-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes Clomiphene?
Your Answer: GnRH analogues
Correct Answer: Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator
Explanation:Clomiphene is a non-steroidal compound with tissue selective actions. It is used to induce ovulation in women who wish to become pregnant. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.
Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test
Explanation:Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
According to the WHO, maternal mortality ratio is defined as which of the following?
Your Answer: Ratio of maternal deaths to live births
Correct Answer: Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births
Explanation:The World Health Organisation defines the maternal mortality ratio as the number of maternal deaths during a given period per 100,000 live births during the same period. This measure indicates the risk of death in a single pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.
The most likely diagnosis at this time is:Your Answer: Dysthymia
Explanation:Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
The first stage of labour:
Your Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix
Explanation:First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A low APGAR score at one minute:
Your Answer: Is a useful index of resuscitative efforts
Correct Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation
Explanation:The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 25 year old primigravida with a regular cycle had her last menstrual period on June 30th. Therefore the expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately when the following year:
Your Answer: 7-Apr
Explanation:Expected date of delivery (EDD) is a calculated from the first day of the woman’s last menstrual period. If her periods are regular i.e., 28-day menstrual cycle, Naegele’s rule may be used. Naegele’s rule involves a simple calculation: add seven days to the first day of your LMP and then subtract three months. e.g. 30 June + 7 days = 7 July, minus 3 months = 7 April.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which of the following increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia?
Your Answer: Anastrozole
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Tamoxifen increases risk of endometrial hyperplasia Aromatase inhibitors such as Letrozole and Anastrozole are not associated and have not been shown to increase the risk of endometrial pathology Whereas unopposed oestrogens increase endometrial cancer risk combined oral contraceptive decrease risk
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She claims to have had regular menstrual cycles even while she was on oral contraceptives (OCP). 20 weeks ago, she stopped taking her OCPs and had a menstrual period few days after. No vaginal bleeding or fluid loss were noted since then. On physical examination, the uterus is palpated right above pubic symphysis. Fetal heartbeats are evident on handheld Doppler ultrasound. Which of the statements can mostly explain the difference between the dates and uterine size?
Your Answer: Ovulation did not occur until 6-8 weeks after her last period.
Explanation:When the palpated uterine size is in discrepancy with the expected size based on the duration of amenorrhoea, it can have several causes including reduced fluid volume or fetal growth (both of which are more common when there is fetal malformation), or miscalculated age of gestation as a result of wrong dates or actual ovulation occurring at a later date than expected. Reduced fluid volume and fetal growth are the most likely aetiologies during the third trimester of pregnancy, unlike in this patient at 20 weeks age of gestation.
Premature rupture of membranes is less likely the cause when there is negative vaginal fluid loss like this patient.
The most likely cause in this case is that ovulation did not occur as expected, especially when the patient ceased her OCPs during this period. In some instances, ovulation can occur 2 weeks later in about 50% of women, 6 weeks later in 90%, and may still not occur 12 months later in 1% of women.
The other listed statements are unlikely to explain the discrepancies in dates and the observed uterine size in this patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding oestrogen is correct?
Your Answer: It is responsible for secretory changes in endometrium
Correct Answer: It is produced in the corpus luteum
Explanation:Oestrogen is secreted by the corpus luteum and is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrium to prepare it for the implantation of the zygote.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.
Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?Your Answer: Vitamin D
Correct Answer: Iodine
Explanation:There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.
The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.
Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due to early labour. She is considered healthy and has experienced an uncomplicated pregnancy. She asked a question regarding fetal monitoring during labour and mentioned that she has heard about cardio tocography (CTG) being helpful for assessing the baby's wellbeing and in preventing fetal problems.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give in counselling regarding the use of CTG as a predictor of fetal outcome and satisfactory labour compared with intermittent auscultation and whether CTG monitoring is able to reduce the risk of neonatal developmental abnormalities?Your Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG
Explanation:Continuous CTG produces a paper recording of the baby’s heart rate and the mother’s labour contractions. Although continuous CTG provides a written record, mothers cannot move freely during labour, change positions easily, or use a birthing pool to help with comfort and control during labour. It also means that some resources tend to be focused on the need to constantly interpret the CTG and not on the needs of a woman in labour.
Continuous CTG was associated with fewer fits for babies although there was no difference in cerebral palsy; both were rare events. However, continuous CTG was also associated with increased numbers of caesarean sections and instrumental births, both of which carry risks for mothers. Continuous CTG also makes moving and changing positions difficult in labour and women are unable to use a birthing pool. This can impact on women’s coping strategies. Women and their doctors need to discuss the woman’s individual needs and wishes about monitoring the baby’s wellbeing in labour.
Future research should focus on events that happen in pregnancy and labour that could be the cause of long term problems for the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg, levonorgestrel 150 µg) each night at around 11 pm. One day, she presents at 7pm and says that she had forgotten to take her pill the evening before and would like some advice as to what she should do. Last sexual intercourse was last night and she is now on day-27 of her cycle. She is due to take her last pill tonight and then start the first of seven lactose tablets tomorrow night.
What would be the best advice to give her?
Your Answer: Stop the current course of contraceptive pills, and start the next course of hormone tab lets in five days’ time.
Explanation:Taking into consideration that she had only missed one pill and that they were going to be stopped the next day anyway, the rate of pregnancy would be low; hence all of the responses would be acceptable and effective. However, the most appropriate step would be to initiate her hormone-free interval starting from the time she missed her pill i.e. 11pm the night before. This would make tonight the 2nd lactose pill day and hence she should commence the next course of hormone pills on the 5 nights from tonight. In doing this, her hormone-free period would be the usual length of 7 days. Although the risk of pregnancy is low after missing only one pill, this opposite occurs when the missed pill causes a longer than normal hormone-free duration between the end of the current cycle and the starting of the subsequent one.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Study Z gets funding to increase the population size from 1000 to 2000 patients. What effect is this likely to have on the results?
Your Answer: Increase confidence intervals
Correct Answer: Decrease type 2 errors
Explanation:Increasing sample size decreases type 2 errors and increases power of the results. Sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain constant regardless of sample size. Confidence intervals are applied by a statistician and are dependent on the mean.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
During wound healing collagen alignment along tension lines is part of which phase?
Your Answer: Remodelling
Explanation:Realignment of collagen is part of the remodelling phase. Remodelling is usually underway by week 3. Maximum tensile wound strength is typically achieved by week 12.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.
Which is the best contraceptive for her?Your Answer: A barrier method of contraception.
Explanation:OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.
When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days
Explanation:The embryonic pole becomes visible on transvaginal ultrasound at around 5 and a half to 6 weeks gestation when it measures around 3mm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
What percentage of haemoglobin is HbF by 6 months of age?
Your Answer: 70-90%
Correct Answer:
Explanation:HB gower 1 is the predominant embryonic haemoglobin when the foetus is 6 week old and is replaced by adult haemoglobin by the age of 5 months post natally. Only 2% of the haemoglobin is HbF.
Embryonic Haemoglobin:
Haemoglobin Gower 1 (HbE Gower-1)
Haemoglobin Gower 2 (HbE Gower-2)
Haemoglobin Portland I (HbE Portland-1)
Haemoglobin Portland II (HbE Portland-2)Fetal Haemoglobin (haemoglobin F, HbF)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)
Explanation:HPV types 6 and 11 are associated with low risk, low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. While types 16,18,31 and 33 are associated with high risk, high grade neoplasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways?
Your Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release
Explanation:Oxytocin activates phospholipase C to produce inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3), which releases Ca2+ from intracellular stores. There are thought to be other mechanisms by which myometrium is stimulated by Oxytocin including increased sensitisation of the myometrium and increased calcium entry into cells. cAMP and Protein Kinase A inhibit myometrial contractility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12 to 13. What HPV subtypes are vaccinated against with the vaccine Gardasil®?
Your Answer: 6, 11, 16, and 18
Explanation:HPV Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18. HPV types16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Question 23
Correct
-
The uterine vein drains where?
Your Answer: Internal iliac vein
Explanation:The venous drainage of the uterus is via the uterine veins which form a plexus passing below the artery within the base of the broad ligament communicating with the rectal and the vesical venous plexus before draining into the internal iliac veins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?
Your Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism
Explanation:Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication for suppression of labour.
Suppression of labour known as tocolysis is contraindicated in situations like suspected foetal compromise, which is diagnosed by cardiotocograph warranting delivery, in cases of placental abruption, in chorioamnionitis, in severe pre-eclampsia, cases were gestational age is more than 34 weeks, in cases of foetal death in utero and in cases where palliative care is planned due to foetal malformations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
When consenting a patient for abdominal hysterectomy what would you advise regarding the risk?
Your Answer: Injury to ureter or bladder is approximately 1%
Explanation:Abdominal hysterectomy is performed through a Pfannenstiel incision. There are certain complications associated with hysterectomy including haemorrhage, injury to the ureter(1%) and less commonly bladder and bowel (0.04%).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Regarding the urinary bladder, what type of epithelium lines it?
Your Answer: Simple columnar
Correct Answer: Transitional
Explanation:The urinary bladder, and most of the urinary structures are lined by epithelium called the urothelium, or the transitional epithelium. This stratified lining is divided into three parts, an apical layer, an intermediate layer and a basal layer. The transitional epithelium is available to stretch to accommodate the increased volume when the bladder is distended, without structural damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is?
Your Answer: 70%
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:The most common hereditary cancer in the breast ovarian cancer syndrome accounts for 90% of the hereditary cancers. It is due to mutations in the BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes, most commonly the BRCA 1 gene accounting for 70% life time risk of breast cancer and 40% life time risk of ovarian cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?
Your Answer: Android
Explanation:There are four types pelvic shapes:
1) Android pelvis: it has a larger inlet and smaller outlet along with small posterior sagittal diameter, prominent ischial spines and has a two finger arch.
2) Gynecoid pelvis: it has a transverse or nearly a circular ellipse and it is the most favourable for delivery.
3) Anthropoid pelvis: the brim is an anteroposterior ellipse.
4) Platypelloid pelvis: in this type the pelvic brim is kidney shape -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up.
On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm.
which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan
Explanation:At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.
For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.
A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
– Dating errors which is the most common cause
– Twin pregnancy
– Gestational diabetes
– Polyhydramnios
– Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female puberty?
Your Answer: Maximal growth velocity, thelarche, menarche
Correct Answer: Thelarche, maximal growth velocity, menarche
Explanation:Thelarche means appearance of the breast tissue under the influence of oestrogen from the ovaries. It heralds the onset of puberty among girls. It is followed by an increase in growth velocity followed by menarche which is the time of first menstrual bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 31
Correct
-
At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a fishy-smelling, thin, white homogeneous, and offensive vaginal discharge. Under light microscopy, a sample of the discharge contains clue cells.
Which of the following assertions about this condition is correct?Your Answer: There is a relapse rate of over 50% in 6 months
Explanation:Reported cure rates for an episode of acute BV vary but have been estimated to be between 70% and 80%. Unfortunately, more than 50% of BV cases will recur at least once within the following 12 months. Because the aetiology of BV is still not entirely understood, identifying the cause of recurrent cases is challenging. Reinfection may play a role in explaining recurrent BV, but
treatment failure is a more likely contributor. There are several theories that try to explain recurrence and persistent symptoms. The existence of a biofilm in the vagina is one such theory and is the subject of ongoing research. Biofilms occur when microorganisms adhere to surfaces. G vaginalis, one of the primary organismsBV is not a sexually transmitted infection. The antibiotic of choice to treat BV is Metronidazole. Reassurance is not acceptable as a means of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
Which of the following causes of polyhydramnios is more common?
Your Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation:Maternal disorders, such as diabetes, in-utero infections, drug usage, placental abnormalities and fetal conditions as congenital and chromosomal abnormalities, Rh iso-immunization, and multiple gestations, are generally associated with polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities such as duodenal, oesophageal, or intestinal atresia of the foetus are the most common malformations that typically cause gastro-intestinal obstruction and interfere with fetal swallowing and/or absorption resulting with polyhydramnios. However, in about 70% of cases, none of the aforementioned aetiologies are causes of polyhydramnios, and it is referred to as idiopathic or isolated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance
Your Answer: Polygenic
Correct Answer: Autosomal Dominant
Explanation:PKD can follow either Autosomal dominant or recessive inheritance. Autosomal dominant is however the most common inheritance pattern and is seen in adult PKD. Infantile PKD is recessive
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin.Â
Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy. On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg.Â
The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse. Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head. Fetal monitoring is category I. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction. The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes.Â
Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?Your Answer: Contraction inadequacy
Correct Answer: Fetal malposition
Explanation:Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.
The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.
When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.
Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.
Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture. In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.
When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
How many days after fertilisation does the morula form?
Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:When there are about 12-32 blastomeres, the developing human is referred to as morula. It enters the uterine cavity around the 4th day after fertilization.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 37
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event.
On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.
Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Explanation:The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
– Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
– Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
-Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
– Uterine tenderness
– Change in uterine shape and contour
– Easily palpable fetal parts
– No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
– Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.
Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.
Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.
Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 38
Correct
-
Question 39
Correct
-
A fibroid is a type of
Your Answer: Leiomyoma
Explanation:A fibroid is a benign smooth muscle tumour or Leiomyoma. As such it is something of a misnomer. Leiomyosarcoma and Angioleiomyoma are malignant tumours of smooth muscle under the WHO sort tissue tumour classification Rhabdomyoma is a skeletal muscle tumour Myofibroma is seen in fibromatosis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 40
Correct
-
A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills.
Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.
Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 41
Correct
-
What is the normal range for variability in cardiotocography (CTG) analysis?
Your Answer: 5-25 bpm
Explanation:Cardiotocography, also known as the non-stress test is used to monitor fetal heartbeat and uterine contractions of the uterus. An abnormal CTG may indicate fetal distress and prompt an early intervention. Variability refers to the variation in the fetal heartbeat form one beat to another. Normal variability is between 5-25 beats per minute while an abnormal variability is less than 5 bpm for more than 50 minutes, or more than 25 bpm for more than 25 minutes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has burning and itching. She is sexually active.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Candida albicans
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a clinical condition characterized by a shift in vaginal flora away from Lactobacillus species toward more diverse bacterial species, including facultative anaerobes. The altered microbiome causes a rise in vaginal pH and symptoms that range from none to very bothersome. Future health implications of BV include, but are not limited to, increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted infections and preterm birth. Fifty to 75 percent of women with BV are asymptomatic. Symptomatic women typically present with vaginal discharge and/or vaginal odour. The discharge is off-white, thin, and homogeneous; the odour is an unpleasant fishy smell that may be more noticeable after sexual intercourse and during menses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 43
Correct
-
Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?
Your Answer: Foramen Ovale
Explanation:Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 44
Correct
-
Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone?
Your Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Prolactin is the hormone that is responsible for the production of milk (Lactogenesis). Oxytocin is responsible for the let down reflex during suckling.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Presence of abnormal uterine bleeding
Correct Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus
Explanation:Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 46
Correct
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?
Your Answer: 8%
Correct Answer: 18%
Explanation:This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 48
Correct
-
A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.
Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70
Fundal height measures only 25 cm
Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?Your Answer: Fetal growth restriction
Explanation:A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.
A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
– Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
– A multiple pregnancy
– A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
– Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
– Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to your clinic with slight lower abdomen pain. She has no children and lives with her male companion. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, her pulse is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.5°C.
On vaginal examination, no adnexal lump is palpated, however cervical motion pain is noticed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Cervical swabs for culture
Explanation:Pain upon movement of the cervix with the health care provider’s gloved fingers is suggestive of an inflammatory process of the pelvic organs. CMT, when present, is classically found on bimanual examination of the cervix and uterus. While CMT is often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease, it can be present in other disease entities such as ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, appendicitis, and perforated abdominal viscus.
PID is not a singular disease entity but describes a spectrum of disease. It is an upper genital tract infection, which may affect the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and peritoneum. PID can begin as cervicitis, progress to endometritis, followed by involvement of the fallopian tubes as pyosalpinx, and ultimately involve the ovary as a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). The two most common causative pathogens are N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis although the infection is often polymicrobial.
Documentation of infection with either of these two organisms must be done by cervical swabs for culture.
Transvaginal ultrasound or CT scan can be done to confirm diagnosis however the absence of findings in these investigations doesn’t rule out the possibility of PID.
Urinalysis can be done to exclude urinary tract infection, one of the possible differential diagnosis for PID.
Thyroid stimulating hormone has no role in the diagnosis of PID.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
A 28 year old woman presents for a scan at 13 weeks. Though this is her second pregnancy, the first ended in a 1st trimester miscarriage. She has not reported any problems with the current pregnancy. The ultrasound scan showed a small gestational sac and no fetal cardiac activity.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Missed Miscarriage
Explanation:A miscarriage is defined as the spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before the age of viability at 24 weeks in the UK.
A missed miscarriage is described as a loss of pregnancy without vaginal bleeding, loss of tissue, cervical changes or abdominal pain. During a scan, a fetal heartbeat is not observed, and the gestational sac may be small.
A threatened miscarriage is when the cervix dilates and uterine bleeding is seen; the pregnancy could still be viable. A complete miscarriage occurs when all the products of conception are expelled from the uterus, bleeding has stopped, and the cervix has closed up after dilation.
An inevitable miscarriage occurs with the usual symptoms of a miscarriage and a dilated cervix, suggesting that the passage of the fetal tissue is inevitable.
Recurrent miscarriages are described as spontaneous pregnancy loss of more than 2 to 3 consecutive times.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 51
Correct
-
A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with a urinary dipstick result positive for leukocyte and nitrite. She is otherwise asymptomatic so you send her urine for culture and sensitivity test.
From the options below mentioned, which is the next best management for her?Your Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin
Explanation:There is an association between 20 to 30% increase in the risk for developing pyelonephritis during later pregnancy and untreated cases of bacteriuria in pregnancy. This is due to the physiological changes occurring to urinary tract during pregnancy, it is also found that untreated bacteriuria can be associated with even preterm birth and low birth weight. Risk of symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy can be reduced by antibiotic treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria
The most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria is Escherichia coli, which accounts to more than 80% of isolates and the second most frequently cultured uropathogen is Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Other Gram-positive cocci, like group B streptococci, are less common. Gram-negative bacteria such as Klebsiella, Proteus or other Enterobacteriaceae are the other organisms involved in asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Although the context patient is asymptomatic, her urine dipstick shows positive nitrite and leukocyte, suggestive of urinary tract infection, so oral antibiotics like cephalexin or nitrofurantoin are advisable. Normally a five day course of oral antibiotic will be sufficient for the treatment of uncomplicated UTI or asymptomatic bacteraemia in pregnant women. As the patient is currently at her 38 weeks of gestation nitrofurantoin is contraindicated so it is best to prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin. This is because nitrofurantoin is associated with an increased risk of neonatal jaundice and haemolytic anaemia, so should not be used close to delivery, that is after 37 weeks of gestation or sooner if early delivery is planned.
Acute pyelonephritis should be treated with Intravenous antibiotic treatment, guided by urine culture and sensitivity reports as soon a available. A course of minimum of 10-14 days with IV + oral antibiotics is recommended as treatment for pyelonephritis, along with an increased fluid intake as intravenous fluids in clinically dehydrated patients. Even though urinary alkalisers are safe in pregnancy, prescription of urinary alkalisers alone is not recommended due to its low effectiveness compared to antibiotics, also as it can result in a loss of treatment efficacy urinary alkalisers should never be used in combination with nitrofurantoin.
At any stage of pregnancy, if Streptococcus agalactiae, a group B streptococcus [GBS], is detected in urine the intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS is usually indicated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 52
Correct
-
An 8 week pregnant female presents to the ob-gyn with bleeding from the vagina for the last two days. Bimanual examination reveals the uterus to be 8 weeks in size. On speculum examination, the cervical os is closed. How would the fetal viability be confirmed?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Indication for a transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy include:
– to monitor the heartbeat of the foetus
– look at the cervix for any changes that could lead to complications such as miscarriage or premature delivery
– examine the placenta for abnormalities
– identify the source of any abnormal bleeding
– diagnose a possible miscarriage
– confirm an early pregnancyThis is an ultrasound examination that is usually carried out vaginally at 6-10 weeks of pregnancy.
The aims of this scan are to determine the number of embryos present and whether the pregnancy is progressing normally inside the uterus.
This scan is useful for women who are experiencing pain or bleeding in the pregnancy and those who have had previous miscarriages or ectopic pregnancies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 53
Correct
-
When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial spines, this level is known as?
Your Answer: Station 0
Explanation:Station 0 – This is when the baby’s head is even with the ischial spines. The baby is said to be engaged when the largest part of the head has entered the pelvis.
If the presenting part lies above the ischial spines, the station is reported as a negative number from -1 to -5. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 54
Correct
-
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant.
Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F).
Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?Your Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics
Explanation:Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.
The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.
The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding
The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.
Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 55
Correct
-
A 28 year old patient complains of vaginal soreness and discharge. Examination reveals vulval irritation and a 'strawberry' cervix. A wet smear is sent for microscopy which confirms trichomoniasis. What percentage of trichomoniasis cases would you expect to see a strawberry cervix?
Your Answer: 2%
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is caused by trichomonas. It is sexually transmitted. It is diagnosed on microscopy of vaginal discharge and cultured in Finn-Berg Whittington medium. It is characterised by valval itching, foul smelling discharge and appearance of strawberry cervix due to presence of punctate haemorrhages which occur in 2% of the cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non-pregnant state?
Your Answer: Iron
Correct Answer: Folic Acid
Explanation:Folic Acid should be increased in diet of a pregnant women. Deficiency will lead to neural tube defects i.e. spina bifida.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Sebaceous cyst
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl, whose first period began three weeks ago, presents with very heavy bleeding that requires her to use twelve sanitary pads per day, and the bleeding does not appear to be decreasing. Which of the following investigations is most likely to identify the root cause of this issue?
Your Answer: Bleeding
oagulation profile.Correct Answer:
Explanation:It is usual to experience heavy, continuous bleeding around the time of menarche.
Haemoglobin and ferritin levels are used to determine the severity of bleeding and its impact on the haemoglobin level.
These analyses do not pinpoint the source of the problem, but they do pinpoint its consequences.
A haematologic reason, such as thrombocytopenia, acute leukaemia, or a coagulation/bleeding issue, affects about one-third of girls with pubertal menorrhagia (e.g. von Willebrand disease).
A complete blood examination and a bleeding
lotting profile are required to rule out these illnesses.
The results of a haemoglobin estimation or a ferritin level evaluation are insufficient, and the results of dilatation and curettage (D&C) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will rarely reveal the reason for the bleeding. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 59
Correct
-
A 26 year old patient with a past medical history of 2 terminations of pregnancies over the past 2 years, presents to the emergency centre complaining of severe abdominal pain and some vaginal bleeding. She has a regular 28 day cycle, and is on an oral contraceptive pill, but missed last month's period. Her last termination was over 6 months ago. She smokes almost a pack of cigarettes a day.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:The clinical picture demonstrated is most likely that of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The period of amenorrhea may point to pregnancy, while the past medical history of 2 recent terminations of pregnancy may indicate a failure of her current contraceptive method. Smoking cigarettes have been shown to not only decrease the efficacy of OCPs, but also serve as a known risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. The lady is unlikely to have endometritis as her last termination was over 6 months ago. The lack of fever helps to make appendicitis, PID and pyelonephritis less likely, though they are still possible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the leading cause of Down Syndrome?
Your Answer: Robertsonian Translocation
Correct Answer: Nondisjunction maternal gamete
Explanation:Most of the cases of down syndrome occur due to non disjunction trisomy 21 which is associated with increased maternal age. The non disjunction occurs in the maternal gametes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
A 36 year old patient is seen in clinic for follow up of a vaginal biopsy which confirms cancer. What is the most common type?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vaginal cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 62
Correct
-
You are called to see a patient in A&E who attended due to finger splinter that has been removed. The HCA took some routine obs that show her blood pressure to be 162/110. She is 32 weeks pregnant. According to the NICE guidelines which of the following is appropriate?
Your Answer: Admit and start oral labetalol
Explanation:BP over 159/109 is classed as Severe. NICE guidance advises admission and treatment with oral Labetalol as 1st Line. Patient should have BP checked QDS and shouldn’t be discharged until BP is below 159/109
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 63
Correct
-
Regarding implantation, how many days after fertilisation does it typically occur?
Your Answer: 8
Explanation:Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tubes after ovulation. The zygote moves through the fallopian tube and implants in the endometrium about 7-9 days after fertilisation, or 6-12 days after ovulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She is not sexually active and her periods last between 32 and 35 days. Her most recent regular menstrual period began three weeks ago. A pelvic ultrasound was performed which shows a normal uterus, left ovary, and a thin unilocular cyst in the right ovary around 4 cm in size. The most likely cause of this ultrasound finding is?
Your Answer: A developing follicle which is about to ovulate.
Correct Answer: A follicular cyst.
Explanation:If one believes that this cycle will last 35 days, the cyst in the left ovary was discovered at mid-cycle.
It’s too huge to be a ruptured pre-ovulatory follicle, and it doesn’t exhibit the characteristics of a corpus luteum, a benign cystic teratoma, or an endometrioma.As a result, a follicular cyst is the most likely diagnosis.
A benign cyst is almost always seen on ultrasound as a unilocular, thin-walled cystic formation.
The presence of solid materials in a multiloculated cystic structure strongly suggests the presence of a malignant mass.
In a 25-year-old woman, this would be unusual, but not unheard of. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is no history of VTE. What is the target INR?
Your Answer: 3.0 - 4.0
Correct Answer: 2.5 - 3.5
Explanation:With the use of warfarin, strict control of the INR is compulsory. After mitral valve replacement the INR should ideally be kept between 2.5-3.5. If the Ball and Cage or the Tilting Disc is used as a prosthetic valve then the target INR is 3.5, for bi-leaflets the target INR is 3.0 and for biological valves the target INR is 2.5.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on vaginal swab is going into labour. A normal vaginal delivery is planned. She is penicillin allergic with a history of anaphylaxis. What intrapartum antibiotic treatment is advised?
Your Answer: IV Clindamycin 900 mg 8 hourly
Correct Answer: IV Vancomycin 1g 12 hourly
Explanation:In a person who is infected by streptococcus (Group B) should be started on benzylpenicillin as soon as possible. In case of allergy vancomycin should be started at 1g every 12 hours. Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 67
Correct
-
You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows no identifiable fetal tissue or gestational sac and you note the radiologist has reported a 'bunch of grapes sign'. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complete molar pregnancy
Explanation:Gestational trophoblastic disorder is abnormal conception that is characterised by swollen and oedematous villi with proliferation of the trophoblasts. In a complete mole there is absence of fetal tissue, there is diffuse proliferation of trophoblastic tissue around hydropic villi and on USG it appears as a bunch of grapes or snow storm appearance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism
Your Answer: Apocrine
Correct Answer: Endocrine
Explanation:Hormones that are secreted into the circulation at one site but have effects on distal target organs are endocrine as is the case with the hormones above. Autocrine and Intracrine messengers act within the same cell. Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts. Apocrine is a histological term used to describe some types of exocrine gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 69
Correct
-
A 18-year-old girl arrives at the ER with severe abdominal pain. When it started, she was in the school band. She says the pain began 30 minutes ago in the left lower region and didn't radiate. On a scale of 1 to 10, the discomfort is a 7 and is not accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. Menarche began at the age of thirteen. Her menses were erratic at first, but she has had regular periods for the past six months.
Her vital signs are stable, and she has no fever. She uses combination oral contraceptives and is sexually active. She denies taking any other drugs. A flat abdomen with regular peristalsis is revealed on physical examination. Pelvic examination indicates a regular vagina with a normal-appearing cervix. There is no mucopurulent cervical discharge. Bimanual examination is remarkable with a tender 5-cm mass in the left adnexa.
A pregnancy test result is negative. A pelvic sonogram exhibits a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a 5 X 6 cm complex mass of the left ovary, with focal areas of calcification.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystic teratoma
Explanation:Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.
Most mature cystic teratomas can be diagnosed at ultrasonography (US) but may have a variety of appearances, characterized by echogenic sebaceous material and calcification.
Follicular cysts are simple fluid-filled cysts and never have calcifications.
Mucinous cystadenoma usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence However, calcifications are not usually seen.
Brenner tumour is also a benign epithelial ovarian tumour but it is solid, occurring most often in women over 50 years of age.
Serous cystadenoma also does not show calcifications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 70
Correct
-
A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks. She has some concerns after a family member recently gave birth to a baby with profound hearing loss due to an infection. Which of the following would you describe to her as the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. Babies born with congenital CMV are either symptomatic or develop symptoms later in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 71
Correct
-
A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her symptoms started getting worsening over the last two weeks.
On examination, she presents with signs of moderate degree of dehydration, along with a weight loss of approximately 10%.
Urine dipstick examination is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites but is positive for ketones. Serum ketone level is elevated and other electrolytes including blood glucose levels are within normal range.
Which of the below mentioned treatment options is not appropriate in this situation?Your Answer: Encourage oral intake and discharge home
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed severe nausea and vomiting at the initial weeks of pregnancy. If the following clinical features are present, it confirms the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum:
– Weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight
– Moderate to severe dehydration.
– Ketosis
– Electrolyte abnormalities.Management of hyperemesis gravidarum include:
– Temporary suspension of oral intake, followed by gradual resumption.
– Intravenous fluid resuscitation, beginning with 2 L of Ringer’s lactate infused over 3 hours to maintain a urine output of more than 100 mL/h.
– Use of Antiemetics like metoclopramide, if needed.
– Oral administration of Vitamin B6.
– Replacement of electrolytes if required in the case.Encouraging oral intake and sending this patient home without any intravenous hydration, is not considered the correct treatment option in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days?
Your Answer: 26-30
Correct Answer: 14-16
Explanation:After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol. The luteal phase lasts for 14 days and if implantation does not occurs the corpus luteum starts to degenerate. As B-HCG produced by the implanted embryo maintains it and without it luteolysis occurs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 73
Correct
-
A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness.
As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care.
Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?Your Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.
Explanation:Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.
In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.
An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.
A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.
A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 74
Correct
-
The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity
Explanation:At the 36‑week appointment, all pregnant women should be seen again. At this appointment: measure blood pressure and test urine for proteinuria; measure and plot symphysis–fundal height; check position of baby; for women whose babies are in the breech presentation, offer external cephalic version (ECV)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 75
Correct
-
Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?
Your Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 76
Correct
-
All of the following may result from a bicornuate uterus except:
Your Answer: Congenital anomalies of the baby
Explanation:Literature review shows that bicornuate uterus is associated with increase risk of spontaneous abortion in about 36% of patients. There is also an increased risk of preterm birth, malpresentation and fetal growth retardation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 77
Correct
-
The testicular arteries are branches of what?
Your Answer: Aorta
Explanation:The testicular artery arises from the aorta and supplies the testis and the epididymis. The testis is supplied by 3 arteries.: Testicular artery, cremasteric artery that arises from the inferior hypogastric artery and the artery to the vas deferens from the internal iliac artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?
Your Answer: A serum progesterone level should be drawn
Correct Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant
Explanation:With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.
Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 79
Correct
-
The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure?
Your Answer: Fascia lata
Explanation:The femoral triangle is bounded:
– Superiorly by the inguinal ligament that forms the base of the femoral triangle.
– Medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus.
– Laterally by the sartorius; the apex of the femoral triangle is formed where the borders of the sartorius and the adductor muscles meet.
– The floor of the femoral triangle is formed by the iliopsoas laterally and the pectineus muscle medially.
– The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by the fascia lata and cribriform
fascia, subcutaneous tissue, and skin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 80
Correct
-
Lowered haemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding which is mainly due to:
Your Answer: Increased plasma volume
Explanation:During pregnancy, anaemia increases more than fourfold from the first to third trimester. It is a well established fact that there is a physiological drop in haemoglobin (Hb) in the mid trimester. This physiological drop is attributed to increase of plasma volume and hence decrease of blood viscosity lead to better circulation in placenta.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)