding occurs at the later weeks of gestational age chances of success rate is higher.

      Topic review:
      – Inevitable miscarriages presents with a dilated cervix, increasing uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissues can often be felt or seen through the cervical os and its passage occurs within a short time.
      – In Incomplete miscarriage, the membranes will rupture passing the fetus out, but significant amounts of placental tissue will be retained. This occurs most commonly in late first trimester or early second trimester. On examination, the cervical os will be opened and the gestational tissue can be observed in the cervix, with a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age, but not well contracted. The amount of bleeding varies but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock. There will be painful cramps
      ontractions and ultrasound reveals tissue in the uterus.
      – A missed miscarriage refers to the in-utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20th week of gestation, with retention of the pregnancy for a prolonged period of time. In this case, women may notice that symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have abated and they don’t “feel pregnant” anymore.
      Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix usually remains closed. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
      – Complete miscarriage, usually occurs before 12 weeks of gestation and the entire contents of the uterus will be expelled resulting in a complete miscarriage. In this case, physical examination reveals a small, well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix with scanty vaginal bleeding and mild cramping. Ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus with no extra-uterine gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true?

      Your Answer: Considered to be engaged when the biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      The fetal head is engaged when the head of the foetus or the presenting part enters the pelvic inlet or pelvic brim. It usually occurs at 38 weeks of gestation.
      The Spalding sign refers to the overlapping of the fetal skull bones caused by collapse of the fetal brain. It appears usually a week or more after fetal death in utero.
      In brow presentation the scalp is deflexed as the foetus is looking upward. Normally the head is inflexed such that the chin is touching the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids? ...

    Correct

    • Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk factors of fibroids include early menarche, nulliparity, early exposure to oral contraceptives (one study showed 13-16 years old), diet rich in red meats and alcohol, vitamin D deficiency, hypertension, obesity, and/or history of sexual or physical abuse.

      Smoking is associated with actual reduced risk due to an unknown mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic, phenytoin more so than topiramate are inducers of cytochrome P450. They should not be given with COCPs. The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs that induce cytochrome P450 leading to a loss of contraceptive effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.

    A...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.

      A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery.

      Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?

      Your Answer: Increase risk of adhesions

      Explanation:

      Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
      -Increased risk of maternal mortality.
      -Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
      -Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
      -Increased risk of infections.

      Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on?

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Fetal nutrition is dependant upon multiple factors such as maternal nutritional state, quality of maternal diet, malnutrition, anorexia nervosa, metabolic rate of the mother or whether they suffer from malabsorption syndrome or other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological?

      Your Answer: Left axis deviation on ECG

      Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Diastolic murmurs occur in conditions such as mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis and even in carditis. They are always pathological during pregnancy. Systolic murmurs and left axis deviation may be normal during pregnancy due to an increase in the blood volume and load on the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient present to the clinic with a 1 day history of vaginal...

    Correct

    • A patient present to the clinic with a 1 day history of vaginal prolapse. Upon examination, the vagina is 1.5 cm below the vaginal plane. What grade is the prolapse according to the POP-Q classification?

      Your Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Pelvic organ prolapse is a common condition amongst ageing women where a weakness in the pelvic support structures of the pelvic floor allows pelvic viscera to descend.
      The Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification system (POP-Q) is useful for describing and staging the severity of the pelvic organ prolapse.
      Grade 1: the most distal portion of the prolapse is more than 1 cm above the level of the hymen
      Grade 2: the most distal portion of the prolapse is 1 cm or less proximal or distal to the hymenal plane
      Grade 3: the most distal portion of the prolapse protrudes more than 1 cm below the hymen but protrudes no farther than 2 cm less than the total vaginal length (for example, not all of the vagina has prolapsed)
      Grade 4: vaginal eversion complete

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 32 year old patient develops painful ulcerated genital lesions and inguinal lymphadenopathy....

    Correct

    • A 32 year old patient develops painful ulcerated genital lesions and inguinal lymphadenopathy. She is 32 weeks pregnant. You suspect genital herpes and send swabs. Which of the following is appropriate management according to the 2014 BASHH/RCOG guidelines?

      Your Answer: Send bloods to check antibody status. If this supports this is a first episode genital HSV then patient should be advised to have C-section delivery

      Explanation:

      Although acyclovir should be given, this patient is in the 3rd trimester so the course should continue until delivery. Dose will be 400mg TDS unless disseminated disease. If this is a primary HSV infection (This should be confirmed by lesion swabs to confirm HSV infection and bloods to check no antibody response i.e. evidence previous infection) then C-section is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - According to the WHO, maternal death is defined as which of the following?...

    Correct

    • According to the WHO, maternal death is defined as which of the following?

      Your Answer: The death of a women whilst pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The WHO defines maternal death as female death from any cause related to pregnancy or its management, including childbirth or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy. This is irrespective of the duration or site of the pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery,...

    Correct

    • All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?

      Your Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm

      Explanation:

      For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - What kind of biochemical changes occur during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?...

    Correct

    • What kind of biochemical changes occur during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: High progesterone levels

      Explanation:

      Menstrual cycle can be divided into the follicular phase and luteal phase. In the luteal phase, there is an increase in progesterone secretion and LH levels are low. If the ova is fertilized, it is implanted in the endometrium. In case of failure in fertilization, there is gradual decrease in progesterone and LH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented with an episode of per vaginal bleeding two weeks ago. It lasted four days in duration. A reduction in the severity of hot flushes as well as some breast enlargement preceded the bleeding episode.

      What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: An episode of ovarian follicular activity.

      Explanation:

      It has been found that it is possible for premenopausal hormones to persist for a period of time after attaining menopause. If one or a few ovarian follicles remain, they could produce oestrogen in response to the very elevated levels of FSH typically seen in menopause. In doing so, the woman can then bleed as a result of this physiological response. The symptoms seen in this vignette are consistent with the rise in oestrogen levels, likely due to follicular activity.

      In the absence of any pathological findings such as endometrial carcinoma, this phenomenon would be the most likely cause of this post-menopausal bleed. Furthermore, it is unlikely for cervical cancer and endometrial cancer to present during the first few years following menopause. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely to be associated with the other symptoms the patient presented with i.e. reduction in the intensity of hot flushes and breast enlargement. This patient was not stated to have any risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity, late menopause and early menarche, which makes it a less likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends approximately a quarter of the thickness through the external anal sphincter. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 3a

      Explanation:

      1. First-degree trauma corresponds to lacerations of the skin/vaginal epithelium alone.
      2. Second-degree tears involve perineal muscles and therefore include episiotomies.
      3. Third-degree extensions involve any part of the anal sphincter complex (external and internal sphincters):
      i Less than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      ii More than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      iii Tear involves the internal anal sphincter
      (usually there is complete disruption of the
      external sphincter).
      4. Fourth-degree tears involve injury to the anal sphincter complex extending into the rectal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which immunoglobulin is the first to be synthesised by the neonate? ...

    Correct

    • Which immunoglobulin is the first to be synthesised by the neonate?

      Your Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      Fetal production of immunoglobulin begins early on at about 10 weeks gestation with the production of IgM antibodies. Maternal IgG, which is a key component of fetal immunity is passed on to the foetus through the placenta from 12 weeks of gestation. Secretory IgA is not produced until after birth, through breast milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Among the following which is incorrect regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following which is incorrect regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroxine requirement during pregnancy will increases by 25 to 30 percent, which is seen as early as fifth week of pregnancy.

      Children born to those women whose hypothyroidism was inadequately treated during pregnancy, are at higher risk for developing neuropsychiatric impairments.

      When a woman who is on thyroxine is planning to conceive, they are advised to increase their thyroxine dose by 30 percent at the time of confirmation of pregnancy.

      During pregnancy TSH also should be monitored at every 8 to 10 weeks, with necessary dose adjustments.

      Dose requirements of thyroxine will return to pre-pregnancy level soon after delivery and it will not change according to whether the mother is breastfeeding or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous...

    Correct

    • A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks’ duration.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.

      Explanation:

      It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).

      The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
      In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.

      Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.

      In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur? ...

    Correct

    • In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur?

      Your Answer: 24-36 hours before ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation usually occurs on day 14 in a typical 28-day cycle. Luteinizing hormone levels spike as a result of increased oestrogen levels secreted from maturing follicles. This LH spike occurs about 24-36 hours before the release of the oocyte from the mature follicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is the typical weight of a non-pregnant premenopausal uterus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical weight of a non-pregnant premenopausal uterus?

      Your Answer: 400g

      Correct Answer: 40g

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood. The uterus is 50–60 g prior to pregnancy and 1000 g by term. The volume increases from 10 ml to 5000ml approx. It is around 40g at menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to her GP with concerns regarding the evolution of her pregnancy. She's afraid she might experience an obstetric cholestasis just like her older sister did in the past. What is the fundamental symptom of obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Pruritus

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis of pregnancy is associated with increased fetal morbidity and mortality and should be treated actively. The significance attached to pruritus in pregnancy is often minimal, but it is a cardinal symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, which may have no other clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy.

      Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.

      Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:

      Your Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension

      Explanation:

      Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (4/6) 67%
Clinical Management (4/8) 50%
Obstetrics (13/14) 93%
Gynaecology (4/4) 100%
Microbiology (3/3) 100%
Data Interpretation (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Biophysics (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (4/4) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Passmed