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Question 1
Correct
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A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:- A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels- Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:- A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?
Your Answer: Mumps - 14-18 days
Explanation:The incubation periods of disorders is extremely important to diagnose, treat, prevent or attenuate a disease. Chickenpox: 7-21 days. Whooping cough: 10-14 days. Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days. German measles: 14-21 days. Mumps: 14-18 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome?
Your Answer: Fetal loss in the first trimester is common
Explanation:Turners syndrome is a chromosomal syndrome affecting the development of females. In this condition, all or part of the X chromosome gets deleted, producing the Karyotype 45 XO or 45XO/46XX. Spontaneous foetal loss is common in the first trimester, but foetuses which survive are born small for date, and may have lymphedema, and poor feeding in the neonatal period. These patients face numerous medical and developmental problems throughout their lifetimes including growth and puberty failure due to premature ovarian failure/ hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. However spontaneous puberty can be seen in up to 20% of females with Turner’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:
Your Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left side of his head and face. His left eye is red and he scores 7/10 on pain assessment. The headache develops suddenly and unexpectedly after he returns from school. He has a history of six such episodes this year. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tension headache
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches present with unilateral severe headache that may be associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms including| lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, ophthalmic injection, and occasionally, Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?
Your Answer: Normotension and bradycardia
Correct Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia
Explanation:Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department with colicky pain. The boy has experienced such episodes of pain in the past, which radiates from his loin to the groin. After clinical examination and investigations, a 7mm stone has been found in his ureter. What is the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
Correct Answer: Conservative treatment
Explanation:Renal stones < 5mm generally pass spontaneously with adequate fluid intake. Stones 5mm-10mm with pain not resolving, require medical expulsive therapy with Nifedipine or Tamsulosin. For stones larger than 10mm, ESWL or Ureteroscopy is indicated. For stones as big as 2cm, percutaneous nephrolithotomy should be applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by a worried mother who complains that he's still unable to walk. On observing the child on the ground in a supine position, you notice the following events:First, the child rolled into prone, extended his arms and legs far apart. With the trunk weight resting on the extended arms, he pushed the body backward to shift the weight of the trunk over the extended legs.Realizing what you just observed, which among the following is the most important test you would recommend?
Your Answer: Urine for amino and organic acids
Correct Answer: Creatinine kinase
Explanation:The most important test recommended among the given options is the measurement of creatine kinase levels.The child presents with a gross motor developmental delay, and multiple investigations can be undertaken to confirm the diagnosis. However, the clinching point in the given clinical scenario is the presence of a positive Gower’s sign.Gower’s sign is an excellent screening test for muscle weakness, which is typically observed as an early clinical feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD).Creatinine kinase measurement is an easy and rapid test to aid in the diagnosis. Early diagnosis has significant implications not only for the child but for the family, particularly for genetic counselling. DMD is an X-linked recessive disorder, with an abnormal gene at the X chromosome at the Xp21 locus. It is a progressive degenerative muscular condition where muscle fibres are replaced by fat and fibrosis (i.e., become dystrophic).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 9
Incorrect
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In a double blind trial of a new diabetes medication, 25% more in the treated group responded positively than those in the control group (95% CI 10% to 50%| P=0.004)
Your Answer: The number needed to treat (NNT) for 1 to benefit is at least 4
Correct Answer: The therapy benefits an additional 1 in 4 (95% CI 2 to 10), patients who receive it
Explanation:In the final result of this double blind study, 25% or one in four of patients who received the treatment responded positively. Though the difference is significant at P<0.05, it is better to present this as a significant difference at 0.4%. The number needed to treat (NNT) is defined as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. Taking this as 0.25 (25%), the NNT is 1/0.25 = 4. However given the 95% confidence interval is between 10-50% for absolute risk reduction, the NNT with 95% CI is between 2 and 10. Therefore we cannot say with certainty that the NNT is at least 4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of projectile, non-bilious vomiting which takes place after feeding. The baby seems to have a normal appetite but hasn’t gained weight. You suspect pyloric stenosis. What initial test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nothing, as pyloric stenosis can only be diagnosed at the age of 8 weeks old
Correct Answer: Capillary blood gas
Explanation:One of the features of pyloric stenosis is hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. In emergency settings, capillary blood gas is the easiest and fastest way to establish a sustainable suspicion of pyloric stenosis. However, all tests are useful for the diagnosis of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?
Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Answer: RicketsRickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person. The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily| the child’s walk may look different (waddling)skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spinedental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavitiespoor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than averagefragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture. Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?
Your Answer: Lyme disease
Explanation:Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests. Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis.On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg.Investigations show:Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600)Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20)Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20)Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450)Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22)TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pregnancy
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg. He is otherwise well with no fever or history of trauma. Clinical examination reveals limited limb motion due to the pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osgood–Schlatter disease
Correct Answer: Perthes’ disease
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is a disease of the hip in children. It presents with pain that is typically located in the groin area. The pain is often present only during physical activity. Most children seek medical attention because of limping.
Osgood–Schlatter disease is pain caused by inflammation of the patella tendon at the tibial insertion.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis occurs classically in adolescence (M:F = 3:2)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which among the following is a common feature of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis (Still's disease)?
Your Answer: Normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct Answer: Negative rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Still’s disease is a rare systemic disorder that accounts for 10% of cases of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). The aetiology is unknown. It affects boys and girls equally up to the age of five years of age, following which, girls are more commonly affected. Clinical features of this disease include:- Fever- Maculopapular rash- Myalgia- Generalised lymphadenopathy- Hepatosplenomegaly- Pericarditis and pleuritis Laboratory investigations reveal raised ESR and CRP. There can also be coexisting neutrophilia and thrombocytosis. Anti-nuclear autoantibodies and rheumatoid factor are usually negative in patients with Still’s disease.On the rare case that they are present, their titres are generally low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually appear in the evening. The episodes started 6 months ago and the pain presents on both sides of the head. He perceives it as a “tight” feeling. His overall health is normal and he admits to be able to continue his daily activities regardless of the pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Migraine without aura
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Tension headache presents with pain that is pressing or tightening in quality, mild or moderate, and located bilaterally. It usually does not get worse with activities and may last from minutes to weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?
Your Answer: Tethered spinal cord syndrome
Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele
Explanation:Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?
Your Answer: 15-20%
Explanation:Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?
Your Answer: Toxoplasma gondii
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases?
Your Answer: Norovirus
Explanation:Certain infections and medications cause characteristic skin lesions, which are the result of hypersensitivity reactions to these agents. A skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like circular lesions is referred to as erythema multiforme. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting with a propensity for distal extremities. The most common infectious cause is the infection with herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Other notable infectious causes of erythema multiforme include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, cytomegalovirus, HIV, hepatitis c virus, varicella zoster virus, adenovirus, and some fungal infections. Norovirus infection has not been implicated in the aetiology of erythema multiforme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal| however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?
Your Answer: Capillary blood gases
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody diarrhoea. What is the most probable aetiology?
Your Answer: Threadworm infestation
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157
Explanation:The most likely organism is enterohemorrhagic verotoxin-producing E.coli. It usually causes haemolytic uremic syndrome.
Crohn’s disease rarely manifests in an acute manner.
Polio and giardiasis usually manifest with non-bloody diarrhoea.
Thread worms don’t always cause symptoms, but people often experience itchiness around their bottom or vagina. It can be worse at night and disturb sleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 5 month old girl was admitted to the emergency department with reduced movement of her right arm. History reveals she was born at term, 4.5 kg and via natural delivery. Her mother reports her head was stuck for a while before she was fully delivered. Postnatal examination revealed reduced movement of her right arm as well but was thought to improve over time. The baby cannot sit and her right arm is flaccid, internally rotated, adducted, and extended. The reflexes are absent in the right arm. Which of the following investigations would provide the most useful information?
Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies
Correct Answer: MRI scan
Explanation:The vignette describes an infant with a sustained post-delivery brachial plexus injury that does not improve with time. MRI is the most appropriate intervention to assess the injury and evaluate the treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for a child who has repeated UTIs?
Your Answer: Toilet training
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics
Explanation:Prophylactic antibiotics should be given to the child to avoid infections and renal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome
Explanation:Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 26
Correct
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A 15-month-old child is due for his measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines. He is feverish due to an acute otitis media and the mother gives a family history of egg allergy. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: Defer immunization for two weeks
Explanation:Vaccines should not be given to a feverish child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 27
Correct
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A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?
Your Answer: Increase delta P
Explanation:The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the garden. She is unvaccinated as the parents are concerned regarding side effects. There is no contraindication to vaccinations. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: Give complete DPT vaccine course
Explanation:A complete course of DPT should be given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on regular check-up and was subsequently referred to a cardiologist. A thorough physical examination reveals long upper extremities with thin slender fingers, with a high arched palate and excessive ligamentous laxity. Her thumb can be bent back easily to touch her radius. ECG reveals sinus bradycardia that is consistent with aerobic conditioning. She also had an echo done. In reference to her most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most serious cardiac complication associated to this condition?
Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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