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  • Question 1 - A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth...

    Correct

    • A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth philtrum. He was monitored closely throughout pregnancy for intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR) and a ventricular septal defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a common yet under-recognized condition resulting from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is based on findings in the following 3 areas: (1) characteristic facial anomalies (see image below), (2) growth retardation (intrauterine growth restriction and failure to have catch-up growth), and (3) CNS involvement (cognitive impairment, learning disabilities, or behavioural abnormalities).Key characteristic craniofacial abnormalities include the following:- Smooth philtrum- Thin, smooth vermilion border of the upper lipShort palpebral fissures (< 10th percentile for age)Other craniofacial abnormalities are as follows:- Midface hypoplasia- Microphthalmia- Strabismus- PtosisCNS and neurobehavioral abnormalities include the following:- Microcephaly- Intellectual impairment (mild-to-moderate mental retardation)- Cognitive impairment- Developmental delay- Irritability in infancy- Hyperactivity in childhood or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)- Seizures- Delayed or deficient myelination- Agenesis or hypoplasia of the corpus callosumSkeletal abnormalities include the following:- Radioulnar synostosis- Flexion contractures- Camptodactyly- Aberrant palmar creases, especially hockey-stick palmar crease- Clinodactyly- Klippel-Feil anomaly- Hemivertebrae- Scoliosis- Dislocated jointsOther major congenital anomalies include the following:- Cleft palate- Heart defects- Renal anomalies- DiGeorge sequenceFunctional problems include the following:- Refractive problems (e.g., myopia, astigmatism)- Hearing lossGrowth deficiency includes the following:- Infant small for gestational age (< 10th percentile for weight or length)- Postnatal growth deficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother following complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother following complaints of fatigue. Considering a possible diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia, blood investigations, including a peripheral smear, were ordered. The reports confirmed iron deficiency anaemia. Which of the following abnormal red cell types is likely to be seen in the peripheral smear of this patient?

      Your Answer: Tear drop poikilocytes

      Correct Answer: Pencil cells

      Explanation:

      A peripheral blood film in iron deficiency anaemia can reveal the following morphologically variant RBCs:- Microcytic cells- Hypochromic cells- Pencil cells- Target cellsOther options:- Schistocytes can be caused by mechanical heart valves. – Rouleaux can be seen in chronic liver disease and malignant lymphoma. – Tear-drop poikilocytes can be seen in myelofibrosis. – Acanthocytes can be seen in liver disease and McLeod blood group phenotype.Pathological red cell forms include:- Target cells: Sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease.- Tear-drop poikilocytes: Myelofibrosis- Spherocytes: Hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anaemia- Basophilic stippling: Lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia- Howell-Jolly bodies: Hyposplenism- Heinz bodies: G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemiaSchistocytes (‘helmet cells’): Intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation- Pencil poikilocytes: Iron deficiency anaemia- Burr cells (echinocytes): Uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency – Acanthocytes: Abetalipoproteinemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A normally developed 4-year-old would be expected to do which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A normally developed 4-year-old would be expected to do which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Dress and undress unaided

      Correct Answer: Copy a cross

      Explanation:

      4-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalEnjoys doing new things Plays “Mom” and “Dad” Is more and more creative with make-believe play Would rather play with other children than by himself Cooperates with other children Often can’t tell what’s real and what’s make-believe Talks about what she likes and what she is interested in Language/CommunicationKnows some basic rules of grammar, such as correctly using “he” and “she” Sings a song or says a poem from memory such as the “Itsy Bitsy Spider” or the “Wheels on the Bus” Tells stories Can say first and last nameCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Names some colours and some numbers Understands the idea of counting Starts to understand time Remembers parts of a story Understands the idea of “same” and “different” Draws a person with 2 to 4 body parts Uses scissors Starts to copy some capital letters Plays board or card games Tells you what he thinks is going to happen next in a book Movement/Physical DevelopmentHops and stands on one foot up to 2 seconds Catches a bounced ball most of the time Pours, cuts with supervision, and mashes own food

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates...

    Correct

    • A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates milk after a feed, especially when laying on her back. Doctors suspect gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR). What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Reassure the parents

      Explanation:

      Most experts suggest that parents reassurance in case of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a sufficient initial measure that involves education about regurgitation and lifestyle changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant?

      Your Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary surfactant is a lipoprotein complex that is responsible for preventing the collapse of alveoli and increasing lung compliance.It is produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and secreted from the lamellar bodies of type 2 pneumocytes.Surfactant is essential for reducing surface tension at the air-water interface in the alveoli, thus preventing the collapse of alveoli during expiration. It is composed of dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC), which is a phospholipid.In fetal development, production of surfactant begins around 26 weeks of gestation and reaches mature levels by 35 weeks.The deficiency of surfactant can result in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome or hyaline membrane disease, particularly in premature new-born babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 12-week antenatal scan reveals a massive neck swelling in the foetus. While...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-week antenatal scan reveals a massive neck swelling in the foetus. While assessing the mother, she is found to have mild learning difficulties, short stature and a heart murmur. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is Noonan syndrome.Noonan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by short stature, heart defects (mainly pulmonary stenosis) and learning difficulties. An affected foetus can present with a significant increase in the nuchal thickness or a cystic hygroma of the neck. The condition is variable, and an affected parent is often only diagnosed after the diagnosis in the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the most common cardiac abnormality found in Noonan syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cardiac abnormality found in Noonan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is one of the most common genetic diseases associated with congenital heart defects, being second in frequency only to Down syndrome.Pulmonary stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are generally the most common congenital heart defects found in Noonan syndrome.Pulmonary stenosis is often associated with a thickened and dysplastic valve. It is usually difficult to obtain a satisfactory result using the transcatheter balloon dilatation of such dysplastic valves, so surgical intervention is more likely to be needed.Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy involves predominantly the ventricular septum as asymmetric septal hypertrophy, but may also affect the ventricular free walls. Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction may occasionally be produced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking of one arm followed by generalised shaking. A flat erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid, which has not changed in size or appearance, has been present since birth.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS), also called encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis, is a neurocutaneous disorder with angiomas that involve the leptomeninges (leptomeningeal angiomas [LAs]) and the skin of the face, typically in the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) distributions of the trigeminal nerve. The hallmark of SWS is a facial cutaneous venous dilation, also referred to as a nevus flammeus or port-wine stain (PWS).Signs and symptoms:SWS is generally diagnosed clinically, based on the typical cutaneous, central nervous system (CNS), and ocular abnormalities associated with it.Neurological signs include the following:Developmental delay/intellectual disabilityLearning problemsAttention deficit-hyperactivity disorderInitial focal seizures progressing to frequent, secondarily generalized seizuresIncreasing seizure frequency and duration despite the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)Increasing duration of a transient postictal deficitIncrease in focal or diffuse atrophy – Determined by serial neuroimagingProgressive increase in calcificationsDevelopment of hemiparesisDeterioration in cognitive functioningPhysical signs of SWS are as follows:Port-wine stainMacrocephalyOcular manifestationsSoft-tissue hypertrophyHemiparesisVisual lossHemianopsiaOcular involvement in SWS may include the following signs:BuphthalmosGlaucomaTomato-catsup colour of the fundus (ipsilateral to the nevus flammeus) with glaucomaConjunctival and episcleral haemangiomasDiffuse choroidal haemangiomasHeterochromia of the iridesTortuous retinal vessels with occasional arteriovenous communications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 14-month-old boy is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old boy is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of vomiting, abdominal pain, and rectal bleeding. On examination, he is found to be dehydrated, and a palpable abdominal mass was felt. A Meckel's scan proved to be negative. However, the ultrasound scan did reveal a target sign.What is the most probable cause of the patient's complaints?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms is intussusception.Intussusception is a condition in which part of the intestine folds into the section next to it. It most commonly involves the small bowel and rarely the large bowel. Intussusception doesn’t usually require surgical correction. 80% of cases can be both confirmed and reduced using barium, water-soluble or air-contrast enema. However, up to 10% of cases can experience recurrence within 24 hours after reduction, warranting close monitoring during this period.Other options:- Enteric duplication: a duplication cyst could give all these features, although it may contain sufficient gastric epithelium to produce a positive Meckel’s scan. However, this is comparatively rare. – Meckel’s diverticulum: Scintigraphy has poor sensitivity making the possibility of a bleed from a Meckel’s diverticulum a genuine differential for this patient. However, considering the presence of features of bowel obstruction in the patient, a Meckel’s diverticulum bleeding and obstructing at the same time would be a rare phenomenon. – Midgut volvulus: It is also a plausible differential in this patient. However, for the given age group, a midgut volvulus is relatively uncommon compared to intussusception. – Acute appendicitis: While it is true that appendicitis can present acutely with a palpable mass and bowel obstruction, it rarely presents with rectal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Café-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:
      Neurofibromatosis type I
      McCune–Albright syndrome
      Legius syndrome
      Tuberous sclerosis
      Fanconi anaemia
      Idiopathic
      Ataxia-telangiectasia
      Basal cell nevus syndrome
      Benign congenital skin lesion
      Bloom syndrome
      Chediak-Higashi syndrome
      Congenital nevus
      Gaucher disease
      Hunter syndrome
      Maffucci syndrome
      Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
      Noonan syndrome
      Pulmonary Stenosis
      Silver–Russell syndrome
      Watson syndrome
      Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the following commands would he be able to follow?

      Your Answer: Name three colours

      Correct Answer: Point to three body parts

      Explanation:

      A 2 year old child who is developing normally should be able to point to three body parts, identify familiar objects in his environment such as a crayon or a toy and follow simple instructions.At 3 years old he should be able to copy a circle, jump up and down and name three colours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient has been diagnosed with severe haemophilia B (factor IX level <1%).What...

    Correct

    • A patient has been diagnosed with severe haemophilia B (factor IX level <1%).What is the mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A and haemophilia B are inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes associated with these conditions are located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. In males (who have only one X chromosome), one altered copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells? ...

    Correct

    • Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells?

      Your Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      The central nervous system comprises of two types of cells| neurons and neuroglial cells. Glial cells are the support cells that serve a number of important functions. Three types of neuroglia comprise the mature nervous system, which are ependymal cells, microglia, and macroglia. The macroglia are of two types oligodendrocytes and astrocytes. Microglia are the neuroglial cells that serve the function of phagocytosis since they are derived from the hematopoietic stem cells and share properties with tissue macrophages. They remove the cellular debris from the site of injury or normal cellular turnover by performing scavenger function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the...

    Correct

    • A 17 year old girl presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Examination confirms the finding and petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx are observed. Splenomegaly is seen on systemic examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Infection with Epstein Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infectionThe Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:fever,fatigue,swollen tonsils,headache, andsweats,sore throat,swollen lymph nodes in the neck, andsometimes an enlarged spleen.Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer: Lactoferrin

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-1

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid is the protective liquid that surrounds the fetus in utero. It prevents the fetus from injury, protects the umbilical cord from compression, and provides necessary nutrients and a medium for growth and movement. Amniotic fluid originates from the maternal plasma initially, but by 16th week of gestation, fetal kidneys start making urine which contributes to further production of the amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid contains a number of chemical substances including hormones, tumour markers, nutrients, electrolytes, and immunoglobulins. Main substances found in amniotic fluid include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, lactoferrin, insulin-like growth factor, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, erythropoietin, etc. Interleukin-1 is not a component of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On examination, hypopigmented macules were found on her abdomen with acne-like eruptions on her face. Also, her fingers show small periungual fibrous papules. Her parents said that she has learning disabilities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville’s disease)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient, according to the clinical scenario provided is tuberous sclerosis. It is an autosomal-dominant disorder characterised by hamartomas located throughout the body, often prominently involving the central nervous system and skin. Two loci on chromosomes 9 and 16 have been identified to be associated with this condition. The condition has a variable expression and penetrance and is further characterised by:- Seizures (usually infantile spasms)- Developmental delay- Facial/cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum)- Periungual fibromas (pink projections from the nail folds)- Shagreen patches (leathery thickenings of the skin usually on the back) – Ash leaf macules (areas of depigmentation that become visible under a Wood’s light)- Fundoscopy may reveal white streaks along the fundal vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Adrenarche refers to the increase in testosterone, causing secondary sexual characteristics to develop

      Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2

      Explanation:

      Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She...

    Correct

    • A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She anxiously explained that he was not responding to loud sounds. He was vocalizing at the presentation and he had normal motor milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Arrange Hearing test

      Explanation:

      History is suggestive of a possible hearing impairment. As the baby is vocalizing and has normal motor development, an isolated hearing problem is possible. A hearing test will confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Following a urinary tract infection, which imaging modality is the best in the...

    Correct

    • Following a urinary tract infection, which imaging modality is the best in the assessment of renal scars?

      Your Answer: Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan

      Explanation:

      Renal scaring resulting from urinary tract infections can best be determined using Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scintigraphy. The scan utilises technetium-99 mixed with the DMSA which is injected into the bloodstream. The radiological dye is taken up by the kidney where it binds to the proximal convoluted tubules. It therefore detects the size, shape and position of the kidney and any scars but is not as useful in assessing dynamic renal excretion. Ultrasound scans are better suited to assess hydronephrosis and dilated ureters. MAG3 scans and MCUG are able to determine the function of kidneys and detect obstructions such as posterior urethral valves and reflux.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed...

    Correct

    • A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Foreign body

      Explanation:

      Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and...

    Correct

    • A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and is threatening preterm labour. The parents would like to know the statistics relating to survival and outcome if their baby is born at this gestation. Which particular study would be useful to review before this consultation?

      Your Answer: EPICURE

      Explanation:

      EPICure is a series of studies of survival and later health among babies and young people who were born at extremely low gestations – from 22 to 26 weeks.Boost II is a double-blind randomised controlled trial (RCT) comparing the effects of targeting arterial oxygen saturations between 85% and 89% versus 91% and 95% in preterm infants.OSCAR Xe is not the name of a study. Baby-OSCAR is an RCT to determine whether a confirmed large patent ductus arteriosus in very premature babies should be treated with ibuprofen within 72 hours of birth.SafeBoosC is a trial to examine if it is possible to stabilise the cerebral oxygenation of extremely preterm infants in the first 72 hours of life with the use of NIRS oximetry and a clinical treatment guideline. TOBY Xe is an RCT looking at the neuroprotective effects of hypothermia combined with inhaled xenon following perinatal asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer: It may be caused by enterovirus infections

      Correct Answer: Herpes virus 1 and 2, Ebstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Varicella Zoster virus are all species of Herpesviridae

      Explanation:

      Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is the name given to a distinct cutaneous eruption caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1, HSV-2, coxsackievirus A16, or vaccinia virus that infects a pre-existing dermatosis. Most commonly, it is caused by a disseminated HSV infection in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) and, for this reason, is often referred to as eczema herpeticum (EH).Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is now known to occur in children of any age and in adults, however, most patients (56%) are aged 15-24 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive...

    Correct

    • Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

      Your Answer: T cells

      Explanation:

      Patients with HIV have a deficiency of CD4 lymphocytes which are also known as helper T cells (Th). They are involved with antigen-specific responses as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity. The risk of developing P. jiroveci pneumonia is greatest with a CD4 count of 200 x 109/l or below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial septal defect and duplex kidneys and has had a successful repair of her cleft lip and palate. A cranial ultrasound scan revealed multiple choroid plexus cysts. On examination, you find a small child with micrognathia, low-set ears, and a prominent forehead and occiput. She has hypoplastic nails with an overlapping index and middle finger. Her rocker-bottom feet show no evidence of lymphoedema. Cardiovascular examination reveals a short sternum with a 2/6 pan-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge radiating to the apex. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Edward syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Edward syndrome.Edward syndrome results from trisomy 18. It is the second most common syndrome after Down syndrome. 60% of cases die within 48 hours, and 90% within the first year due to apnoeas. Cardiovascular abnormalities include atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect and a persistent ductus arteriosus. There is no association with exophthalmos, but it may occur. Right choroid plexus cysts are found on coronal imaging, and 40–70% at post mortem are shown to have multiple large bilateral choroid plexus cysts (>10 mm). These may not become pathological but usually trigger an anomaly scan. Around 1% of cases may present with only a cyst, but 4% may present with other abnormalities.Other options:- Children with the velocardiofacial syndrome have a classic facial appearance with hypertelorism, a tubular nose, a cleft lip/palate abnormality and cardiac anomalies. – Children with Patau syndrome usually present with midline defects and are less likely to have rocker-bottom feet. – Children with Treacher Collins syndrome present with abnormalities of the branchial arches and pharyngeal pouches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more...

    Incorrect

    • A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more than the current standard treatment (95% confidence interval minus 2 to 22).Which of the following statements is most accurate?

      Your Answer: A larger trial should be undertaken

      Correct Answer: The difference is not statistically significant

      Explanation:

      If the 95% confidence interval contains zero (more precisely, the parameter value specified in the null hypothesis), then the effect will not be significant at the 0.05 level.If the 95% CI for the DIFFERENCE between the 2 groups contains the value 0, this means that the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Conversely, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 0, then the p-value will be strictly less than 0.05. The same applies when comparing groups using a ratio, such as an odds ratio or risk ratio. When using a RATIO instead of a DIFFERENCE, the situation of no difference between the 2 groups will be indicated by a value of 1 instead of 0. If the ratio equals to 1, the 2 groups are equal. Hence, if the 95% CI of the ratio contains the value 1, the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Alternatively, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 1, the p-value is strictly less than 0.05.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer: 15-20%

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented with bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, and diarrhoea. On examination, a drop in heart rate and blood pressure was noted.What is the mechanism by which the substance causes these effects?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of excessive salivation and diarrhoea, along with hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction, indicates excess parasympathetic nervous system activity. The patient is showing features of acetylcholine toxicity. Pesticides typically contain organophosphates that are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction, as well as at select points in the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic acetylcholine receptors can be nicotinic (more sensitive to nicotine) or muscarinic (more sensitive to muscarine). The most relevant receptors in this scenario are the muscarinic receptors as the majority are located in the parasympathetic nervous system smooth muscle, exocrine glands, and cardiac conduction system.Other options:- Accordingly, to cause the symptoms described, there must be an abundance of acetylcholine which stimulates the muscarinic receptors to enhance the parasympathetic effects. Therefore the reduction in the formation of acetylcholine option must be incorrect as this would produce the opposite effect. – Noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, and both answer options relating to noradrenaline would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects, making them incorrect.Features can predict the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD):- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Defecation/diarrhoeaCardiovascular symptoms include hypotension and bradycardia. The patient can show associated small pupils and muscle fasciculationManagement:- Atropine- The role of pralidoxime is still unclear – meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing. A diagnosis of acute diabetic ketoacidosis was made. Which of the following regarding management is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Bolus of insulin recommended

      Explanation:

      The following methods are adopted for the treatment of DKA:

      – Fluids: Bolus of 10 ml/kg of normal saline. Stop at three boluses to avoid precipitating cerebral oedema. The remaining deficit has to be corrected over 48 hours. Strict input/output, U&E, and pH monitoring is necessary in such patients.

      – Insulin: Insulin infusion can be initiated at 0.05-0.1 unit/kg/hour. It is essential to monitor blood glucose closely, and the aim is to decrease by 2 mmol/hour.

      – Potassium: Initially, it will be high, but following insulin administration, the levels drop quickly as K+ enters cells with glucose, and thus, replacement is almost always necessary.

      – Acidosis: Bicarbonate is avoided unless pH is less than 7. Acidosis will get corrected with the correction of fluid and insulin deficits. The definitive treatment is directed towards correcting the underlying precipitants of DKA, e.g. sepsis, infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his friends after...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his friends after he collapsed at a dance club and developed jerky movements of his upper limbs. On further questioning, it is revealed that the boy has been clumsier than usual and has frequently been dropping his toothbrush while brushing his teeth in the morning. From the drugs provided below, which one should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is an epilepsy syndrome characterized by myoclonic jerks, generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCSs), and sometimes, absence seizures. The seizures of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy often occur when people first awaken in the morning. Seizures can be triggered by lack of sleep, extreme fatigue, stress, or alcohol consumption. Onset typically occurs around adolescence in otherwise healthy children. The causes of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy are very complex and not completely understood. Mutations in one of several genes, including the GABRA1 and the EFHC1 genes, can cause or increase susceptibility to this condition. Although patients usually require lifelong treatment with anticonvulsants, their overall prognosis is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with jerking movements in her limbs. This lasted for around 10 seconds, and then she fell unconscious. She soon regained consciousness - she was disorientated but afebrile with no symptoms of meningeal irritation. From the list of options, chose the most appropriate investigation route for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hour EEG

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour an epilepsy diagnosis: uncontrollable jerking of the limbs and a loss of consciousness. A 24-hour EEG is used to diagnose epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

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