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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?
Your Answer: Continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?
Your Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference
Explanation:The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week
Explanation:European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned
Explanation:Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of noisy breathing and difficulty feeding. On examination, the baby had a mild inspiratory stridor, and subsequent laryngoscopy reveals an omega-shaped epiglottis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:Omega-shaped epiglottis is a characteristic feature in the X-ray of a patient with laryngomalacia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large intestine
Explanation:Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen saturation that is less than:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.92
Explanation:In an acute and severe asthma attack the child cannot complete sentences in one breath because they are too breathless. The O2 saturation is less than 92% and PEF is between 33-50% best or predicted. In children that are 2-5 years old, HR is more than 140 bpm and more than 125 bpm in those older than 5 years old. The RR in children between 2-5 years old is more than 40/min, and more than 30/min in those older than 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:- A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels- Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:- A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
- Right atrium 7 mmHg; Saturation 60 %
- Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
- Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
- Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg; Saturation 98 %
- Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 87 %
- Aorta 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 76 %
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Explanation:Key Observations:
- Cyanosis and Low Oxygen Saturation:
- Central cyanosis indicates mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
- The aortic oxygen saturation is low (76%), indicating a significant amount of deoxygenated blood entering systemic circulation.
- Pressure Analysis:
- The right ventricle pressure is significantly elevated (110/6 mmHg), suggesting an obstructive lesion like pulmonary stenosis or an increased volume load due to a shunt.
- The pulmonary artery pressure is low (20/5 mmHg) despite the high right ventricular pressure, suggesting an obstruction to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, consistent with pulmonary stenosis.
- Oxygen Saturation Analysis:
- There is a notable drop in oxygen saturation from the left ventricle (87%) to the aorta (76%), indicating a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation, suggestive of a right-to-left shunt.
Differential Diagnosis:
- Pulmonary Stenosis:
- Supported by elevated right ventricular pressure and low pulmonary artery pressure.
- Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):
- Would typically cause left-to-right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and higher oxygen saturation in the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, which is not observed here.
- Over-riding Aorta:
- Seen in conditions like Tetralogy of Fallot where the aorta receives blood from both the right and left ventricles, leading to mixed oxygen saturation.
- Right-to-Left Shunt:
- The data indicates a right-to-left shunt, with low oxygen saturation in the aorta, suggesting that deoxygenated blood is bypassing the lungs and entering systemic circulation.
- Aortic Stenosis:
- Typically presents with high left ventricular pressure and a pressure gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is not observed here.
Conclusion:
Given the data, the most likely abnormalities present in this patient are Pulmonary Stenosis, Right-to-Left Shunt, and Over-riding Aorta. These findings are consistent with a condition like Tetralogy of Fallot, where all these features are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference
Explanation:The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with a day's history of urticarial rash.While addressing the parents' query on the cause of the rash, what would be the most appropriate statement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The rash may be due to a viral infection
Explanation:The most common cause of acute urticaria is a viral infection. Individual lesions typically are short-lived and last less than 24 hours. Urticaria can be due to or can be made worse by cold temperatures. One of the other causes of urticaria is salicylic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which one must consider biliary atresia as the probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:After a period of 14 days, if jaundice persists in a term new-born, having ruled out the other possibilities, biliary atresia should be considered as a possible diagnosis.Biliary atresia is a rare but serious condition. Symptoms include obstructive jaundice (dark urine and pale stool). Management:Surgery within 8 weeks is recommended. Survival is around 90% using current treatment regimes. Without treatment, children will survive to around 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following disorders is correctly linked to associated mutations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charcot- Marie-Tooth- whole gene duplication
Explanation:Types of DNA mutations and their impactpoint mutation:Substitution: One base is incorrectly added during replication and replaces the pair in the corresponding position on the complementary strand as in Sickle cell anaemiaInsertion: One or more extra nucleotides are inserted into replicating DNA, often resulting in a frameshift as in one form of beta-thalassemiaDeletion: One or more nucleotides is skipped during replication or otherwise excised, often resulting in a frameshift as in Cystic fibrosis.Chromosomal mutation:Inversion: One region of a chromosome is flipped and reinserted as in Opitz-Kaveggia syndromeDeletion: A region of a chromosome is lost, resulting in the absence of all the genes in that area as in Cri du chat syndromeDuplication: A region of a chromosome is repeated, resulting in an increase in dosage from the genes in that region as in some cancers and Charcot-Marie toothTranslocation: A region from one chromosome is aberrantly attached to another chromosome as in One form of leukaemiaCopy number variation:Gene amplification: The number of tandem copies of a locus is increased as in Some breast cancersExpanding trinucleotide repeat: The normal number of repeated trinucleotide sequences is expanded as in Fragile X syndrome, Huntington’s disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas
Explanation:History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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To which structure does the mesonephric duct give rise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seminal vesicles
Explanation:The mesonephric duct is one of the paired embryogenic tubules that drain the primitive kidney (mesonephros) to the cloaca. It also gives off a lateral branch forming the ureteric bud. In both the male and the female the Wolffian duct develops into the trigone of the urinary bladder. When the ducts are exposed to testosterone during embryogenesis, male sexual differentiation occurs: the mesonephric duct develops into the rete testis, the ejaculatory ducts, the epididymis, the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT true of the femoral nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It supplies adductor longus
Explanation:The femoral nerve is the main nerve supply for the thigh muscles including the pectineus, iliacus, sartorius, which flex the hip| and the quadriceps femoris made up of the rectus femoris, vests laterals, vastus medialis and vastus intermedius, which extend the knee. The nerve is derived from the L2, L3 and L4 nerve roots, and supplies cutaneous branches to the anteromedial thigh and the medial side of the leg via the saphenous nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision
Explanation:Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when: – There are no other causes, and- The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:- If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.- If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluidContinued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is associated with streptococcal infections
Explanation:Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Chronic or recurrent erythema nodosum is rare but may occur.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adults.The eruptive phase of erythema nodosum begins with flulike symptoms of fever and generalized aching. Arthralgia may occur and precedes the eruption or appears during the eruptive phase. Most lesions in infection-induced erythema nodosum heal within 7 weeks, but active disease may last up to 18 weeks. In contrast, 30% of idiopathic erythema nodosum cases may last more than 6 months. Febrile illness with dermatologic findings includes abrupt onset of illness with initial fever, followed by a painful rash within 1-2 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days. She was taking ibuprofen and paracetamol over the counter for the pain. She was started on phenoxymethylpenicillin V following a diagnosis of tonsillitis.The next day she presents with a painful rash and feels unwell. On examination, she has extensive papular and plaque lesions. On palpation the papules desquamate. What is this sign called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nikolskys sign
Explanation:The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorder, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points are left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve
Explanation:The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the first symptom or sign of a congenital cataract in a 1-year old?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A strabismus
Explanation:The most obvious sign of a congenital cataract in a child less than 1 year would be a strabismus/squint. A 12 month old child is unable to complain of loss of visual acuity and the child is likely to see well in one eye ruling out clumsiness. Amblyopia may also be difficult to test at this age unless it presents with the strabismus. ‘White’ red reflexes usually only present in very mature congenital cataracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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An 8 year old boy presented with easy bruising following falls. FBC showed leucocytosis and thrombocytopenia with normal haemoglobin levels. His ESR was high and Paul-Bunnell test was positive. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glandular fever
Explanation:Glandular fever (Infectious Mononucleosis) is caused by Epstein–Barr virus (EBV). Leucocytosis rules in infectious mononucleosis and thrombocytopenia is not an uncommon association. ESR is elevated in most of the cases. Paul-Bunnell test is a rapid test for infectious mononucleosis due to Epstein–Barr virus (EBV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal trauma
Explanation:Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital ptosis
Explanation:A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with reduced responsiveness and muscle rigidity. His mother reports that he attended a rave and came home euphoric, ataxic, and experiencing multiple hallucinations.Which of the following illicit substances is the most likely to have been consumed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:The given presentation is highly suggestive of withdrawal effect of ketamine.Ketamine is known for its unique property of inducing dissociative anaesthesia. Emergence phenomenon (as seen in the child in question) is an adverse effect that occurs during recovery from dissociative anaesthesia. The components of emergence phenomenon include a euphoric state associated with hallucinations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh and a hyperpigmented, rhabdoid whorl rash. She has a history of seizures since she was three years old and warts similar to the one she has now. Family history reveals the mother had two in utero stillbirths. The doctor observes small vesicles on the anterior surface of her left wrist. Other findings include mild scoliosis, thin wiry hair, and peg-shaped teeth. Her gait is normal and she is otherwise healthy. Ruth Griffiths score reveals a reduced sub quotient in terms of social skills, performance, and language and hearing skills. The doctor takes a biopsy sample which shows many intradermal eosinophils in the absence of inflammatory cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incontinentia pigmenti
Explanation:Incontinentia pigmenti is a genetic condition that affects females more than males. It usually manifests in the skin but can affect other parts of the body as well. It presents with a blistering rash that may evolve into wart-like growths. Hyperpigmentation and hair loss are also present, as well as eye and teeth abnormalities. Clinically there are three phases: 1- the bullous phase – crops of vesicles appear in the first 2 weeks of life|2- the papular phase – warty papules that flatten out over the skin| and 3- the hyperpigmented phase – pigmentary changes in the form of whorls and streaks that are hypo- and hyperpigmented in nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Examination confirms the finding and petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx are observed. Splenomegaly is seen on systemic examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infection with Epstein Barr virus
Explanation:Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infectionThe Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:fever,fatigue,swollen tonsils,headache, andsweats,sore throat,swollen lymph nodes in the neck, andsometimes an enlarged spleen.Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 37
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his blood sugar level was high this morning.The boy was diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 6, following which his sugars have been under control with insulin. His mother insists that his mental, social, and physical development were all normal for his age.His is currently on a basal-bolus regime, where he takes insulin glargine at 9 pm every evening. What is the most likely explanation for the pattern shown by the boy's blood sugars?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dawn phenomenon
Explanation:The patient’s sugar levels typically show the Dawn phenomenon.Dawn phenomenon:This is an early morning rise in blood glucose levels secondary to a rise in hormones that increase blood glucose levels. The question suggests that he is undergoing a pubertal growth spurt, suggesting that an increase in these hormones is what has led to the higher morning glucose levels.Other options:- Inactivity at night-time: It is expected, and insulin dose should be adequate despite inactivity during the night.- Inadequate bedtime insulin: It is possible that this is a contributing factor. However, inadequate background insulin is also likely to result in high blood glucose in the day, which the question does not suggest.- Somogyi effect: There are no features suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycaemia that can cause the Somogyi effect.- Nocturnal glycogenesis: Glycogenesis would result in hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Regarding crossover trials, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are best for assessing the efficacy of different treatments in giving short-term relief of chronic conditions
Explanation:Crossover trials are characterized by the switching of study participants throughout the treatment groups, keeping a random order of switching. This randomization is important to determine any carry-over effect of different treatment modalities. The benefit of this study is the evaluation of the efficacy of various short-term treatment options for the relief of chronic conditions. The washout period is small in this type of study. Crossover studies are more efficient than the parallel studies, but they should be used according to the treatment options and outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial ultrasound
Explanation:The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a large green vomit. The baby was born by forceps delivery following non-reassuring CTG trace. There was meconium-stained liquor just before delivery. Respiratory rate is 60/min, heart rate is 180/min and oxygen saturations are 94% in room air. On examination baby appears quiet with mild nasal flaring. There are no other signs of increased work of breathing. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally. CRT is <2 seconds centrally and baby feels warm peripherally. Abdomen is slightly distended and baby desaturates to 80% on abdominal palpation. What is the most important diagnostic test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper GI contrast study
Explanation:Bilious (green) gastric aspirate or emesis indicates that the intestines are obstructed below the ampulla of Vater.Gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is actually considered an essential diagnostic and therapeutic technique. Upper GI endoscopy in neonatal age allows for exploration of the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum| instead lower GI endoscopy easily reaches the sigmoid-colon junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident. A diagnosis of splenic laceration was made, and a splenectomy was performed. Which among the following blood film findings is not a feature associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation:Hyposplenism is associated with thrombocytosis. Other features of hyposplenism are: – Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytosis, occurring secondary to haemolysis.- Pappenheimer bodies: These are granular deposits of iron found within the RBCs.- Lymphocytosis and monocytosis.Causes for hyposplenism include:- Congenital asplenia- Iatrogenic splenectomy: Following trauma or treatment for ITP, thalassemia or spherocytosis).- Autosplenectomy: Secondary to sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, essential thrombocythemia or splenic arterial thrombosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 9 years of age
Explanation:Precocious Puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in males is testicular enlargement, followed by growth of the penis and the scrotum at least a year after. Precocious puberty in boys in uncommon and usually has an organic cause leading to excess secretion of testosterone. These can be gonadotrophin dependent in the case of an inter cranial lesion, where the testes would be bilaterally enlarged, or from excess production from the adrenal gland in the case of adrenal hyperplasia or a tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. On examination, palpation of the left lower quadrant of the abdomen elicits pain in the right lower quadrant. What is this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rovsing's sign
Explanation:Based on the findings presented, the sign elicited is Rovsing’s sign.Rovsing’s sign:It is a sign suggestive of appendicitis. A positive sign is determined when palpation in the left lower quadrant of a patient’s abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.Other options:- Murphy’s sign is positive in gallbladder inflammation. With the upper border of the examiner’s hand in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen under the rib cage, the patient is asked to inhale. Inhalation causes the gallbladder to descend, which catches on the fingers, causing pain.- Cullen’s sign is suggestive of ectopic pregnancy or acute pancreatitis and describes the bruising around the umbilicus.- Tinel’s sign is positive in those with carpal tunnel syndrome. The examiner’s fingers tap the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum, which causes paraesthesia over the distribution of the median nerve.- Battles’ sign describes bruising behind the ear, suggesting a basal skull fracture of the posterior cranial fossa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor skills would NOT be expected of a 3-year-old?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catching a bounced ball
Explanation:Milestones of 3 years old:Social and Emotional:Copies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/Communication:Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns door handle Movement/Physical Development:Climbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and down stairs, one foot on each step
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old visibly anxious female, known to have HIV, presents to the clinic with blurring of vision and blind spots in her field of vision. Her last CD4 count was reported to be 45 cells/mL. Which of the following complications of HIV has most likely occurred that has resulted in her ocular damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:The most common etiological agent for retinitis in HIV infected patients is cytomegalovirus (88.63% of retinitis in HIV/AIDS patients). Most patients have a CD4 lymphocyte count less than 50/μL, which can represent the susceptibility to this type of retinitis when lymphocyte count falls below this threshold. The treatment consists of systemic intravenous administration of Ganciclovir or Foscarnet at a first stage of induction, followed by the maintenance treatment with oral administration of Ganciclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 46
Incorrect
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In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and oedema. On cardiac auscultation, he has a displaced apical beat laterally and a profound right ventricular heave. On lung auscultation, he has bilateral basal crackles. X-ray of the chest reveals gross cardiomegaly. Heart ultrasound shows mitral valve prolapse. Finally, ECG shows a prolonged and widened QRS complex with a short PR interval. Doctors establish the diagnosis of a right bundle branch block with a dominant R wave in V1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type A Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (WPWS)
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a pre-excitation syndrome characterised by re-entry tachycardia that most commonly presents as a recurrent supraventricular tachycardia. ECG will show a short PR interval and a prolonged QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial X ray
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a P-value of 0.001.Which one of the following statements can be deducted from this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The difference would have occurred by chance for a study of this size only once in 1000 times if the two regimes did not differ in their effect
Explanation:The P value is defined as the probability under the assumption of no effect or no difference (null hypothesis), of obtaining a result equal to or more extreme than what was actually observed. The P stands for probability and measures how likely it is that any observed difference between groups is due to chance. Being a probability, P can take any value between 0 and 1. Values close to 0 indicate that the observed difference is unlikely to be due to chance, whereas a P value close to 1 suggests no difference between the groups other than due to chance. Thus, it is common in medical journals to see adjectives such as “highly significant” or “very significant” after quoting the P value depending on how close to zero the value is.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Make a tower out of 9 bricks
Explanation:3-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalCopies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/CommunicationFollows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handle Movement/Physical DevelopmentClimbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and downstairs one foot on each step
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered from recurrent epistaxis for the past 2 weeks. Renal biopsy showed crescentic glomerulonephritis. Which antibody would you expect to be positive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antiproteinase 3
Explanation:This patient has pulmonary renal syndrome which is most commonly due to an ANCA positive vasculitis. The history of recurrent epistaxis makes Wegener’s granulomatosis the most probable diagnosis. Wegener’s granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis, and idiopathic pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (NCGN) are strongly associated with antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCAs) directed against either proteinase 3 (anti-PR3) or myeloperoxidase (anti-MPO).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT team
Explanation:Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis
Explanation:The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty.While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume
Explanation:In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement| the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.The causes of hypertrichosis include:- Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.- Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.- Porphyria cutanea tarda- Anorexia nervosa
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old teenage girl presents with a systolic blood pressure of 170 mmHg in all four limbs. Femoral pulses are palpable. Physical examination revealed several large café-au-lait patches and axillary freckling. The girl’s father died of intracerebral haemorrhage associated with hypertension at the age of 50. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of hypertension in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:The patient shows features of neurofibromatosis. The most likely cause for hypertension in this patient would be renal artery stenosis.Note:Neurofibromatosis is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder which could have affected this girl’s father, and she appears to have the classic skin lesions. A renal bruit might be heard in these patients. Polycystic kidney disease can occur in association with tuberous sclerosis, which also has skin lesions associated (different from those described in this patient). Most causes of hypertension in childhood have underlying renal causes, and a renal ultrasound with doppler is the first-line investigation of choice. Even if this is normal, further imaging would be indicated here, for example, isotope renal scans and angiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found to be 5 days pregnant. The fertilized tissue is at which stage of development?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blastocyst
Explanation:Time- EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a minor fall. He was initially unable to bear weight on his legs but after ibuprofen he can walk and run with a minor limp. X-ray of the leg shows no abnormality. However, ten days later a repeat x-ray is done due to persistent limp and it reveals a spiral fracture. How do you explain this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delayed periosteal reaction
Explanation:A periosteal reaction can result from a large number of causes, including injury and chronic irritation due to a medical condition such as hypertrophic osteopathy, bone healing in response to fracture, chronic stress injuries, subperiosteal hematomas, osteomyelitis, and cancer of the bone. This history is consistent with a toddler’s fracture. Here a minor, usually twisting, injury results in a spiral fracture of the tibia. An initial X-ray may appear normal as the periosteum holds the bone together preventing displacement. Ten days later a repeat X-ray will show callous formation and confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the community clinic with constipation. During the examination, she goes into a seizure. The physician carries her to the treatment room and administers oxygen. After 5 minutes, the fits continue, and there is lack of buccal midazolam. Which of the following would be the best strategy in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam
Explanation:Diazepam given rectally may be helpful in treating prolonged convulsions outside and within hospital when intravenous injection is not possible. A rectal dose of 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 10 mg) of injectable diazepam, undiluted or diluted with a 50% propylene glycol solution, can stop seizures in up to 80% of children. There are few adverse reactions. Seizures in children usually cease spontaneously within 5-10 minutes and are rarely associated with significant sequelae. The chance of a seizure stopping spontaneously decreases significantly after 10-15 minutes. Similarly, the efficacy of anticonvulsant medication decreases after 10-15 minutes of fitting and the risk of adverse effects increases. Convulsive seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes constitute status epilepticus and may be complicated by cardio respiratory depression and brain injury. Diazepam or clonazepam, given intravenously, is generally the drug of choice for the emergency treatment of convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous diazepam may be difficult to administer to the young convulsing child and, because of the need for intravenous access, is not ideal for rapid treatment in the community by non-medical carers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foreign body
Explanation:Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 63
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He finds it harder to climb stairs or stand from a sitting position. Medical history reveals he received all his vaccinations and had chickenpox 5 years ago. Family history reveals that the father of his mother had a similar condition but died from an accident at 32 years of age. Clinical examination reveals normal cranial nerve function as well as cognitive and mental functions. He also has a normal height. However, although he has normal tone and reflexes in all his limbs, he experiences proximal weakness in his legs and arms. No muscle wasting is identified. Sensory functions are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy
Explanation:Becker’s muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive weakness and wasting of the skeletal and cardiac muscles. It is inherited and primarily affects males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 64
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with his new girlfriend during which they had sexual intercourse around ten days ago. The girlfriend's HIV status is unknown, and the patient is concerned that he might have acquired HIV. He has a blood test for a 4th generation assay, testing for HIV antibody and a p24 antigen. The results come out negative, however, HIV infection cannot be ruled out as he may be presenting in the window period. Which of the following most likely explains the pathology of the window period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies to HIV undetectable
Explanation:Any blood test used to detect HIV infection must have a high degree of sensitivity (the probability that the test will be positive if the patient is infected) and specificity (the probability that the test will be negative if the patient is uninfected). Unfortunately, no antibody test is ever 100 % sensitive and specific. Therefore, if available, all positive test results should be confirmed by retesting, preferably by a different test method. HIV antibody tests usually become positive within 3 months of the individual being infected with the virus (the window period). In some individuals, the test may not be positive until 6 months or longer (considered unusual). In some countries, home testing kits are available. These tests are not very reliable, and support such as pre and post test counselling is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A study of 500 men shows a significant correlation between their blood pressures and weights (r = 0.45, P = 0.0014).Which one of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a linear tendency for heavier men to have higher blood pressures
Explanation:The main result of a correlation is called the correlation coefficient (or r). It ranges from -1.0 to +1.0. The closer r is to +1 or -1, the more closely the two variables are related.If r is close to 0, it means there is no relationship between the variables. If r is positive, it means that as one variable gets larger the other gets larger. If r is negative it means that as one gets larger, the other gets smaller (often called an inverse correlation).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures. Cranial CT reveals various circular lesions and renal ultrasound shows discrete cysts. Family history reveals that his father has had a renal transplant and has profound acne-like spots on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis presents with the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. They may appear in the brain, kidneys, skin or various other organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left side of his head and face. His left eye is red and he scores 7/10 on pain assessment. The headache develops suddenly and unexpectedly after he returns from school. He has a history of six such episodes this year. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches present with unilateral severe headache that may be associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms including| lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, ophthalmic injection, and occasionally, Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy with facial oedema was brought to the hospital by his parents. Renal function is normal and urinalysis revealed the presence of a profound proteinuria. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Minimal-change disease
Explanation:Minimal-change disease (MCD) refers to a histopathologic glomerular lesion, typically found in children, that is almost always associated with nephrotic syndrome. The most noticeable symptom of MCD is oedema, which can develop very rapidly. Due to the renal loss of proteins muscle wasting and growth failure may be seen in children. Renal function is usually not affected and a proteinuria of more than 40 mg/h/m2 is the only abnormal finding in urinalysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 15-month-old child is due for his measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines. He is feverish due to an acute otitis media and the mother gives a family history of egg allergy. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Defer immunization for two weeks
Explanation:Vaccines should not be given to a feverish child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly rash that is more profound on the extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. It is also found on his trunk. However, the flexor surfaces, face and neck are spared. It has been present for 4 months. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ichthyosis vulgaris
Explanation:Ichthyosis vulgaris presents clinically with xerosis, hyperkeratosis, excess scaling, keratosis pilaris, and palmar and plantar hyperlinearity. It most commonly affects the extensor surfaces of the limbs and spares flexor surfaces, the face, and the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old male presented in the OPD with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, his BP was normal. Urinalysis showed a high degree of proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Minimal change GN
Explanation:Minimal change disease is a type of glomerulonephritis that mostly affects younger children. Proteinuria is present which leads to body oedema. But in these patients blood pressure is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 17 year old female presented with irregular menstrual cycles for 4 months. On examination her weight was 85 kg and height was 145 cm. She was not on any medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:Oligomenorrhoea and BMI of 40.4 is suggestive of Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). To diagnose PCOS 2 out of following 3 criteria should be present : oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone) and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally, her mother says that she had abdominal pain, vomiting, thirst, and weight loss, and is now worried that the girl’s twin brother will present with the same illness. Which of the following represents the highest chance of the brother presenting with the same illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HLA DR3/DR4 genotype
Explanation:HLA-DR (3 and 4) have been associated with an increased risk for idiopathic diabetes mellitus.Type 1 diabetes has a high heritability compared to type 2Identical twins have a 30-50% risk if their twin has type 1 diabetes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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One of the main disadvantages of case control studies is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The potential for recall bias
Explanation:Case control studies are observational studies which retrospectively determine whether a patient might have been exposed to a risk factor for a certain disease, as compared to a control group from the general population. They can be used for a range of outcomes as well as rare diseases. One of the biggest problems with this type of study is recall bias. Research subjects may selectively remember factors that are more predictive of the disease outcome when compared to the control group. All studies should have prior power calculations before the study commences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:Changes in breast size and/or shape| asymmetric breastsPalpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrantSkin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair folliclesNipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged dischargeAxillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissueIn advanced stages: ulcerations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 16-month-old infant presented to ER with multiple bruises on his right arm. According to his mom, he has been unable to move it since yesterday and is crying more than usual. A relative attended the child while his mother was on a night shift. X-ray revealed a fracture of the right humerus, which was put in a cast. What is the next step in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit under care of paediatrician
Explanation:Certain lesions present on x-ray are suggestive of child abuse including rib, humerus and skull fractures. It is the doctors responsibility to follow up on these cases to determine whether domestic abuse has occurred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old infant was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of excessive crying during urination. The urine culture of the infant revealed E.coli. Which of the following investigations should be done next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: US
Explanation:Urine culture confirms a diagnosis of a UTI. A kidney ultrasound will be the next best investigation because it will help us to visualise the bladder, kidneys, and ureters to rule out any congenital obstruction in the urinary tract that might be the actual cause of infection in this 2-month old girl.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histological features seen in psoriasis include acanthosis and parakeratosis
Explanation:Histology of psoriasis is characterised by parakeratosis (cell nuclei within stratum corneum) and thickened projections of the prickle cell layer of keratinocytes (psoriasiform hyperplasia or acanthosis). Orthokeratosis refers to the formation of a pathological anuclear keratin layer in the skin.The stratum granulosum is actually thinned or absent in patients with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with coeliac disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA deficiency
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with the following conditions:- Dermatitis herpetiformis- Autoimmune disorders (e.g. thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, diabetes)- IgA deficiency- Small-bowel malignancy, particularly lymphoma, if the gluten-free diet is not followed.Serology testing: The IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the most sensitive and specific, compared with the anti-endomysial antibody. However, false negatives will occur in children who are IgA-deficient, and IgA levels should be taken at the same time. Other options:Distal obstruction syndrome, meconium ileus, pancreatitis and rectal prolapse are all gastrointestinal manifestations of cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
A 10 year old child presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Oropharyngeal examination confirms this finding and you also notice petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx. On systemic examination he is noted to have splenomegaly. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection
Explanation:Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infectionThe Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:fever,fatigue,swollen tonsils,headache, andsweats,sore throat,swollen lymph nodes in the neck, andsometimes an enlarged spleen.Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right frontal lobe
Explanation:The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iritis
Explanation:The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
The parents of a 5-year-old overweight boy are concerned that the boy is 'breathing strangely' at night for the past few months now. This is associated with frequent and loud snoring. Furthermore, he seems to have sleep disturbances due to these nocturnal breathing difficulties. This, they feel, is reflected as daytime somnolence in the boy.Clinical examination reveals bilateral tonsillar hypertrophy. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for ENT opinion
Explanation:The most appropriate next step in the management would be to refer the patient for an ENT opinion. Rationale:This child has clinical signs of adenotonsillar hypertrophy, symptoms of persistent snoring and features of obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA). Suspected OSA warrants referral to an ENT specialist. Other options:- Capillary blood gas: The investigation consists of overnight oxygen saturation monitoring or polysomnography.- Chest X-ray: A chest x-ray is not indicated.- Phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is the first-line treatment for tonsillitis. However, with a history of several months and no suggestion of fever or sore throat, acute tonsillitis is unlikely.- Weight loss advice: Obesity is a risk factor for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) amongst other health problems. The child’s weight should be highlighted and advice and support for weight loss provided however referral to ENT is warranted for further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
We want to compare body mass index (BMI) values between children from several ethnic groups, taking into account differences in the age distributions of the groups.The appropriate analysis is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linear regression analysis with age and ethnicity as predictors
Explanation:Linear regression is a basic and commonly used type of predictive analysis. The overall idea of regression is to examine two things: (1) do a set of predictor variables do a good job in predicting an outcome (dependent) variable? (2) Which variables, in particular, are significant predictors of the outcome variable, and in what way do they–indicated by the magnitude and sign of the beta estimates–impact the outcome variable.These regression estimates are used to explain the relationship between one dependent variable and one or more independent variables. Three major uses for regression analysis are (1) determining the strength of predictors, (2) forecasting an effect, and (3) trend forecasting
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he was complaining of pain and swelling. The x-ray showed the classic sign of Codman's triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Codman’s triangle is the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone. The main causes for this sign are osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, eumycetoma, and a subperiosteal abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother with a history of a swelling on the right side of his neck that is extending from the angle of mouth to the middle 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid muscle. On examination the swelling was on the anterolateral aspect of the muscle and was found to be brilliantly transilluminant. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphangioma
Explanation:A lymphangioma is a swelling or mass that occurs mainly in the head, neck, and mouth. Lymphangiomas are the result of a congenital condition and are usually apparent at birth, or at least by the time a person is 2 years old. It is rare in adult population and when detected, it can be treated with surgical excision. Branchial cyst in most cases does not transilluminate which lymphangioma does.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Explanation:In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
A healthy male who has a brother with cystic fibrosis. His wife, who has no family history of cystic fibrosis, wants to know their chance of having a child affected by cystic fibrosis.What is the best estimate of the risk if the population carrier rate of cystic fibrosis is 1 in 25?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.This means that to have CF, a person must have a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene in each cell. People with CF inherit one mutated copy of the gene from each parent, who is referred to as a carrier.CF carriers can pass their copy of the CFTR gene mutation to their children. Each time two CF carriers have a child together, the chances are: 25 percent (1 in 4) the child will have CF50 percent (1 in 2) the child will be a carrier but will not have CF25 percent (1 in 4) the child will not be a carrier of the gene and will not have CFThis male’s parents are obligate carrier because he has a sibling with CFSo the chances he is a carrier too are 2 in 3The risk of having an affected child is the chance of both himself and his partner being carriers: (2/3 × 1/25 = 2/75) × 1/4 = 1/150.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis. What ocular manifestation in this boy would indicate that he has inherited the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium
Explanation:Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is one of FAP’s extra-intestinal manifestations. It appears in early childhood and affects an estimated 90% of those with FAP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte once it has entered the bloodstream?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 days
Explanation:Red blood cells (RBC) have a life span of 120 days in humans.Aging of RBC includes changes in many properties: decreased metabolic activity, morphological alterations, including decreased cell volume and changes in cell shape, and quantitative and qualitative modulations of the surface.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with a history of fainting. Physical examination shows a male habitus, height above 75th percentile, weight and occipitofrontal circumference both below 50th percentile. Pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum can be seen. Hand joints are markedly flexible, and fingers show arachnodactyly. His palate is high arched. ophthalmoscopic examination reveals ectopia lentis. On auscultation, a 2/6 soft, systolic ejection murmur can be heard at the upper right 2nd intercostal space which radiates to the carotids. BP is normal, and so are the respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations. investigations show a dilated aorta. HIs cerebral MRI scan, magnetic resonance angiography, ECG and blood tests are unremarkable. From the information provided, the boy most likely has which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Marfan syndrome are usually tall and slender, have elongated fingers and toes (arachnodactyly), loose joints, and have an arm span that exceeds their body height. Other common features include a long and narrow face, crowded teeth, an abnormal curvature of the spine (scoliosis or kyphosis), stretch marks (striae) not related to weight gain or loss, and either a sunken chest (pectus excavatum) or a protruding chest (pectus carinatum). Some individuals develop an abnormal accumulation of air in the chest cavity that can result in the collapse of a lung (spontaneous pneumothorax). A membrane called the dura, which surrounds the brain and spinal cord, can be abnormally enlarged (dural ectasia) in people with Marfan syndrome. Dural ectasia can cause pain in the back, abdomen, legs, or head. Most individuals with Marfan syndrome have some degree of near-sightedness (myopia). Clouding of the lens (cataract) may occur in mid-adulthood, and increased pressure within the eye (glaucoma) occurs more frequently in people with Marfan syndrome than in those without the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume
Explanation:Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4–6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 6 month old infant has developed jaundice from breast milk. He is otherwise healthy with no signs of dehydration. His LFTs will most likely show which of the following pattern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is a type of jaundice associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth. The condition can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It’s safe to continue breast-feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pin point pupils
Explanation:Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis
Explanation:The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 5 week old boy presents with a history of jerky movements involving both upper and lower limbs. The parents admit that this happens 2-3 times during sleep, without waking him up. He feeds well and doesn’t seem to cry more than normally. He was a term baby, born without any perinatal complications. The neurological examination turns out normal. Parents worry he has seizures as they have a 3 year old nephew with epilepsy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus
Explanation:Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus is a condition characterised by neonatal onset myoclonic jerks during NREM. Characteristic for this disorder is the absence of electroencephalographic findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to the physician after his teachers complained of his dropping grades. On clinical examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease. The ultrasound reveals cirrhosis and the blood ceruloplasmin levels are low. Wilsons disease is suspected. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in addition to the above findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kayser–Fleischer rings
Explanation:A minority of affected individuals may experience severe liver failure. This happens most frequently in people with Wilson’s disease during adolescence and more commonly in women. These individuals may rapidly develop signs and symptoms of liver disease, often associated with anaemia due to breakdown of red blood cells (haemolysis) and mental confusion. In some patients, liver disease does not reveal itself, and the patient develops neurologic (brain-related) symptoms. Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity. Almost all affected individuals with the neurological symptoms of Wilson’s disease have Kayser-Fleischer rings in their eyes that can be identified by a slit lamp examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their son might have delayed puberty. On examination, he has very little pubic hair and the testicular volume is 3ml. Bilateral gynaecomastia is also observed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:The most overt phenotypic features of Klinefelter syndrome are caused by testosterone deficiency and, directly or indirectly, by unsuppressed follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones. Affected men typically have (in decreasing order of frequency): infertility, small testes, decreased facial hair, gynecomastia, decreased pubic hair, and a small penis. Because of their long legs, men with Klinefelter syndrome often are taller than predicted based on parental height. Body habitus may be feminized. In childhood, when there is a relative quiescence in the hormonal milieu, ascertainment of the syndrome may be difficult because the effects of hypogonadism (i.e., small external genitalia and firm testes) may be subtle or not present at all.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococci viridans
Explanation:Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 107
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of easy fatiguability and severe headaches. She also complains of irregular and sporadic periods. During the examination, you notice behavioural traits that suggest a deterioration in peripheral vision. An eye exam confirms bitemporal hemianopia. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain reveals a large non-functional pituitary tumour. Which structure does the tumour exert pressure on to cause her visual symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:Bitemporal hemianopia is a characteristic finding seen in patients with optic chiasm lesion.The pituitary gland is situated within the pituitary fossa. Just above the pituitary fossa is the optic chiasm and so any expanding masses from the pituitary gland commonly press on it, causing bitemporal hemianopia.Other options:- Compression of the optic nerve would not cause more severe, generalised visual loss. Also, the optic nerve is not anatomically related to the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour.- The optic tract is again not closely anatomically related with the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour. Also, damage to the optic tract on one side would cause homonymous hemianopia.- The lateral geniculate nucleus is a centre of cells in the thalamus and is unlikely to be compressed by a pituitary tumour. Its function is to convey sensory information from the optic tract to more central parts of the visual pathway.- The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is located at the level of the superior colliculus in the midbrain and so may not be compressed by an enlarging pituitary tumour.Other visual defects:- Left homonymous hemianopia: It is the visual field defect to the left, due to the lesion of the right optic tract.- Homonymous quadrantanopias are seen in parietal (inferior homonymous quadrantopia) and temporal lobe lesions (superior homonymous quadrantopia). Mnemonic: PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, and conversely, an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.Incongruous defects suggest an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest optic radiation or occipital cortex lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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Which one of the following fulfils the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is groin freckling and a plexiform neurofibroma
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disease caused by the mutation of the neurofibromin gene on Chromosome 17. The diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 are two or more of the following:-6 or more cafe au lait macules-2 or more cutaneous neurofibroma or one plexiform Neurofibroma-Axillary of groin freckling -Optic pathway glioma -2 or more Lisch nodules (hamartomas of the iris seen on slit lamp examination)-Bony dysplasia (such as sphenoid wing dysplasia, bowing of the long bones, or pseudarthrosis)-First degree relative with neurofibromatosis type 1
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full term by normal vaginal delivery weighing 3.48kg and has been breastfed since birth. She has now lost 11% of her birth weight and bilirubin is above the phototherapy line. On examination, her fontanelle is soft, CRT<2 seconds, she is active and alert. U&Es have been sent, and the sodium on a blood gas is 144. You have started phototherapy, but still, need to make a plan about fluids and feeding. Mother wants to continue breastfeeding but is also happy to introduce some formula milk. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer NG or cup feeds alongside breastfeeding
Explanation:Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 111
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy presents with tonsillitis, from which he has suffered three times last year. His symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy and a sore throat. What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol/ibuprofen
Explanation:NICE does not recommend the use of antibiotics or tonsillectomy in this case. Paracetamol/Ibuprofen are indicated as they provide antipyretic action and analgesia. Indications for tonsillectomy are 5 or more episodes of acute sore throat/year, symptoms present for at least 2 years, symptoms are severe enough to disrupt a child’s social life. Indications for antibiotics are features of marked systemic upset secondary to the acute sore throat, unilateral peritonsillitis, history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, acute tonsillitis with 3 or more of the following: history of fever, tonsillar exudates, no cough and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 113
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Itchy skin conditions include:Allergy & anaphylaxisAthletes footAtopic dermatitisContact dermatitisDrug allergyErythema multiformeFolliculitisImpetigoInsect bites, stings, infestationsKawasaki diseaseLichen planusNummular eczemaPityriasis roseaPsoriasisScabiesTinea corporisToxic epidermal necrolysisUrticariaVaricellaViral exanthemNote: Miliaria rubra is itchy, miliaria profunda usually isn’t.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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When sampling patients for a clinical trial the most important thing is that:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are a random and representative sample
Explanation:The selection process is based on five requirements and essentially aims to select a random representative cohort through:1.Isolating a group for which there is a greater or lesser chance of detecting a possible difference between the treatments compared|2.Establishing a homogeneous group in order to reduce the variability of response, thus making statistical comparison more sensitive and decreasing the risk of bias due to the constitution of non-homogeneous groups|3.Obtaining representative samples of the affection studied|4.Defining the rules corresponding to realistic recruitment|5.Respecting ethical obligations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep' pain during intercourse and pain on defecation during this time. She states that her periods are regular with little bleeding.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavityAbout one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:- Dysmenorrhea- Heavy or irregular bleeding- Pelvic pain- Lower abdominal or back pain – Dyspareunia- Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation- Bloating, nausea, and vomiting- Inguinal pain- Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency- Pain during exercise- Patients with endometriosis do not frequently have any physical examination findings beyond tenderness related to the site of involvement. – The most common finding is nonspecific pelvic tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling down while playing. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial XR
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following blood results: Na=135 mmol/l K=2.3 mmol/lUrea=2.0 mmol/lCreatinine 30 µmol/lP=0.8 mmol/lBicarbonate=17 mmol/lCa=2.5 mmol/lAdditionally, urinalysis reveals 1+ glucose and 1+ protein. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fanconi tubular syndrome
Explanation:Fanconi tubular syndrome is characterised by malabsorption of various electrolytes and substances commonly absorbed by the proximal tubule. Hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is usually present. Also, urinalysis reveals an increased fractional excretion of glucose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 122
Incorrect
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Which of the following are not a recognized feature of Down's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ataxic gait
Explanation:Ataxic gait is not a direct association of Down’s syndrome. All other given responses are associated with Down’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he is found to have a prominent carotid pulse but a feeble femoral pulse. He was also found to be hypertensive with blood pressure in his upper limbs found to be 40 mmHg more than that of the lower limbs.Auscultation reveals an ejection-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge and the left interscapular area and an audible ejection click at the apex.An ECG reveals features suggestive of mild left ventricular hypertrophy and a chest X-ray reveals mild cardiomegaly with notches on the lower surface of the 3rd, 4th and 5th ribs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the clinical scenario provided is coarctation of the aorta. It contributes to about 4% of all congenital heart disease and is more prominent in males than females.It is associated with trisomy 13 and 18, Turner syndrome, valproate toxicity as well as ventricular septal defects, persistent ductus arteriosus, mitral valve abnormalities and berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis. Other associated cardiac abnormalities include a bicuspid aortic valve (50%), mitral valve disease, aortic regurgitation (20%) and subaortic stenosis. Ninety-eight per cent of coarctations occur at the level of the pulmonary artery after the subclavian artery. It is for this reason that, on observation, the proximal blood pressure varies compared with the distal blood pressure. The blood pressure in the right arm is often higher than that in the left arm. Clinically, these children present with hypertension, prominent carotid pulses, radio-femoral delay, left ventricular hypertrophy and an ejection systolic murmur maximum over the posterior left interscapular area. An apical click over the aortic valve may be heard. Coarctation of the aorta may be simple (post-ductal), or complex (pre-ductal or with a septal defect), and may be associated with aortic stenosis, transposition of the great arteries or a bicuspid aortic valve. The ECG and chest radiograph may be normal. However, as the child enters the first decade, evidence of cardiomegaly, congestive heart failure, post-stenotic dilatation with a dilated subclavian artery and rib notching may be noticed. The ECG may show right ventricular hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy in infancy and right axis deviation. Complications of coarctation of the aorta include left ventricular failure, cerebral haemorrhage, aortic dissection, renal vascular stenosis and infective endocarditis. This condition may result in death due to an aortic aneurysm or rupture in the third or fourth decade of life. It may also cause premature ischaemic heart disease as a result of hypertension. If left untreated, 20% of individuals die before 20 years of age and 80% before 50 years of age. Treatment options include surgical balloon dilatation or the grafting of a subclavian flap, and should surgical correction not normalise the blood pressure, further medical management is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 124
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jaundice
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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Which of the following does NOT cause benign intracranial hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Benign intracranial hypertension is characterized by an elevation of the CSF pressure that is not caused by hydrocephalus or any space-occupying lesion. The cause is most likely the decreased absorption of CSF into the dural sinuses. The main symptoms are headache and visual abnormalities. It can lead to blindness if not managed on time. The most important risk factors for BIH are female gender and obesity. The causes of BIH include iron deficiency anaemia, sarcoidosis, Lyme disease, SLE, polycythaemia vera, chronic kidney disease, meningitis, and sleep apnoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 126
Incorrect
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Primary amenorrhea is caused by all of the following EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:Primary amenorrhea is defined as the total absence of menarche in a girl of 14 years of age if the secondary sexual characteristics are also absent or in a girl of 16 years of age in whom normal secondary sexual characteristics are present. There are multiple causes of primary amenorrhea, but the most common are constitutional delay, imperforate hymen, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypothalamic failure, and testicular feminization. Cushing’s syndrome leads to secondary amenorrhea, which is defined as the absence of a menstrual period for 6 consecutive cycles in a girl who has achieved menarche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus about two weeks ago and started on an insulin pump. Which of the following complications is least likely to occur due to the treatment modality adopted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipoatrophy
Explanation:Among the given options, lipoatrophy takes time to develop as it is a long-term complication of insulin therapy. Since it has only been two weeks since the initiation of insulin therapy, it is unlikely to occur so early.The risk of lipoatrophy is reduced with newer insulins and also can be avoided by site rotation.However, anaphylaxis, allergic reactions, infection and abscesses at the site of an insulin pump can occur in this patient as a complication of insulin therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: From the splenic flexure to the first third of the rectum
Explanation:The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum. The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum. The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery. The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch nodules of the iris. What is the most likely sign to observe on examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary freckles
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a common autosomal dominant disease. The Lisch nodule represents one of the most common NF1 ocular manifestations.NF1 is caused by a genetic mutation which can cause tumours to grow on nerve endings| these cutaneous neurofibromas are benign tumours which grow on the skin, often first appearing during the hormonal changes that occur in teenage years. They vary in size and can appear anywhere on the body. The number of neurofibromas present differs greatly between individuals and over a lifetime Café au lait spots (coffee coloured birthmarks) are often the first and most common sign of NF1, and these are often found at birth and are usually evident by 2 years of age.Other features of NF1 can include Lisch nodules of the iris (small pigmentation in the iris which causes no disturbance to vision), skin-fold freckling (freckling/pigmentation in the groyne and armpits), plexiform neurofibromas (or sub cutaneous neurofibromas) which are diffuse tumours that grow along a nerve and are found in at least 25 % of people with NF1, optic gliomas (tumour of the optic nerve), and skeletal complications including pseudarthrosis and scoliosis. Macrocephaly (large head size) is also common, and short stature is found in around a third of people with NF1. Rare complications include a risk of malignancy, organs being compromised by neurofibromas, seizures, and hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has noticed that the boy has become tired quicker than normal for the past two months. She also noticed a reduction in the boy's appetite. He no longer enjoys football and often complains of aches and pains. He has a faint rash on his arms and has to 'climb up' his legs to get up from a supine position.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatomyositis
Explanation:The clinical presentation and way the boy ‘climbs up’ his legs to get up from a supine position (Gowers’ sign) suggests proximal muscle weakness secondary to dermatomyositis.Dermatomyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that typically presents between the ages of five years and ten years. The onset is insidious, and the proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase might be mistaken for muscular dystrophy. However, the systemic illness and rash are characteristic features of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke criteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is caused by a bacterial, or fungal infection which damages the heart’s endothelium and can thus lead to changes in heart function, valve incompetencies, possible cardiac failure, as well other associated skin and organ changes. Organisms common in IE include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridians. The HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species) are common in neonates. The Duke criteria uses 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria to diagnose infective endocarditis. Major criteria include:- a positive blood culture and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include: – evidence of predisposition (a heart condition of injection drug use)- a fever- vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions- immunologic phenomena such as Osler’s nodes and Roth’s spots| and- microbiological or serological evidence of active infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 10 hour old baby who was born by emergency caesarean section, is being observed for foetal distress. She has a displaced apex beat and decreased air entry on the left side of her chest. A scaphoid abdomen is seen on abdominal examination but all else is unremarkable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation:Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic herniaCongenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) occurs when the diaphragm muscle — the muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen — fails to close during prenatal development, and the contents from the abdomen (stomach, intestines and/or liver) migrate into the chest through this hole.Examination in infants with congenital diaphragmatic hernias include the following findings:Scaphoid abdomenBarrel-shaped chestRespiratory distress (retractions, cyanosis, grunting respirations)In left-sided posterolateral hernia: Poor air entry on the left, with a shift of cardiac sounds over the right chest| in patients with severe defects, signs of pneumothorax (poor air entry, poor perfusion) may also be foundAssociated anomalies: Dysmorphisms such as craniofacial abnormalities, extremity abnormalities, or spinal dysraphism may suggest syndromic congenital diaphragmatic herniaIleal atresia is a congenital abnormality where there is significant stenosis or complete absence of a portion of the ileum. There is an increased incidence in those with chromosomal abnormalities. Ileal atresia results from a vascular accident in utero that leads to decreased intestinal perfusion and subsequent ischemia a segment of bowel. This leads to narrowing, or in the most severe cases, complete obliteration of the intestinal lumen. In the postnatal period, an abdominal radiograph will show air in the dilated loops of proximal bowel. An ileal atresia is often discovered prenatally at a routine prenatal ultrasound scan or following the development of polyhydramnios. On ultrasound, there is frequently a proximal dilated intestinal segment.Meconium Ileus (MI) is a condition where the content of the baby’s bowel (meconium) is extremely sticky and causes the bowel to be blocked at birth. In most cases the bowel itself is complete and intact but it is just the inside that is blocked.In some cases there has been a twist of the bowel before birth, which has caused the bowel to be blind ending (an atresia). Most babies with meconium ileus (90%) have Cystic Fibrosis (CF) and it is this that has caused the sticky meconium. Meconium ileus is a rare condition affecting only 1 in 25,000 babies. There is normally a delay in your baby passing meconium (black sticky stool normally passed within 24 hours of delivery) and your baby may also be reluctant to feed and may vomit a green fluid called bile which would normally pass through the bowel.Your baby may be uncomfortable because of constipation and trapped air in the bowel and the abdomen (tummy) will become distended. Some babies present at delivery with a distended abdomen and may be unwell due to infection around the bowel.Pyloric stenosis is a problem that affects babies between birth and 6 months of age and causes forceful vomiting that can lead to dehydration. It is the second most common problem requiring surgery in new-borns. The lower portion of the stomach that connects to the small intestine is known as the pylorus. In pyloric stenosis, the muscles in this part of the stomach enlarge, narrowing the opening of the pylorus and eventually preventing food from moving from the stomach to the intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on paracetamol 4 hours ago. She has also consumed a large amount of alcohol. Her plasma paracetamol concentration is only just below a level which requires treatment. From the list of options, choose the most appropriate treatment option for this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to psychiatry ward
Explanation:As her paracetamol level is under the required treatment threshold, she requires no medical treatment. However, she has taken a simultaneous drug overdose and excessive alcohol consumption. These two factors together require psychiatric evaluation and so she should be referred to the psychiatry ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child is admitted with generalised oedema, albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidaemia. The renal biopsy is normal. What would you expect to see on electron microscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
Explanation:The child has nephrotic syndrome which is most commonly caused by minimal change nephropathy in this age group. The condition presents with fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells under the microscope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow crusted lesions. Her mother complains that the child has been experiencing chronic diarrhoea and recurrent skin infections. She is non-febrile, but her growth chart is highly suggestive of failure to thrive.The constellation of symptoms present in this child suggests which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leiner's disease
Explanation:Based on the patient’s presentation, he’s probably suffering from Leiner’s diseaseLeiner’s disease is a severe generalised form of seborrhoeic dermatitis. It is also associated with recurrent diarrhoea, recurrent skin and internal infections, and failure to thrive.Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common and self-limiting condition in childhood. Lesions affect the scalp (cradle cap), and sometimes the ear, nose, and eyebrows. It is characterised by greasy yellow or yellow-brown scales.There is an association with Malassezia, and the lesions are a reaction to this yeast, rather than caused by it.It is most common in the 6-12 month age group. Simple brushing with a soft bristle brush, use of oil or emollient, and ketoconazole 2% shampoo are all treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall health is normal and clinical examination reveals no discharge, hearing loss or fever. Just by looking at it, the pinna of the ear looks swollen and red. Also, pushing the tragus leads to pain. Otoscopy reveals an erythematous external auditory canal and an otherwise healthy tympanic membrane. The bony external canal courses through which bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal bone
Explanation:The external auditory canal (EAC) extends from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. Its lateral portion is fibrocartilaginous and its medial portion is bony. Its bony portion is formed by the tympanic portion of the temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 6 month old baby presents with uncontrollable movements of her hands and feet, shortly after being unconscious for a while. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infantile spasm
Explanation:Infantile spasm belongs to the spectrum of seizure disorders. Infantile spasm manifests itself with loss of consciousness and jerky movements. The peak age of onset is between 4 and 6 months. Approximately 90% of infantile spasms begin before 12 months of age. It is rare for infantile spasms to begin during the first 2 weeks of life or after 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A normal 6-month-old child is NOT expected to do which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sit unsupported for 10 minutes
Explanation:Milestones of 6 monthsSocial and EmotionalKnows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/CommunicationResponds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with the parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical DevelopmentRolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding this treatment, which of the following statements is the most applicable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during and 1 month after treatment
Explanation:It is recommended that a woman wait one month after stopping isotretinoin before trying to become pregnant. Usually, isotretinoin is no longer found in a woman’s blood 4-5 days after the last dose and most of its by-products should be gone within 10 days after the last dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit
Explanation:The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
A dental surgeon infiltrates local anaesthetic at the mandibular foramen to carry out a block of the right inferior alveolar nerve. Which of the following might occur as a result of the procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Numbness of the lower teeth on the right side
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve supplies all the teeth of the respective hemimandible. It transverses the inferior alveolar canal and is a branch of the trigeminal nerve’s mandibular division. Therefore, in this case, the teeth of the right hemimandible will be numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 145
Incorrect
-
A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a left sided cataract after an ophthalmoscopic exam. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Hyperthyroidism is the least likely cause of cataract development as all of the other mentioned options can lead to eye problems. Asthma and crohn’s can lead to steroid induced cataract formation, while trauma to the eye can cause traumatic cataracts to develop afterwards. JIA often leads to uveitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by which of the following tests?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: US
Explanation:Blood tests do not help in the diagnosis of jaundice except of course by telling the level of jaundice (bilirubin) and providing some corroborative evidence such as autoantibodies, tumour markers or viral titres in the case of hepatitis. Classifying causes of jaundice on the basis of ultrasound provides a quick and easy schema for diagnosing jaundice which is applicable in primary care as well as hospital based practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
Regarding normal gross motor development of a 3-year-old child, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A child age three should be able to throw a ball both under and over hand
Explanation:A three-year child’s typical developmental milestones include walking up and down the stairs with alternating feet, jumping in a place with two feet together, and jumping forward for about 2 feet. The child can pedal a tricycle and can throw a ball over and underhand. An average child should start walking around 12-14 months of age and should be investigated as early as 18 months if they do not begin to walk. Skipping can be done by a child of 5 years of age. A child of 6-7 years of age can ride a bike with stabilizers and can balance on one foot for 20 seconds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 148
Incorrect
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What would you administer to a child with a clean wound that has never been immunized before, assuming there is no contraindication to immunization?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full course of diphtheria, tetanus, polio
Explanation:A not immunized patient with a clean wound requires an immediate vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus and polio, according to the Green Book of Immunisation against infectious disease. (The Green Book has the latest information on vaccines and vaccination procedures, for vaccine preventable infectious diseases in the UK.)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hairStage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majoraStage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curlyStage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighsStage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrophage
Explanation:The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
Basophils are not present.
The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Odds ratio
Explanation:A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Affected individuals typically have small gonads
Explanation:Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when a chromosome from paternal chromosome 15q is deleted or unexpressed during the formation of the egg or sperm, or in embryonic development. Individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, and in this case on the paternal gene remains active in parts of the brain and other organs. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Angelman’s syndrome. Symptoms seen in Prader-Willi range from poor muscle tone during infancy to developmental and cognitive delays. Many individuals suffer from hypogonadism that affects fertility in both males and females. In Angelman’s syndrome the maternal chromosome 15q is unexpressed. The condition is also called happy puppet syndrome as affected children present with a happy demeanour, ataxic gait, and flapping movements of the limbs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Hypercalcemia refers to increased serum calcium levels and is characterized by a number of significant constellations, including polyuria, muscle weakness, abdominal pain, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias. The causes of hypercalcemia can be classified as PTH-dependant causes and PTH-independent causes. The causes can be both congenital and acquired. The most common cause of PTH-dependent hypercalcemia is the primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, resulting from parathyroid gland tumours. Hyperparathyroidism is also associated with chronic renal failure. PTH-independent hypercalcemia is caused by William’s syndrome, hypervitaminosis (vitamin A and D intoxication), endocrinopathies (hyperthyroidism), various drugs (thiazide diuretics), and some inborn errors of metabolism. One of the congenital causes of PTH-independent hypercalcemia is idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas
Explanation:History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 155
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, vomiting and constipation. Her parents notice that she has been eating substances like soil, soap and paper recently. Her blood count and peripheral smear examination reveal a microcytic-hypochromic anaemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is lead poisoning.Lead poisoning: While it is not common, it can be potentially fatal. One of the key presenting features here is pica, the ingestion of non-nutritive substances such as soil, soap, paper or wood. Pica can also be observed in children in iron-deficiency anaemia, developmental delay and pregnancy. However, in a child who is exposed to lead in their environment (e.g. from lead paint or pipes), lead poisoning is most likely. It is commonly associated with iron deficiency which in turn increases the lead absorption. Treatment is either with oral D-penicillamine or intravenous sodium calcium edetate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
What is the most probable diagnosis in an infant with persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia and positive urine ketones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maple syrup urine disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient is Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD).Note:- Healthy new-borns have blood sugars between 3.3 and 5 mmol/L- Neonatal hypoglycaemia is glucose < 2.2 mmol/L if measured in the first 3 days of life.- Neonatal hypoglycaemia is glucose < 2.5 mmol/L after the first 3 days of life.Causes of persistent hypoglycaemia include:- Preterm- IUGR- SGA- Hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome- Hypoxia at birth- Sepsis- Cardiopulmonary disease- Inborn errors of metabolism- Hepatic enzyme deficiencies- Glycogen storage disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hypothyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.Rationale:The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation. In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A patient has been diagnosed with severe haemophilia B (factor IX level <1%).What is the mode of inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-linked recessive
Explanation:Haemophilia A and haemophilia B are inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes associated with these conditions are located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. In males (who have only one X chromosome), one altered copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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An abnormal red reflex is NOT a characteristic feature of which of the following ocular pathologies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amblyopia
Explanation:The red reflex examination is an important part of the paediatric ocular assessment. The red reflex is abnormal in conditions like retinoblastoma, retinopathy of prematurity, cataract, and retinal detachment. Amblyopia is a cortical developmental disorder that results in defective visual inputs to both the eyes. The disorder occurs during the cortical plasticity stage of embryonic development. The red reflex is normal in this case since there is no hindrance to the reflection of light from the ocular media and fundus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with signs and symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Liver function tests reveal raised unconjugated bilirubin levels. Subsequent genetic testing led to a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason for the unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in Gilbert's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that results from defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronyl transferase – 1. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.The clinical presentation of Gilbert’s syndrome include:- Unconjugated hyperbilinaemia- Jaundice can occur during an intercurrent illnessManagement:Blood investigations usually reveal a rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or intravenous nicotinic acid.No treatment required for these patients.Other options:- CYP2C9 deficiency causes reduced warfarin metabolism, and subsequent enhanced drug effects. – Pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption and certain drugs are common causes of raised GGT levels- Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin is related to the pathophysiology of Dubin-Johnson syndrome- Reduced CYP2C19 levels can lead to the disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs such as proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants and sedatives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks
Explanation:The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy was discharged from hospital after an episode of acute testicular pain.Considering he had an anatomical anomaly involving the processus vaginalis, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Based on the presented clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for the patient would be testicular torsion.Rationale:The gubernaculum is the structure responsible for aiding the descent of the testicles from the abdomen into the scrotum. The processus vaginalis precedes the descent of the testes and then undergoes closure. Abnormalities such as the persistence of a patent processus vaginalis, known as bell clapper deformity, predispose to testicular torsion.Other options:- Varicocele: Nutcracker syndrome occurs where the left renal vein becomes compressed in between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. Since the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein, this results in a varicocele. – Epididymitis and mumps orchitis are differentials for acute testicular pain but are not due to a defect in the processus vaginalis. – An incarcerated inguinal hernia presents mainly with signs of bowel obstruction which are not mentioned in the clinical scenario.The descent of testes:- Until the end of foetal life, the testicles are located within the abdominal cavity. – They are initially located on the posterior abdominal wall on a level with the upper lumbar vertebrae (L2). – Attached to the inferior aspect of the testis is the gubernaculum testis which extends caudally to the inguinal region, through the canal and down to the superficial skin. – It is interesting to note that both the testis and the gubernaculum are extra-peritoneal.- As the foetus grows, the gubernaculum becomes progressively shorter. It carries the peritoneum of the anterior abdominal wall (the processus vaginalis). As the processus vaginalis descends the testis is guided by the gubernaculum down the posterior abdominal wall and the back of the processus vaginalis into the scrotum.- By the third month of foetal life the testes are located in the iliac fossae, by the seventh they lie at the level of the deep inguinal ring.Usually, the processus vaginalis closes after birth but may persist predisposing to indirect hernias. On the other hand, a partial closure may result in the development of cysts on the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Target cells
Explanation:The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of malaise and inability to participate in physical activities due to exhaustion. His vitals, including the blood pressure are within the normal range and the labs are as follows: sodium 145 mmol/lpotassium 2.8 mmol/lbicarbonate 30 mmol/lchloride 83 mmol/l (95-107)magnesium 0.5 mmol/l (0.75-1.05)glucose 5.0 mmol/lrenin 5.1 mmol/ml per h (3-4.3)aldosterone 975 mmol/l (330-830)urea 5.2 mmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gitelman’s syndrome
Explanation:Gitelman syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes an imbalance of charged atoms (ions) in the body, including ions of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.The signs and symptoms of Gitelman syndrome usually appear in late childhood or adolescence. Common features of this condition include painful muscle spasms (tetany), muscle weakness or cramping, dizziness, and salt craving. Also common is a tingling or prickly sensation in the skin (paraesthesia), most often affecting the face. Some individuals with Gitelman syndrome experience excessive tiredness (fatigue), low blood pressure, and a painful joint condition called chondrocalcinosis. Studies suggest that Gitelman syndrome may also increase the risk of a potentially dangerous abnormal heart rhythm called ventricular arrhythmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy was brought to the ED in an unconscious and apnoeic state. What is your immediate management of this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secure airway
Explanation:ABC : Airway, breathing, circulation is the order of assessment in any patient that is unconscious and apnoeic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 17 year old patient, who reports to the clinic following an apparent transient ischaemic attack, is demonstrated to have a small right homonymous hemianopia with partial sparing of central vision.Where is the lesion most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occipital cortex
Explanation:The most common cause of homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a stroke. In this condition there is bitemporal field loss. Lesions posterior to the optic chiasm, in the brain parenchyma are most likely to be the cause of the HH. In this case the retention of central vision indicates that the area of injury may be in the occipital cortex, sparing the occipital pole. The occipital pole receives sensory fibres from the macular, and has a dual blood supply protecting it from total infarction. Lesions of the optic tract can be ruled out as these cause total vision loss in the affected eye. Parietal or temporal nerve lesions cause affect the inferior and superior parts of the visual field respectively causing homonymous quadrantinopias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level
Explanation:A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Explanation:Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)
Explanation:Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A short 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has pulmonary stenosis.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Noonan's syndrome
Explanation:Noonan syndrome is a condition that affects many areas of the body. It is characterized by mildly unusual facial features, short stature, heart defects, bleeding problems, skeletal malformations, and many other signs and symptoms.People with Noonan syndrome have distinctive facial features such as a deep groove in the area between the nose and mouth (philtrum), widely spaced eyes that are usually pale blue or blue-green in colour, and low-set ears that are rotated backwards. Affected individuals may have a high-arched palate, poor teeth alignment, and micrognathia. Many children with Noonan syndrome have a short neck, and both children and adults may have excess neck skin (also called webbing) and a low hairline at the back of the neck.Between 50 and 70 % of individuals with Noonan syndrome have short stature. At birth, they are usually a normal length and weight, but growth slows over time. Individuals with Noonan syndrome often have either a pectus excavatum or pectus carinatum. Some affected people may also have scoliosis.Most people with Noonan syndrome have some form of critical congenital heart disease. The most common heart defect in these individuals is pulmonary valve stenosis. Some have hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.A variety of bleeding disorders have been associated with Noonan syndrome. Some affected individuals have excessive bruising, nosebleeds, or prolonged bleeding following injury or surgery. Rarely, women with Noonan syndrome who have a bleeding disorder have excessive bleeding during menstruation (menorrhagia) or childbirth.Adolescent males with Noonan syndrome typically experience delayed puberty. They go through puberty starting at age 13 or 14 and have a reduced pubertal growth spurt that results in shortened stature. Most males with Noonan syndrome have undescended testes (cryptorchidism), which may contribute to infertility (inability to father a child) later in life. Females with Noonan syndrome can experience delayed puberty but most have normal puberty and fertility.Most children diagnosed with Noonan syndrome have normal intelligence, but a few have special educational needs, and some have an intellectual disability. Some affected individuals have vision or hearing problems. It has been estimated that children with Noonan syndrome have an eightfold increased risk of developing leukaemia or other cancers over age-matched peers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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Advanced paternal age is a risk factor for which of the following diseases?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma
Explanation:Advancing paternal age has been linked with lower quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility and an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents to her OBGYN after getting pregnant. It is evaluated that she is 13 days pregnant and the fetal tissue has just undergone implantation. Where in the uterus does implantation usually take place?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior or superior walls
Explanation:Time and EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth philtrum. He was monitored closely throughout pregnancy for intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR) and a ventricular septal defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome
Explanation:Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a common yet under-recognized condition resulting from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is based on findings in the following 3 areas: (1) characteristic facial anomalies (see image below), (2) growth retardation (intrauterine growth restriction and failure to have catch-up growth), and (3) CNS involvement (cognitive impairment, learning disabilities, or behavioural abnormalities).Key characteristic craniofacial abnormalities include the following:- Smooth philtrum- Thin, smooth vermilion border of the upper lipShort palpebral fissures (< 10th percentile for age)Other craniofacial abnormalities are as follows:- Midface hypoplasia- Microphthalmia- Strabismus- PtosisCNS and neurobehavioral abnormalities include the following:- Microcephaly- Intellectual impairment (mild-to-moderate mental retardation)- Cognitive impairment- Developmental delay- Irritability in infancy- Hyperactivity in childhood or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)- Seizures- Delayed or deficient myelination- Agenesis or hypoplasia of the corpus callosumSkeletal abnormalities include the following:- Radioulnar synostosis- Flexion contractures- Camptodactyly- Aberrant palmar creases, especially hockey-stick palmar crease- Clinodactyly- Klippel-Feil anomaly- Hemivertebrae- Scoliosis- Dislocated jointsOther major congenital anomalies include the following:- Cleft palate- Heart defects- Renal anomalies- DiGeorge sequenceFunctional problems include the following:- Refractive problems (e.g., myopia, astigmatism)- Hearing lossGrowth deficiency includes the following:- Infant small for gestational age (< 10th percentile for weight or length)- Postnatal growth deficiency
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child who has been developing normally until the age of 18 months, is now being investigated for developmental delay. The girl started losing her acquired skills and stopped walking. During the clinical examination she is holding her hands together and twisting and turning them. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Rett syndrome is a disorder that affects the brain and occurs most commonly in girls. It presents with a period of normal development followed by severe problems with language and communication, learning, coordination, and other brain functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers of her school have brought to their attention that she struggles to see the whiteboard in class. The parents have also noticed that she has difficulty when looking at the computer.Except for being a nervous reader at times, the parents haven't noticed anything else unusual. She's otherwise healthy and plays well with her friends.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refractive error
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the child most probably is suffering from a refractive error.Astigmatism, myopia and high hypermetropia could all cause these symptoms. This child has difficulty in using vision for finer tasks such as reading. Mild to moderate refractive error would not impair the child’s ability to play or even watch television as for the child in question. Note: Refractive error is the most common treatable cause of reduced vision in children all over the world! Other options:- A congenital cataract is rare and retinal dystrophy is even rarer. – Amblyopia would suggest poor vision in only one eye, something that might not cause symptoms in this age group. – Parents or teachers would have probably noticed squint if it was present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot
Explanation:Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water scalding injury to his hand. On examination, his hand appears to be white but he does not complain of any pain. What is the explanation for the absence of pain in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurones
Explanation:The clinical scenario provided is highly suggestive of third-degree burns (or full-thickness burns) that may have invaded the deeper levels up to dermis, evident from the insensate nature of the lesion.Degrees of Burns:- First degree burns are superficial second-degree burns.- Second-degree burns are just deeper than that of first-degree burns but vary enormously in other properties.- Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns which are leathery in consistency, and insensate. These burns do not heal on their own. The sensory neurons present in the skin at the deeper levels are destroyed completely and hence provide a paradoxical lack of pain.- Fourth-degree burns involving the subcutaneous tissues, tendons, and bones are very difficult to manage.Assessment of the extent of the burns for the treatment employs specialized charts, such as Lund and Browder charts and Wallace rule of nines.The Lund and Browder chart is, however, considered the most accurate.Wallace’s Rule of Nines can be used for children >16 years: – Head + neck = 9%- Each arm = 9%- Each anterior part of leg = 9%- Each posterior part of leg = 9%- Anterior chest = 9%- Posterior chest = 9%- Anterior abdomen = 9%- Posterior abdomen = 9%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 17-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother with complaints of poor feeding and tachypnoea a week after experiencing a coryzal illness. His cardiac examination is unremarkable apart from a third heart sound being present. His chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly and bilateral interstitial shadowing. Blood investigations, renal function, and anti-streptolysin O test (ASCOT) are all within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coxsackie myocarditis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis based on the clinical presentation is myocarditis secondary to Coxsackie virus infection.Myocarditis is an important cause of acquired heart failure. The other infective causes of myocarditis are influenza and adenoviruses, and bacterial causes as seen with Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease). Rheumatic fever is unlikely if the ASO titres are within normal limits. While pancarditis may occur as part of Kawasaki disease| the patient is unlikely to present in failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem does she have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of factor IX
Explanation:Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is due to a deficiency in factor IX. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency in factor VIII.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sleep alarms
Explanation:As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are concerned that he is shorter than the other boys at school, despite having attained puberty. His father is 1.70 m tall, and his mother is 1.50 m tall. Given his parents height, what is his adult height potential?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.67 m
Explanation:The adult height potential may be calculated for a male child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then add 7 cm.In the scenario provided: (170 + 150)/2 + 7 = 167 cm = 1.67 m.For a female child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then minus 7 cm.This can then be plotted on a height centile chart to find the mid-parental centile.Causes of short stature include:- Normal variant (often familial)- Constitutional delay of growth and puberty- Chronic illness, e.g. cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease- Endocrine: growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, steroid excess syndromes: Turner’s, Down’s, Prader-Willi- Skeletal dysplasias, e.g. achondroplasia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: von Willebrand disease type II
Explanation:Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances| Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side
Explanation:The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 187
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast-bud development
Explanation:The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12–18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9–14 years, and is complete at 12–16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11–15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10–13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duct dependent congenital heart disease
Explanation:Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born is secondary to the failure of normal circulatory transition at birth, leading to an abnormally high pulmonary vascular resistance. This elevated resistance causes right-to-left shunting of blood and hypoxemia. It can be caused by parenchymal lung diseases (meconium aspiration syndrome, pneumonia or ARDS), lung hypoplasia (like occurring in oligohydramnios or diaphragmatic hernia), or it can be idiopathic. Other possible causes include maternal indomethacin use, group B streptococcal septicaemia, and high-pressure ventilation. Duct dependent congenital heart disease does not lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Periventricular cerebral calcifications are an associated feature
Explanation:One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. The infection is even commoner than the other widely known diseases like down’s syndrome and spina bifida. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5 and is diagnosed using PCR of saliva. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is diagnosed at birth with marked neurological disability, resulting from microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, and cerebral atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies with respiratory distress syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:A preterm with respiratory distress syndrome presents with the condition as a result of immature lungs and inadequate surfactant production. Management of RDS therefore includes surfactant therapy, oxygen administration and mechanical ventilation, as well as measures such maintaining acid base levels and blood haemoglobin in an intensive care unit. Dexamethasone is not shown to be particularly effective when given to a preterm, but can however be used to prevent or decrease RDS severity when given to the mother before delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and bloody diarrhoea. Examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Explanation:Answer: Inflammatory bowel diseaseThe inflammatory bowel diseases (IBDs), including ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease, are chronic inflammatory disorders of the gastrointestinal tract most often diagnosed in adolescence and young adulthood, with a rising incidence in paediatric populations. Inflammatory bowel disease is caused by a dysregulated mucosal immune response to the intestinal microflora in genetically predisposed hosts. Although children can present with the classic symptoms of weight loss, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhoea, many present with nonclassical symptoms of isolated poor growth, anaemia, or other extraintestinal manifestations.Colorectal Carcinoma (CRC) is rare in patients less than 20 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with mild abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant for the last four months. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a 7cm simple ovarian cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional ovarian cyst. Ovary sparing cystectomy
Explanation:The most prudent course of action in the given clinical scenario is an ovary-sparing cystectomy. The history is 3-months and is already chronic. Furthermore, the cyst is greater than 5cm in size and at risk of torsion. This will relieve the cause of pain, reduce the risk of torsion and save ovarian function.Other options:- This is a simple cyst and not a malignancy, so imaging and referral are not indicated.- Open oophorectomy was done in the past. However, this is very aggressive, and the modern approach is ovary-sparing.- As the cyst is 7cm and at risk of torsion, conservative management is not appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midgut
Explanation:From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes a water deprivation test. Previous urine dipstick results were negative for blood, glucose, or protein. The test is started and once the girl loses 3% of her body weight, her serum osmolarity is more than 300 whereas her urine osmolarity is less than 300. Doctors administer desmopressin but osmolarity levels do not change. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Explanation:Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is an acquired or hereditary condition that affects the water balance. It presents with polyuria and polydipsia, leading commonly to dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is usually associated with lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Eczema herpeticum (also called Kaposi varicelliform eruption) is a disseminated viral illness usually associated with lymphadenopathy.It is most often caused by Herpes Simplex type 1 or type 2. Occasionally, other viruses such as coxsackievirus A16 may cause eczema herpeticum. Affected children usually develop itchy blisters and fever after coming in contact with an affected individual who may or may not display cold sores.It is characterised by an itchy and sometimes painful cluster of blisters most commonly on the face initially. This spreads over one to several weeks resulting in further crops of blisters which can become confluent. Lymphadenopathy and fever are common in these patients.The severity varies from mild illness to life-threatening, especially in immunocompromised children or young infants. It is markedly more common in children with atopic dermatitis. It is one of the few dermatological emergencies, and oral antivirals are often indicated. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be needed if there is eyelid or eye involvement. Occasionally, superadded skin infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blast cells
Explanation:Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age| a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts| pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache and has developed diffuse raised oedematous papules. These lesions are typical of erythema multiforme. Which one of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lesions will heal without scarring
Explanation:Erythema multiforme lesions typically heal without scarring. Other options:- In erythema multiforme, lesions are typically symmetrical and acral, i.e. on the hands, feet and limbs. – HSV is a common cause of erythema multiforme in children, accounting for at least 50% of cases| the lesions typically have damaged skin in the centre and are dusky and bullous (in contrast to urticaria, where the centre of the lesion is normal).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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Which of the following is responsible for the closure of the ductus arteriosus at birth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:The ductus arteriosus is normally patent during fetal life| it is an important structure in fetal development as it contributes to the flow of blood to the rest of the fetal organs and structure. From the 6th week of fetal life onwards, the ductus is responsible for most of the right ventricular outflow, and it contributes to 60% of the total cardiac output throughout fetal life. Only about 5-10% of its outflow passes through the lungs.This patency is promoted by continual production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) by the ductus.In the foetus, the oxygen tension is relatively low, because the pulmonary system is non-functional. Coupled with high levels of circulating prostaglandins, this acts to keep the ductus open. The high levels of prostaglandins result from the little amount of pulmonary circulation and the high levels of production in the placenta.At birth, the placenta is removed, eliminating a major source of prostaglandin production, and the lungs expand, activating the organ in which most prostaglandins are metabolized. In addition, with the onset of normal respiration, oxygen tension in the blood markedly increases. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases with this activity.Normally, functional closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs by about 15 hours of life in healthy infants born at term. This occurs by abrupt contraction of the muscular wall of the ductus arteriosus, which is associated with increases in the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) coincident with the first breath. A preferential shift of blood flow occurs| the blood moves away from the ductus and directly from the right ventricle into the lungs. Until functional closure is complete and PVR is lower than SVR, some residual left-to-right flow occurs from the aorta through the ductus and into the pulmonary arteriesA balance of factors that cause relaxation and contraction determine the vascular tone of the ductus. Major factors causing relaxation are the high prostaglandin levels, hypoxemia, and nitric oxide production in the ductus. Factors resulting in contraction include decreased prostaglandin levels, increased PO2, increased endothelin-1, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, bradykinin, and decreased PGE receptors. Increased prostaglandin sensitivity, in conjunction with pulmonary immaturity leading to hypoxia, contributes to the increased frequency of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature neonates.Although functional closure usually occurs in the first few hours of life, true anatomic closure, in which the ductus loses the ability to reopen, may take several weeks. The second stage of closure related to the fibrous proliferation of the intima is complete in 2-3 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents with offensive stool, clubbing of fingers, and recurrent chest pain. Choose the single most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweat test
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a progressive, genetic disease. A defective gene causes a thick, sticky build-up of mucus in the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps bacteria leading to infections, extensive lung damage, and eventually, respiratory failure. In the pancreas, the mucus prevents the release of digestive enzymes that allow the body to break down food and absorb vital nutrients. Since the digestive enzymes are not being made, the food is not completely digested making them bulky, smelly, and hard to flush away. Finger clubbing is a prominent feature of cystic fibrosis on most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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