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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.

      Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved completely with the onset of menstruation.

      Which of the following suggests an appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective and somatic symptoms over the five days before menses in each of the three previous menstrual cycles are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective symptoms include:
      – Depression.
      – Anger outbursts.
      – Irritability.
      – Anxiety.
      – Confusion.
      – social withdrawal.
      Somatic symptoms include:
      – breast tenderness
      – abdominal bloating
      – headache and swelling of extremities.
      Symptoms normally disappear within four days of menstruation and are present even when no medical therapy, drugs, or alcohol are used.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent crying, loss of interest in daily activities, reduced focus, exhaustion, sleeplessness, and a sense of being overwhelmed or out of control.
      Symptoms must have been present for the majority of the previous 12 months, interfering with daily activities.

      The diagnoses of generalised anxiety disorder and depression alone are doubtful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female presents with a complaint of bloating and abdominal distension. History reveals she underwent hysterectomy 3 months ago. Which investigation should be carried out in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plain X-ray abdomen

      Explanation:

      A complication of bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and hysterectomy is the formation of adhesions in the GIT that can cause intestinal obstruction. Abdominal X-ray is sufficient to visualize any obstruction in the GIT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old postmenopausal female sees you for an initial health maintenance visit. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old postmenopausal female sees you for an initial health maintenance visit. Her examination is normal and she has no complaints. You perform a Papanicolaou (Pap) test, which she has not had done in 15 years. The smear is read as “negative for intraepithelial lesion and malignancy, benign endometrial cells present.”

      What would be the most appropriate follow-up for this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      This patient should have an endometrial biopsy (SOR C). Approximately 7% of postmenopausal women with benign endometrial cells on a Papanicolaou smear will have significant endometrial pathology. None of the other options listed evaluate the endometrium for pathology. An asymptomatic premenopausal woman with benign endometrial cells would not need an endometrial evaluation because underlying endometrial pathology is rare in this group.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach'...

    Incorrect

    • You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach' after hearing about several methods (calendar calculation).

      Menstrual periods last between 26 and 29 days for the woman. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase is always fixed to 14 days. In this patient, ovulation will occur between days 12-15. Sexual encounter must be ceased until 24-36 hours before day 15 (day 17). The start date of abstinence, calculated by decreasing 6 days (life span of the sperm) from the earliest possible day of ovulation (12-6=6). Hence from day 6-17, sexual encounter must be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her...

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    • A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening.

      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening...

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    • A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal.

      What is the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
      Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.

      Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents with pain and oedema of one leg, 3 days after an obstructed labour. Upon examination the leg is cold and pale. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Embolus

      Explanation:

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) during pregnancy and the postpartum window occurs at a 6-10-fold higher rate compared with age-matched peers and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality. Hypercoagulability persists for 6-8 weeks after delivery with the highest risk of PE being during the postpartum period. The lack of randomized trials in pregnant women leads to variability in practice, which are largely based on expert consensus or extrapolation from non-pregnant cohorts. The standard treatment of VTE in pregnancy is anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), which like unfractionated heparin does not cross the placenta and is not teratogenic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to...

    Incorrect

    • After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to your office with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea. She's taking oral contraceptives. Even when she was quite unwell, she did not miss her pills.

      Which of the following would be the best piece of contraceptive and pill advise you could give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should continue the pills and use condom for 7 days

      Explanation:

      If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.

      If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours the patient should use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.

      Options to stop pills are incorrect as it increases risk of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for at your clinic. She describes bilateral pain that began gradually and was accompanied by fever, vaginal discharge, and mild dysuria.

      Her pelvic examination demonstrates uterine, adnexal, and cervical motion tenderness.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) refers to acute and subclinical infection of the upper genital tract in women, involving any or all of the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries; this is often accompanied by involvement of the neighbouring pelvic organs. It results in endometritis, salpingitis, oophoritis, peritonitis, perihepatitis, and/or tubo-ovarian abscess.

      Lower abdominal pain is the cardinal presenting symptom in women with PID. The abdominal pain is usually bilateral and rarely of more than two weeks’ duration. The character of the pain is variable, and in some cases, may be quite subtle. The recent onset of pain that worsens during coitus or with jarring movement may be the only presenting symptom of PID. The onset of pain during or shortly after menses is particularly suggestive.

      Other non-specific complaints include urinary frequency and abnormal vaginal discharge.

      Ovarian cyst, uterine leiomyoma, appendicitis or ectopic pregnancy do not present with fever and vaginal discharge although tenderness is noted in appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, these options do not explain the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with...

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    • A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with loss of weight, abdominal pain and frequent episodes of vomiting. Her vital signs are normal. She has been given a cyclizine injection but without any significant improvement. The next step would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV steroids

      Explanation:

      In hyperemesis gravidarum, IV corticosteroids can be given to reduce vomiting, if the patient is not responding to standard anti emetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences cyclic pain, mostly throughout her premenstrual and menstrual periods. She has been trying for 15 months to conceive without luck. Her pelvic check-up comes out normal.

      Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the source of her pain and planning preoperative disease staging?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecological condition affecting women of reproductive age and may cause pelvic pain and infertility. It is characterized by the growth of functional ectopic endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus and includes three different manifestations: ovarian endometriomas, peritoneal implants, deep pelvic endometriosis. The primary locations are in the pelvis; extra pelvic endometriosis may rarely occur.

      Diagnosis requires a combination of clinical history, invasive and non-invasive techniques. The definitive diagnosis is based on laparoscopy with histological confirmation. Diagnostic imaging is necessary for treatment planning. MRI is as a second-line technique after ultrasound. The MRI appearance of endometriotic lesions is variable and depends on the quantity and age of haemorrhage, the amount of endometrial cells, stroma, smooth muscle proliferation and fibrosis. The purpose of surgery is to achieve complete resection of all endometriotic lesions in the same operation.

      Owing to the possibility to perform a complete assessment of all pelvic compartments at one time, MRI represents the best imaging technique for preoperative staging of endometriosis, in order to choose the more appropriate surgical approach and to plan a multidisciplinary team work.

      Though ESR maybe elevated due to the presence of inflammation, it is not specific for endometriosis and has no role in preoperative staging. The same holds true for any possible CBC finding.

      Transvaginal ultrasound is preferred for diagnosis but doesn’t aid in preoperative staging of endometriosis.

      CA125 values are elevated in severe infiltrative endometriosis but unchanged in mild disease. Relaying on CA125 cause a high rate of false negatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as...

    Incorrect

    • A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on reflex liquid-based cytology, was positive for a young doctor from a nearby hospital.
      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      On reflex liquid-based cytology, this patient had a cervical screening test that revealed HPV non-16 and 18 kinds, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. In a year, she should be provided a cervical screening test. If HPV non-16/18 kinds are discovered in 12 months, she will need a colposcopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - Which is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norethisterone

      Explanation:

      Multiple epidemiological risk factors have been identified in patients who have adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.
      – Endogenous factors
      – Obesity
      – Nulliparity
      – An individual who has had a late menopause (aged >52 y)
      – Unopposed oestrogen
      – Tamoxifen
      – Family history
      – Individuals with a family history of endometrial cancer appear to be at increased risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation.

      The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.

      With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.

      PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:

      Anger or irritability.
      Anxiety and panic attacks.
      Depression and suicidal thoughts.
      Difficulty concentrating.
      Fatigue and low energy.
      Food cravings or binge eating.
      Headaches.
      Insomnia.
      Mood swings.

      The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:

      Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
      The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
      The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
      Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
      Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. A pregnancy test in the urine came back positive. An ultrasonography of the right fallopian tube revealed a gestational sac.

      Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the ailment you've just read about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is definitely present in this patient. An extrauterine pregnancy is referred to as an ectopic pregnancy. The fallopian tube accounts for 96% of ectopic pregnancies, but other sites include the cervical, interstitial (also called cornual; a pregnancy located in the proximal segment of the fallopian tube that is embedded within the muscular wall of the uterus), hysterotomy (caesarean) scar, intramural, ovarian, or abdominal. Furthermore, multiple gestations may be heterotopic in rare situations (including both a uterine and extrauterine pregnancy). Diabetes mellitus is not considered a risk factor for the development of an ectopic pregnancy.

      Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are summarized below:
      High Risk: (Risk factors & Odds ratio)
      Previous ectopic pregnancy 2.7 to 8.3
      Previous tubal surgery 2.1 to 21
      Tubal pathology 3.5 to 25
      Sterilization 5.2 to 19
      IUD – Past use 1.7 – Current use 4.2 to 16.4
      Levonorgestrel IUD 4.9
      In vitro fertilization in current pregnancy 4.0 to 9.3

      Moderate:
      Current use of oestrogen/progestin oral contraceptives 1.7 to 4.5
      Previous sexually transmitted infections (gonorrhoea, chlamydia) 2.8 to 3.7
      Previous pelvic inflammatory disease 2.5 to 3.4
      In utero diethylstilbesterol (DES) exposure 3.7
      Smoking – Past smoker 1.5 to 2.5 – Current smoker 1.7 to 3.9
      Previous pelvic/abdominal surgery 4.0
      Previous spontaneous abortion 3.0

      Low:
      Previous medically induced abortion 2.8
      Infertility 2.1 to 2.7
      Age ≥40 years 2.9
      Vaginal douching 1.1 to 3.1
      Age at first intercourse <18 years 1.6
      Previous appendectomy 1.6

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections.
      Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry.

      What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.

      Explanation:

      Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.

      Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.

      The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A woman visited the OPD with complaints of severe abdominal pain and light-headedness....

    Incorrect

    • A woman visited the OPD with complaints of severe abdominal pain and light-headedness. There is history of fainting three days prior to consultation. She also has vaginal bleeding. In this case, which of the following investigations should be ordered to reach the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Testing for beta hCG should be the first test in this case. It will rule out any pregnancy that is strongly suspected based on the patient’s history and physical examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - After 2 years of marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41 has...

    Incorrect

    • After 2 years of marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41 has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked.

      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suggest her to lose weight

      Explanation:

      This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
      Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
      A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
      As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
      Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
      Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
      Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.

      Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
      GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.

      Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
      If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 19-year-old female patient with secondary amenorrhea visits your office. A urine pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female patient with secondary amenorrhea visits your office. A urine pregnancy test is negative. As part of your work-up, you order a pelvic ultrasound, which reveals a fluid filled, thin walled cyst measuring 1.8 x 1.3 x 1 cm. She doesn't complain of pain or tenderness.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do nothing

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign.

      Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
      In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.

      However, meta-analyses have since shown that there is no difference between OCP use and placebo in terms of treatment outcomes in ovarian cysts and that these masses should be monitored expectantly for several menstrual cycles.

      If a cystic mass does not resolve after this timeframe, it is unlikely to be a functional cyst, and further workup may be indicated.

      Other methods of management maybe revisited if cyst increases in size or becomes complex upon follow up.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill for ten years and has had regular light menstrual cycles during that time. She stopped taking it three months ago. She hasn't had a period since then, except the one she had right after she stopped. She is quite worried and believes she is pregnant, even though she has no additional symptoms that point to this conclusion. A large retroverted uterus is discovered during a vaginal examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate piece of advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A pregnancy test should be performed.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that pregnancy at her age is uncommon, the best advise you can give her is to take a pregnancy test.

      If the test results show she is not pregnant, she can next decide whether to restart the oral contraceptive pill (0CP) or simply weep until the post-pill amenorrhoea goes away.

      Although an increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level may indicate ovarian failure, it does not guarantee that no more periods will occur and does not rule out the possibility of a future pregnancy.

      Obviously, she should be recommended to use a contraceptive method like condoms until the cause of her amenorrhoea is determined.
      Other hormonal tests, such as luteinizing hormone and prolactin testing, may be required.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies fever, back pain, and urinary frequency. She appears to be well otherwise and has a normal abdominal examination. A clean-catch urinalysis shows 15-20 WBC/hpf and a dipstick test for leukocyte esterase is positive. You send a urine sample for culture and start the patient on nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), as she is allergic to sulpha.

      Three days later, the patient returns with persistent dysuria despite taking the medication as prescribed. Her urine culture has returned with no growth. A pelvic examination is normal and the rest of the physical examination is unchanged. A wet prep is normal and tests for sexually transmitted diseases are pending. Which one of the following antibiotics is most appropriate for this patient now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Urethral syndrome is characterized by dysuria and pyuria in the presence of a negative culture for uropathogens. Frequency and urgency are often absent. The infecting organism is typically Chlamydia trachomatis although other organisms such as Urea plasma urealyticum and Mycoplasma species may be involve- Effective medication choices include doxycycline, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, and macrolides such as erythromycin and azithromycin.

      -Amoxicillin
      lavulanate  and cephalexin  are incorrect. These would cover gram-positive bacteria but it would not cover gram-negative bacteria nor bacteria without a cell wall, which are the most common causes of this condition.
      – Metronidazole is best for treating anaerobic infections and protozoa such as trichomonas vaginalis, it would not be the best for treating this condition, given the most likely causes.
      -Pyridium is a phenazopyridine often used to alleviate the pain, irritation, discomfort, or urgency caused by urinary tract infections. While it would be beneficial for symptomatic relief, it is unlikely to completely resolve this patient’s condition, given her recent history.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy

      Explanation:

      A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill...

    Incorrect

    • Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37.

      What should be the next management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options

      Explanation:

      This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
      Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
      Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant

      Explanation:

      With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.

      Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey vaginal discharge. Bacteria adhering to vaginal epithelial cells are visible under light microscopy using a wet mount preparation.

      Which of the following creatures is most likely to be a pathogen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Gardnerella vaginalis is one of the bacteria implicated in the development of bacterial vaginosis , many women (>50%) with this vaginal infection have no signs or symptoms, when these are present they are most often :
      Vaginal discharge, grey, white or green, with a strong unpleasant odour
      Strong vaginal odour and fishy smell after sex
      Vaginal itching
      Burning during urination
      Vaginal bleeding after sex
      Gardnerella vaginalis can also be responsible for serious infections (sepsis, wound infections) in locations other than those associated with the genital tract or obstetrics, these cases are very rare but have been reported, including in men.

      Mycoplasma Hominis is one of the organisms involved in the pathogenesis of BV but it appears normal on wet mount.

      Candida presents with white cottage cheese like discharge.

      Chlamydia is not seen on wet mount and produces clear vaginal discharge.

      Trichomonas shows clue cells on wet mount.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after having four pregnancies before the age of 30. She has to wear a 'pad' inside her pants all of the time because of this condition. She isn't on any hormone replacement therapy at the moment. Which of the following signs indicates that the incontinence is most likely true stress incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Only small quantities of urine ore lost each time she is incontinent.

      Explanation:

      Only little volumes of urine are lost when her intra-abdominal pressure is elevated during coughing, laughing, jumping, and straining, which is the only symptom associated with real stress incontinence.
      The other reactions are significantly more compatible with a detrusor instability diagnosis (also called urge incontinence).
      If she had incontinence throughout pregnancy, it would have been stress in nature, which is what her current incontinence is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She attained menopause 6 years ago whereas her last vaginal examination 2 years prior, was normal. She now has a palpable mass measuring 8cm in diameter in the left ovarian area.

      Which is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admission to hospital for early surgical exploration.

      Explanation:

      This lady should be admitted to hospital for early surgical exploration. Taking into account her age, mild abdominal discomfort and a palpable lower abdominal mass, it is imperative that ovarian malignancy be ruled out as soon as possible. Patients with ovarian malignancy often present in advanced stages of cancer as the symptoms tend to be occult and non-specific. Other things to include in her workup would be her CA125 level. Any form of hormonal therapy is contraindicated until ovarian malignancy has been ruled out. A pap smear is not relevant here since we are suspecting an ovarian malignancy rather than cervical. Evaluation of her mass takes priority over an assessment for osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 22 year old woman is being followed up 6 weeks after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old woman is being followed up 6 weeks after a surgical procedure to evacuate the uterus following a miscarriage. The histology has shown changes consistent with a hydatidiform mole. What is the single most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum B-HCG

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate test for a hydatiform mole is serum beta hCG levels, which are consistently raised in these patients. The levels return to normal when the pregnancy is terminated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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