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  • Question 1 - Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation? ...

    Correct

    • Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes not require annually?

      Your Answer: Retinopathy screening

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy screening need not be done on an annual basis for a 9-year-old child. Screening for diabetic retinopathy should begin at the age of 12.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike. Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking. Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born...

    Correct

    • A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born to a mother who had not booked at the hospital. Her notes are not available and she does not speak English. However, her partner has managed to communicate that Zika virus had been confirmed in pregnancy. The midwife wants to know if it is safe for the mother to breastfeed the baby in the meantime.What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Encourage breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Possible Zika virus infections have been identified in breastfeeding babies, but Zika virus transmission through breast milk has not been confirmed. Additionally, we do not yet know the long-term effects of Zika virus on young infants infected after birth. Because current evidence suggests that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of Zika virus spreading through breast milk, CDC continues to encourage mothers to breastfeed, even if they were infected or lived in or travelled to an area with risk of Zika.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      104.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that causes obstructive jaundice. Without surgical treatment, e.g. Roux-en-Y, Kasai procedure or liver transplantation, death is likely by 2 years of age. The aetiology of biliary atresia is unknown. Theories suggest a multitude of etiological and causative factors that are both genetic and acquired.The other conditions do not cause a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is NOT true of the femoral nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT true of the femoral nerve?

      Your Answer: It supplies sartorius

      Correct Answer: It supplies adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve is the main nerve supply for the thigh muscles including the pectineus, iliacus, sartorius, which flex the hip| and the quadriceps femoris made up of the rectus femoris, vests laterals, vastus medialis and vastus intermedius, which extend the knee. The nerve is derived from the L2, L3 and L4 nerve roots, and supplies cutaneous branches to the anteromedial thigh and the medial side of the leg via the saphenous nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with jaundice. His labs reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. AST, ALT, albumin and clotting are in normal range. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody level is positive. Radiological examination shows multi-focal strictures and irregularity of both intra and extra hepatic bile ducts which has resulted in a 'beads on a string' appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a long-term progressive disease of the liver and gallbladder characterized by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts which normally allow bile to drain from the gallbladder. Early cholangiographic changes can include fine or deep ulcerations of the common bile duct. As PSC progresses, segmental fibrosis develops within the bile ducts, with saccular dilatation of the normal areas between them, leading to the typical beads-on-a-string appearance seen on cholangiography. Although these strictures can be found anywhere on the biliary tree, the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts are simultaneously involved in the vast majority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A healthy 8 month old baby boy was brought in by his parents,...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 8 month old baby boy was brought in by his parents, who claimed that the baby had come into close contact with another child with measles two days ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: She should receive the MMR vaccine now together with measles immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: She should receive the MMR vaccination now

      Explanation:

      People who are at risk for severe illness and complications from measles, such as infants younger than 12 months of age, pregnant women without evidence of measles immunity, and people with severely compromised immune systems, should receive immunoglobulin. Intramuscular immunoglobulin should be given to all infants younger than 12 months of age who have been exposed to measles. For infants aged 6 through 11 months, MMR vaccine can be given in place of IG, if administered within 72 hours of exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is normotensive. Her prolactin levels are normal. She has a raised 17 α-hydroxyprogesterone level.What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete 21-hydroxylase deficiency

      Correct Answer: Partial 21-hydroxylase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase, resulting from mutations or deletions of CYP21A, is the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, accounting for more than 90% of cases.Females with mild 21-hydroxylase deficiency are identified later in childhood because of precocious pubic hair, clitoromegaly, or both, often accompanied by accelerated growth and skeletal maturation (simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia)Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency: High serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (usually >1000 ng/dL) and urinary pregnanetriol (metabolite of 17-hydroxyprogesterone) in the presence of clinical features suggestive of the disease| 24-hour urinary 17-ketosteroid levels are elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      57.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be isolated?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Measles and chickenpox are spread by droplets. Thus, patients should be isolated. Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are immune mediated diseases that don’t require isolation. Herpetic gingivostomatitis spreads by direct transmission of infected secretions to the stratified squamous epithelium. HSP is not an infectious disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 16 year old girl with a history of diabetes presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old girl with a history of diabetes presents with a vaginal discharge that is white and thick. She also complains of vaginal itchiness. Doctors suspect candidiasis and start her on clotrimazole. How does this drug work?

      Your Answer: Decreases ergosterol biosynthesis, increasing membrane permeability and disrupting membrane-bound enzyme systems

      Explanation:

      Clotrimazole interferes with the ergosterol biosynthesis by decreasing ergosteron I biosynthesis, increasing membrane permeability, and disrupting membrane-bound enzyme systems.Vaginal candidiasis is an extremely common condition. Predisposing factors include:- diabetes mellitus- drugs: antibiotics, steroids- pregnancy- immunosuppression – iatrogenic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk...

    Correct

    • A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Linear regression

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child? ...

    Correct

    • Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?

      Your Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty

      Explanation:

      Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile| periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones — General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Scarring type of alopecia occurs in which of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Scarring type of alopecia occurs in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Discoid lupus

      Explanation:

      Alopecia is a scalp condition characterized by either overall baldness or patches of hair loss over the head. It can be broadly classified as scarring alopecia and non-scarring alopecia. Non-scarring is the most common type and is seen in various conditions like nutritional deficiencies, alopecia areata, hypothyroidism, tinea capitis, and SLE. Scarring alopecia is commonly seen in cases of discoid lupus erythematosus, which is a common cause of widespread inflammatory and scarring lesions all over the body and scalp.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following...

    Correct

    • Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 15

      Explanation:

      Angelman Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The features of this condition include intellectual disability, a delay in developmental milestones, and movement disorders. The features occur as a result of the deletion or mutation of the maternal copy of the UBE3A gene located on Chromosome 15q. Though individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, only the maternal gene remains active in parts of the brain. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with reduced responsiveness and muscle rigidity. His mother reports that he attended a rave and came home euphoric, ataxic, and experiencing multiple hallucinations.Which of the following illicit substances is the most likely to have been consumed?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      The given presentation is highly suggestive of withdrawal effect of ketamine.Ketamine is known for its unique property of inducing dissociative anaesthesia. Emergence phenomenon (as seen in the child in question) is an adverse effect that occurs during recovery from dissociative anaesthesia. The components of emergence phenomenon include a euphoric state associated with hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the garden. She is unvaccinated as the parents are concerned regarding side effects. There is no contraindication to vaccinations. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Give complete DPT vaccine course

      Explanation:

      A complete course of DPT should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly suggestive of meningitis. Direct ophthalmoscopy revealed no signs of papilledema. Thus, she was planned for a lumbar puncture. What is the structure first encountered while inserting the needle?

      Your Answer: Supraspinous ligament

      Explanation:

      During lumbar puncture, the first structures encountered by the needle are skin and subcutaneous tissue. But, since they are not provided in the options, the most superficial structure after them is the supraspinous ligament.Lumbar puncture is a procedure performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid. The procedure is best performed at the level of L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace. During the procedure, the needle pierces the following structures in order from superficial to deep: Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, the epidural space containing the internal vertebral venous plexus, dura, and arachnoid, finally entering the subarachnoid space. The supraspinous ligament connects the tips of spinous processes and the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes.As the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, it causes a give. A second give is felt when the needle penetrates the dura mater and enters the subarachnoid space. At this point, clear CSF flows through the needle and can be collected for diagnostic purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the back as well as on the chest. X-ray showed a radiolucent area around the ribs indicating callus formation. Which of the following is the most important investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Skeletal survey

      Explanation:

      Because the initial chest X-ray returned an anomaly, a skeletal survey is the best option. Also known as a bone survey, the skeletal survey is a series of X-rays that will help analyse the structure of all the bones in the body. Because the child is not very active yet presents with bruising, the child protection register should also be checked but only after a skeletal survey has been conducted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through spontaneous, vaginal delivery. She had rupture of membranes 30 hours before birth, however looked healthy and did not receive antibiotics. On admission, doctors obtained a vaginal swab. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the baby?

      Your Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results

      Explanation:

      Doctors must perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results to prevent neonatal sepsis. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of the membranes. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of membranes greater than 12–24 hours, intrapartum maternal pyrexia (> 38°C), fetal tachycardia, chorioamnionitis, pre-term birth and maternal colonisation with group B Streptococcus. In this case there are two risk factors: prolonged rupture of membranes, and pre-term birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias....

    Correct

    • A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias. Which of the following abnormalities is most often associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is an abnormality of anterior urethral and penile development. The urethral opening is located on the ventral aspect of the penis proximal to the tip of the glans penis, which, in this condition, is open. The urethral opening may be located as proximal as in the scrotum or perineum. The penis may also have associated ventral shortening and curvature, called chordee, with more proximal urethral defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode of diarrhoea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli causing diarrhoea in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks....

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks. He complains of intermittent pain in his epigastrium. He is otherwise healthy with no history of vomiting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite or weight. History revealed that he has had fatigue all his life leading to him missing out on sports at regular intervals at school. His mother reports that he had two episodes of hepatitis at ages 5 and 7 years. There is no family history of jaundice. He has no significant travel history.On physical examination, yellow sclera were observed. Additionally, on abdominal examination, the splenic tip was palpable at 3 cm with some tenderness of the right upper quadrant. He was found to have mild tachycardia with normal blood pressure and no fever.Blood results:- Hb: 12.6 g/dl- MCV: 104 fL- MCHC: 38 g/dL- WBC Count: 10 x 109/L- Reticulocyte count: 148 x 109/L (Normal Range 20-100 x 109/L)- Bilirubin: 34 μmol/L- LDH: 600 lμ/L (Normal Range 230-450 lμ/l)- Direct Coomb's test: NegativeAbdominal ultrasonography revealed an enlarged spleen measuring 15 cmWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis based on the scenario provided above is hereditary spherocytosis.While jaundice and abdominal pain might make you think of hepatitis or cholecystitis in the first instance, the lack of fever suggests otherwise. The apyrexial presentation is against acute cholecystitis, and the past medical history reveals a chronic type of fatigue and two previous episodes of hepatitis. Furthermore, it is unlikely that the child has contracted infective hepatitis twice and now a third time! The most common cause of hepatitis in childhood is hepatitis A, however the lack of travel history to endemic areas makes this less likely. Hepatitis A is usually a mild, self-limiting disease that never presents with chronic symptoms. The chronicity of his fatigue and the blood results lead towards a haematological diagnosis. This is further substantiated by his low haemoglobin levels, high MCV and high reticulocyte count. Chronic haemolytic anaemia is the most likely cause, and the negative Coombs excludes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). Thus, leaving us with the answer as hereditary spherocytosis.Hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder that makes the cytoskeleton of red cells more fragile and therefore leads to red cell death and splenomegaly. Gallstones are a result of this red cell destruction and increased haem metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?...

    Incorrect

    • Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Cleft palate

      Correct Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Treacher Collins syndrome is a congenital disorder transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. The basic abnormality is the TCOF 1 gene mutation, which leads to a multitude of clinical features, of which the most striking is the symmetrical craniofacial deformities. Important clinical features include conductive deafness, coloboma of lower eyelids, cleft palate, antimongoloid (short and downward slanting) palpebral fissures, deformed or absent ears, sleep apnoea, and airway issues. Hirsutism is not a recognized feature of this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: IgA deficiency

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is associated with the following conditions:- Dermatitis herpetiformis- Autoimmune disorders (e.g. thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, diabetes)- IgA deficiency- Small-bowel malignancy, particularly lymphoma, if the gluten-free diet is not followed.Serology testing: The IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the most sensitive and specific, compared with the anti-endomysial antibody. However, false negatives will occur in children who are IgA-deficient, and IgA levels should be taken at the same time. Other options:Distal obstruction syndrome, meconium ileus, pancreatitis and rectal prolapse are all gastrointestinal manifestations of cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?

      Your Answer: Eat with fork and spoon

      Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors

      Explanation:

      At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      6.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nephro-urology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (4/5) 80%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Adolescent Health (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (0/1) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/3) 33%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Child Development (0/1) 0%
Passmed