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  • Question 1 - Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia is a common clinical condition and can be categorized as conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from obstructive or hepatocellular causes mainly. The causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include inborn errors of metabolism like galactosemia and aminoaciduria, obstruction from choledochal cysts, and biliary atresia. Long term TPN also leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Spherocytosis is a hereditary condition belonging to the group of haemolytic anaemias, resulting from plasma membrane protein deficiency. This defect of the RBC plasma membrane decreases their life span, making them osmotically fragile and prone to haemolysis. This leads to an increase in the unconjugated bilirubin levels, with a risk of developing kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You have been called to see a 5 hour old infant exhibiting signs...

    Correct

    • You have been called to see a 5 hour old infant exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. The baby was born premature, and the mothers membranes had ruptured more than 24 hours before delivery. You are concerned that the infant is at risk of sepsis.The following statement best describes sepsis:

      Your Answer: Dysregulated inflammatory response to infection

      Explanation:

      Sepsis can be described as a condition in which there is a dysregulated inflammatory response to an infection. In the case of neonates, sepsis can be life threatening and may present with respiratory distress more than 4 hours after birth, shock, seizures, and multi organ failure. Risk factors that further point to sepsis include prolonged rupture of maternal membranes for more than 24 hours before birth, a history of a maternal fever during labour, or parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the mother for a suspected or confirmed bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal...

    Incorrect

    • A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal pulses and otherwise normal examination. There are no dysmorphic features on the routine first-day neonatal check. What is the MOST appropriate action to be taken immediately?

      Your Answer: Discharge with written advice about possible symptoms of heart disease and clinical review in one week

      Correct Answer: Pre-and post-ductal saturations

      Explanation:

      Certain CHDs may present with a differential cyanosis, in which the preductal part of the body (upper part of the body) is pinkish but the post ductal part of the body (lower part of the body) is cyanotic, or vice versa (reverse differential cyanosis). The prerequisite for this unique situation is the presence of a right-to-left shunt through the PDA and severe coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption or severe pulmonary hypertension. In patients with severe coarctation of the aorta or interruption of the aortic arch with normally related great arteries, the preductal part of the body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA and LV, whereas the post ductal part is supplied by deoxygenated systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, main pulmonary artery (MPA) and the PDA. In the new-born with structurally normal heart, a differential cyanosis may be associated with persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. In the cases of TGA with coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption, the upper body is mostly supplied by systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, and ascending aorta, whereas the lower body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA, LV, MPA, and then the PDA. For accurate detection of differential cyanosis, oxygen saturation should be measured in both preductal (right finger) and post ductal (feet) parts of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 2 year old girl with a history of oligohydramnios, hypotonia, and scissoring...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old girl with a history of oligohydramnios, hypotonia, and scissoring of the legs, presents with delayed walking. She was born by breech delivery. Clinical examination reveals absence of fever and no dysmorphism. Although the limbs look symmetrical and equal, the right leg seems to be shorter. The girl is otherwise healthy. Neurological examination reveals hypotonia with normal reflexes and power. The mother confirms there is no history of myelomeningocele, cerebral palsy, or birth asphyxia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital dislocation of the hip

      Explanation:

      In this particular case, the symptoms and signs are suggestive for congenital dislocation of the hip. There are several risk factors present including, a breech delivery, female gender (female:male = 6:1) and oligohydramnios. It is also more common in the left hip than the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found to be 5 days pregnant. The fertilized tissue is at which stage of development?

      Your Answer: Zygote

      Correct Answer: Blastocyst

      Explanation:

      Time- EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Ganciclovir

      Explanation:

      One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth...

    Correct

    • A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth philtrum. He was monitored closely throughout pregnancy for intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR) and a ventricular septal defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a common yet under-recognized condition resulting from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is based on findings in the following 3 areas: (1) characteristic facial anomalies (see image below), (2) growth retardation (intrauterine growth restriction and failure to have catch-up growth), and (3) CNS involvement (cognitive impairment, learning disabilities, or behavioural abnormalities).Key characteristic craniofacial abnormalities include the following:- Smooth philtrum- Thin, smooth vermilion border of the upper lipShort palpebral fissures (< 10th percentile for age)Other craniofacial abnormalities are as follows:- Midface hypoplasia- Microphthalmia- Strabismus- PtosisCNS and neurobehavioral abnormalities include the following:- Microcephaly- Intellectual impairment (mild-to-moderate mental retardation)- Cognitive impairment- Developmental delay- Irritability in infancy- Hyperactivity in childhood or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)- Seizures- Delayed or deficient myelination- Agenesis or hypoplasia of the corpus callosumSkeletal abnormalities include the following:- Radioulnar synostosis- Flexion contractures- Camptodactyly- Aberrant palmar creases, especially hockey-stick palmar crease- Clinodactyly- Klippel-Feil anomaly- Hemivertebrae- Scoliosis- Dislocated jointsOther major congenital anomalies include the following:- Cleft palate- Heart defects- Renal anomalies- DiGeorge sequenceFunctional problems include the following:- Refractive problems (e.g., myopia, astigmatism)- Hearing lossGrowth deficiency includes the following:- Infant small for gestational age (< 10th percentile for weight or length)- Postnatal growth deficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.9
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  • Question 8 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through spontaneous, vaginal delivery. She had rupture of membranes 30 hours before birth, however looked healthy and did not receive antibiotics. On admission, doctors obtained a vaginal swab. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the baby?

      Your Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results

      Explanation:

      Doctors must perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results to prevent neonatal sepsis. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of the membranes. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of membranes greater than 12–24 hours, intrapartum maternal pyrexia (> 38°C), fetal tachycardia, chorioamnionitis, pre-term birth and maternal colonisation with group B Streptococcus. In this case there are two risk factors: prolonged rupture of membranes, and pre-term birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you...

    Incorrect

    • Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Correct Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot

      Explanation:

      Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet...

    Correct

    • A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision

      Explanation:

      Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when: – There are no other causes, and- The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:- If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.- If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluidContinued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The following are the causes of hydrops fetalis EXCEPT? ...

    Correct

    • The following are the causes of hydrops fetalis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hydrops fetalis is a serious condition characterized by excessive fluid accumulation resulting in oedema in one or more of the fetal compartments. The most likely cause is fetal anaemia, and the condition may lead to ascites and pleural effusion. The anaemia that results in hydrops may be caused by Rh incompatibility, Parvovirus B19 infection, toxoplasmosis, hepatitis B, maternal syphilis (strong association), Cytomegalovirus, Turner syndrome, and Noonan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?...

    Incorrect

    • Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Group B streptococcal septicaemia (GBS)

      Correct Answer: Duct dependent congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born is secondary to the failure of normal circulatory transition at birth, leading to an abnormally high pulmonary vascular resistance. This elevated resistance causes right-to-left shunting of blood and hypoxemia. It can be caused by parenchymal lung diseases (meconium aspiration syndrome, pneumonia or ARDS), lung hypoplasia (like occurring in oligohydramnios or diaphragmatic hernia), or it can be idiopathic. Other possible causes include maternal indomethacin use, group B streptococcal septicaemia, and high-pressure ventilation. Duct dependent congenital heart disease does not lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported...

    Correct

    • A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported to be in a critical state. Birth weight is 550g and the baby shows a poor respiratory effort. The membranes ruptured just prior to the delivery with no signs of maternal fever or sepsis. The infant received no antenatal steroids. After delivery, the neonate was subsequently intubated, resuscitated and given a dose of Curo surf. he was extubated onto CPAP within 6 hours. UVC and UAC access was established and benzylpenicillin and gentamicin were administered. Small amounts of maternal breast milk were given for mouthcare. The baby's cardiovascular system was stable and early ABG samples were within acceptable ranges. At 24 hours of age the baby deteriorates with numerous desaturations and bradycardias requiring reintubation. First gas following reintubation shows pH 7.19, CO2 8.6 kPa, BE -10. Oxygen requirement is 60%. FBC is unremarkable. The baby is cool peripherally and central CRT is 3-4 seconds. There is a loud machinery murmur. Abdominal radiograph shows a football sign. What is the most likely cause of the baby's deterioration?

      Your Answer: Spontaneous intestinal perforation

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous intestinal perforation (SIP) of the new-born, also referred to as isolated perforation or focal intestinal perforation (FIP) of the new-born, is a single intestinal perforation that is typically found at the terminal ileum. SIP occurs primarily in preterm infants with very low birth weight (VLBW, birth weight <1500 g) and extremely low birth weight (ELBW, birth weight <1000 g), umbilical catheter placement, maternal drug use and twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. SIP is a separate clinical entity from necrotizing enterocolitis, the most severe gastrointestinal complication of preterm infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      92.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: A single umbilical artery

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer: Decrease delta P

      Correct Answer: Increase delta P

      Explanation:

      The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      114.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the most probable diagnosis in an infant with persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable diagnosis in an infant with persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia and positive urine ketones?

      Your Answer: Medium-chain acyl-coenzyme A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCAD deficiency)

      Correct Answer: Maple syrup urine disease

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD).Note:- Healthy new-borns have blood sugars between 3.3 and 5 mmol/L- Neonatal hypoglycaemia is glucose < 2.2 mmol/L if measured in the first 3 days of life.- Neonatal hypoglycaemia is glucose < 2.5 mmol/L after the first 3 days of life.Causes of persistent hypoglycaemia include:- Preterm- IUGR- SGA- Hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome- Hypoxia at birth- Sepsis- Cardiopulmonary disease- Inborn errors of metabolism- Hepatic enzyme deficiencies- Glycogen storage disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Disorders of thyroid hormone metabolism are more common than structural thyroid gland defects

      Correct Answer: It may lead to prolongation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) is inadequate thyroid hormone production in new-born infants. It can occur because of an anatomic defect in the gland, an inborn error of thyroid metabolism, or iodine deficiency.CH is the most common neonatal endocrine disorder, and historically, thyroid dysgenesis was thought to account for approximately 80% of cases. However, studies have reported a change in the epidemiology, with a doubling in incidence to around 1 in 1500 live new-borns.​Infants with congenital hypothyroidism are usually born at term or after term. Symptoms and signs include the following:Decreased activityLarge anterior fontanellePoor feeding and weight gainSmall stature or poor growthJaundiceDecreased stooling or constipationHypotoniaHoarse cryProlonged neonatal jaundice or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      59.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?

      Your Answer: Cranial ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age....

    Correct

    • A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age. The serum bilirubin was 286 µmol/L, direct Coombs test negative, blood film showed spherocytes and reticulocytes. The baby’s blood group was A rhesus negative and mother’s blood group O Rhesus negative.Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ABO incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic disease of the new-born due to ABO incompatibility is usually less severe than Rh incompatibility. One reason is that fetal RBCs express less of the ABO blood group antigens compared with adult levels. In addition, in contrast to the Rh antigens, the ABO blood group antigens are expressed by a variety of fetal (and adult) tissues, reducing the chances of anti-A and anti-B binding their target antigens on the fetal RBCs.ABO HDN occurs almost exclusively in the offspring of women of blood group O, although reports exist of occasional cases in group A mothers with high‐titre anti‐(group B) IgG

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      29.9
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  • Question 20 - What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Infectious mastitis and breast abscesses are predominantly caused by bacteria that colonize the skin. S. aureus is the most common causative agent, followed by coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The majority of S. aureus isolated are now methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)Some breast infections (and up to 40% of breast abscesses) may be polymicrobial, with the isolation of aerobes (Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Corynebacterium, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas) as well as anaerobes (Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Bacteroides, Lactobacillus, Eubacterium, Clostridium, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella). A study of primary and recurrent breast abscesses showed that smokers were more likely to have anaerobes recovered (isolated in 15% of patients).Unusual breast infections may be the initial presentation of HIV infection. Typhoid is a well-recognized cause of breast abscesses in countries where this disease is prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.6
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  • Question 21 - A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound....

    Correct

    • A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      23.6
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  • Question 22 - A neonate of Asian parents presents with jaundice appearing less than 24 hours...

    Correct

    • A neonate of Asian parents presents with jaundice appearing less than 24 hours after birth. You are concerned about glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. What is the mode of inheritance of this condition?

      Your Answer: X-linked

      Explanation:

      Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is the most common enzyme deficiency in humans.It has a high prevalence in persons of African, Asian, and Mediterranean descent. It is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder.G6PD deficiency is polymorphic, with more than 300 variantsG6PD deficiency can present as neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. Besides, persons with this disorder can experience episodes of brisk haemolysis after ingesting fava beans or being exposed to certain infections or drugs. Less commonly, they may have chronic haemolysis. However, many individuals with G6PD deficiency are asymptomatic.Most individuals with G6PD deficiency do not need treatment. However, they should be taught to avoid drugs and chemicals that can cause oxidant stress. Infants with prolonged neonatal jaundice as a result of G6PD deficiency should receive phototherapy with a bili light.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      34.7
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  • Question 23 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Treat with intravenous antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      57.1
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  • Question 24 - In a mother who has taken selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI's) after 20...

    Correct

    • In a mother who has taken selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI's) after 20 weeks gestation, which of the following may be an associated adverse condition in the neonate?

      Your Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Treatment of depression is an important component of maternal and neonatal health. The use of SSRIs and antidepressants in the first trimester are unlikely to carry any congenital risks. However the use of the antidepressants closer to delivery may result in some respiratory, motor, gastrointestinal and central nervous system problems, with the most concerning of these being persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. Other conditions such as cleft palate, jaundice, neural tube defects or floppy baby syndrome have not been shown to occur with SSRI use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      42.3
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  • Question 25 - Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Correct

    • Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism results from insufficient levels of thyroid hormone in the body since birth, which is either due to dysgenesis of the thyroid gland or dyshormonogenesis. The important features of this disease include coarse facial features (macroglossia, large fontanelles, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism, etc.), failure to thrive, cardiomegaly, hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and low core body temperature among many others. Frontal bossing is the usual feature of rickets and acromegaly. Mitral regurgitation is not usually associated with congenital hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is a risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction?

      Your Answer: Maternal age under 18 years

      Correct Answer: Foetal echogenic bowel

      Explanation:

      Intrauterine growth restriction refers to the failure of the fetus to grow in accordance with the weeks of gestation. There are two types of growth restriction, symmetrical and asymmetrical. Causes include various genetic abnormalities, fetal infections, maternal health conditions, etc. Risk factors for the development of IUGR include fetal echogenic bowel, maternal age above 40 years, low PAPP-A levels, maternal smoking or cocaine use, etc. Fetal echogenic bowel implies a brighter than usual fetal intestines on ultrasonography. It is a marker associated with trisomy 21, which is a cause of IUGR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      30.7
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  • Question 27 - A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal...

    Correct

    • A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Explanation:

      In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      59.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection?

      Your Answer: Petechiae are due to thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most frequent cause of congenital infection worldwide, with an estimated incidence in developed countries of 0.6–0.7% of all live births.The clinical spectrum of congenital CMV infection varies widely, from the complete absence of signs of infection (asymptomatic infection) to potentially life-threatening disseminated disease. At birth, 85–90% of infected infants are asymptomatic, and 10–15% present with clinical apparent infection (symptomatic disease).The presentation in this latter group is a continuum of disease expression whose more common findings are petechiae, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, microcephaly, and other neurologic signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely to be found?

      Your Answer: Asian

      Correct Answer: White European

      Explanation:

      Mongolian spots are, hyper-pigmented, non-blanching patches present on the back and gluteal region at birth. They are commonly found in African and Asian ethnic groups, and can also present in infants of Mediterranean and middle eastern descent. Though the spots usually disappear by puberty, some may persist into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical....

    Correct

    • Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical. They separated in the womb after implantation but before day 8.What type of twin is this?

      Your Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic

      Explanation:

      A monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy is a subtype of monozygotic twin pregnancy. An MCDA pregnancy results from a separation of a single zygote at ,4-8 days (blastocyst) following formation. These fetuses share a single chorionic sac but have two amniotic sacs and two yolk sacs. It accounts for the vast majority (70-75%) of monozygotic twin pregnancies although only ,30% of all twin pregnancies. The estimated incidence is at ,1:400 pregnanciesThe layman term is that the twins are identical – in reality, they are phenotypically similar, and of course of the same gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      81.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the following is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is incorrect?

      Your Answer: The embryonic phase is the first 20 weeks in utero

      Explanation:

      The embryonic period comprises of the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. It is divided into a preembryonic phase (from the 1st to the 3rd week), in which the three germinal layers arise, and into the embryonic phase proper (from the 4th to 8th week), in which the embryonic organ anlagen arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      102
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was...

    Correct

    • A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was administered. There was a delay in clamping the cord. No respiratory effort is observed, and the heart rate is slow. What should be the next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: 5× inflation breaths

      Explanation:

      Most infants have a good heart rate after birth and establish breathing by about 90 s. If the infant is not breathing adequately aerate the lungs by giving 5 inflation breaths, preferably using air. Until now the infant’s lungs will have been filled with fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29...

    Correct

    • A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?

      Your Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume

      Explanation:

      Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4–6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      88.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old with increased respiratory effort. The baby was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Membranes ruptured 30 hours before delivery and there are no other risk factors for infection. On examination the baby is visibly tachypnoeic with intercostal recession and nasal flaring. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are present bilaterally. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds centrally and baby has cool hands and feet. Respiratory rate is 90/min, heart rate 170/min and oxygen saturations measured on the right hand are 85% in room air. IV access has been obtained and antibiotics are being given. Enough blood was obtained for culture, blood sugar and venous blood gas. Blood sugar is 2.6 mmol/l. Blood gas shows: pH 7.25, CO2 8.5 kPa, BE –8. Despite low flow nasal cannula oxygen baby’s saturations remain around 88%. What should be the next step in this baby’s management?

      Your Answer: 3 ml/kg 10% glucose

      Correct Answer: Prepare to intubate baby

      Explanation:

      Infants may require tracheal intubation if:- direct tracheal suctioning is required- effective bag-mask ventilation cannot be provided- chest compressions are performed- endotracheal (ET) administration of medications is desired- congenital diaphragmatic hernia is suspected, or – a prolonged need for assisted ventilation exists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities? ...

    Correct

    • Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia can be defined as either a birth weight greater than 4kg or birth weight greater than 90% for the gestational age. Risk factors for macrosomia include maternal diabetes, excessive gestational weight gain, pre-pregnancy obesity, male gender, ethnicity, and advanced gestational age. Genetic conditions associated with macrosomia are Bardet-Biedl syndrome, Perlman syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Silver-Russell syndrome is associated with intrauterine growth retardation and post-natal failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 day old male infant, born at term, presents with umbilical bruising and bleeding. History reveals he wasn’t given vitamin K after birth. Blood exam is normal but with a high prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin K only

      Correct Answer: Intravenous vitamin K plus fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests a vitamin K deficiency haemorrhagic disease of the new-born and requires IV vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma. This usually presents with gastrointestinal bleeding, bleeding from the umbilical stump and bruising after 2–7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to...

    Correct

    • What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?

      Your Answer: 30 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or...

    Correct

    • The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or five weeks of life, until what age can it be performed?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ideally, the test is done in the first 4 to 5 weeks, but it can be done at up to 3 months of age.The identification of all new-borns with hearing loss before age 6 months has now become an attainable realistic goal. In the past, parents and paediatricians often did not suspect a hearing loss until the age of 2-3 years, after important speech and language milestones have not been met. By the time these milestones are missed, the hearing-impaired child has already experienced irreversible delays in speech and language development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age? ...

    Correct

    • Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Cow’s milk differs in composition to human breast milk. The sodium content of cows milk is too high, which can easily overwhelm a baby’s developing kidneys and lead to hypernatremia and dehydration. In addition to its iron content being too low, cows milk can cause further increase iron deficiency anaemia by irritating the baby’s intestinal lumen and causing blood loss per rectum. After 12 months a baby’s gastrointestinal tract and organs are able to tolerate cows milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant?

      Your Answer: Type 1 pneumocytes

      Correct Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary surfactant is a lipoprotein complex that is responsible for preventing the collapse of alveoli and increasing lung compliance.It is produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and secreted from the lamellar bodies of type 2 pneumocytes.Surfactant is essential for reducing surface tension at the air-water interface in the alveoli, thus preventing the collapse of alveoli during expiration. It is composed of dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC), which is a phospholipid.In fetal development, production of surfactant begins around 26 weeks of gestation and reaches mature levels by 35 weeks.The deficiency of surfactant can result in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome or hyaline membrane disease, particularly in premature new-born babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to...

    Incorrect

    • In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to successful breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer: 0.25

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding may be significantly impaired (up to 25%) by breast augmentation. Equally, breast engorgement, which occurs due to vascular congestion, reduces nipple protrusion and subsequent ability to breastfeed successfully. In the latter, regular feeding or expressing is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which of the following conditions is NOT a recognized cause of respiratory distress...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT a recognized cause of respiratory distress syndrome (SDLD)?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypertension

      Explanation:

      Insufficient surfactant production in premature infants leads to respiratory distress syndrome or surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), characterized by structurally immature lungs. There are many risk factors of this disease, some of them include male gender, caesarean section, infants of diabetic mothers, being the second born of the premature twins, perinatal asphyxia, sepsis, and hypothermia. Maternal hypertension is not a recognized risk factor for respiratory distress syndrome| instead, pregnancy-induced hypertension and chronic maternal hypertension are the protective factors against this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby boy who is well feed and thriving, but jaundiced?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests (TFTs)

      Correct Answer: Total serum bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Usually, a total serum bilirubin level test is the only one required in an infant with moderate jaundice who presents on the second or third day of life without a history and physical findings suggestive of a pathologic process. Measurement of bilirubin fractions (conjugated vs unconjugated) in serum is not usually required in infants who present as described above. However, in infants who have hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, thrombocytopenia, or other findings suggestive of hepatobiliary disease, metabolic disorder, or congenital infection, early measurement of bilirubin fractions is suggested. The same may apply to infants who remain jaundiced beyond the first 7-10 days of life, and to infants whose total serum bilirubin levels repeatedly rebound following treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid? ...

    Incorrect

    • At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer: 1200ml

      Correct Answer: 600ml

      Explanation:

      In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via Caesarean section because of pathological cardiotocography. The baby looks healthy and she has an Apgar score of 9, however, her RR is increased. The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN)

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in new-borns and self-limiting. It can affect any new-born shortly after birth. Its most prominent feature is tachypnoea. Nasal flaring, grunting, or intercostal retractions may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: 0.1 ml/kg 1:10000 adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Consider reorientating care

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Hypoxia at birth

      Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory effort and an undetectable heart rate initially. Baby is now 20 min old and has been intubated with regular ventilation breaths. Heart rate came up to 110/min following two rounds of chest compressions. Baby appears very pale. No drugs have been given. Oxygen saturations are currently 85% measured on the right hand despite FiO2 1.0. A venous cord gas shows pH 6.89, CO2 –8, BE –14, Hb 8. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Consider reorientating care

      Correct Answer: Umbilical venous catheter (UVC) placement

      Explanation:

      Umbilical vein catheterization utilizes the exposed umbilical stump in a neonate as a site for emergency central venous access up to 14 days old. Umbilical vein catheterization can provide a safe and effective route for intravenous delivery of medications and fluids during resuscitation.The indication for umbilical vein catheterization is when there is a need for IV access in a neonate for resuscitation, transfusions, or short-term venous access when otherwise unobtainable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Correct

    • Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: Periventricular cerebral calcifications are an associated feature

      Explanation:

      One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. The infection is even commoner than the other widely known diseases like down’s syndrome and spina bifida. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5 and is diagnosed using PCR of saliva. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is diagnosed at birth with marked neurological disability, resulting from microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, and cerebral atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts?

      Your Answer: It is also associated with meconium staining of the amniotic fluid

      Correct Answer: There is a higher incidence of chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. It also leads to multiple complications, out of which the incidence of chorioamnionitis is very high. Other complications include fetal growth retardation, limb contractures, GI atresia, and even fetal death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.2
      Seconds

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Neonatology (29/50) 58%
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