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  • Question 1 - The following are all important buffers of H+EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are all important buffers of H+EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin

      Correct Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Buffers are weak acids or bases that can donate or accept H+ions respectively and therefore resist changes in pH. Buffering does not alter the body’s overall H+load, ultimately the body must get rid of H+by renal excretion if the buffering capacity of the body is not to be exceeded and a dangerous pH reached. Bicarbonate and carbonic acid (formed by the combination of CO2 with water, potentiated by carbonic anhydrase) are the most important buffer pair in the body, although haemoglobin provides about 20% of buffering in the blood, and phosphate and proteins provide intracellular buffering. Buffers in urine, largely phosphate, allow the excretion of large quantities of H+.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      13.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis had gained weight, developed resistant hypertension, muscle...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis had gained weight, developed resistant hypertension, muscle weakness, and ankle oedema. This patient is most likely suffering from what condition?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Overuse of cortisol medication, as seen in the treatment of patients with chronic asthma or rheumatoid arthritis, can cause Cushing’s syndrome.

      Weight gain, thin arms and legs, a round face, increased fat around the base of the neck, a fatty hump between the shoulders, easy bruising, wide purple stretch marks primarily on the abdomen, breasts, hips, and under the arms, weak muscles, hirsutism, hypertension, erectile dysfunction, osteoporosis, frontal alopecia, acne, depression, poor wound healing, and polycythaemia are all clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      227.5
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Where is angiotensin I primarily converted to angiotensin II: ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is angiotensin I primarily converted to angiotensin II:

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by the removal of two C-terminal residues by the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). This primarily occurs in the lungs, although it does also occur to a lesser degree in endothelial cells and renal epithelial cells.
      The main actions of angiotensin II are:
      Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle (resulting in increased blood pressure)
      Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus (resulting in an increased filtration fraction and preserved glomerular filtration rate)
      Stimulation of aldosterone release from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
      Stimulation of anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin) release from the posterior pituitary
      Stimulation of thirst via the hypothalamus
      Acts on the Na+/H+ exchanger in the proximal tubule of the kidney to stimulate Na+reabsorption and H+excretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      5.7
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve...

    Correct

    • A patient suffers a lower limb fracture that causes damage to the nerve that innervates peroneus longus.
      Peroneus longus receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
      Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      58.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Angiotensin II acts to cause all but which one of the following effects:...

    Correct

    • Angiotensin II acts to cause all but which one of the following effects:

      Your Answer: Inhibit release of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II acts to:
      Stimulate release of aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex (which in turn acts to increase sodium reabsorption)
      Cause systemic vasoconstriction
      Cause vasoconstriction of the renal arterioles (predominant efferent effect thus intraglomerular pressure is stable or increased, thereby tending to maintain or even raise the GFR)
      Directly increase Na+reabsorption from the proximal tubule (by activating Na+/H+antiporters)
      Stimulate synthesis and release of ADH from the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary respectively
      Stimulate the sensation of thirst
      Potentiate sympathetic activity (positive feedback)
      Inhibit renin production by granular cells (negative feedback)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      52.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 32 year old woman presents with episodes of flushing, headaches and palpitations....

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman presents with episodes of flushing, headaches and palpitations. On examination her blood pressure is significantly elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Phaeochromocytomas are catecholamine-secreting tumours which occur in about 0.1% of patients with hypertension. In about 90% of cases they arise from the adrenal medulla. The remaining 10%, which arise from extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue, are termed paragangliomas. Common presenting symptoms include one or more of headache, sweating, pallor and palpitations. Less commonly, patients describe anxiety, panic attacks and pyrexia. Hypertension, whether sustained or episodic, is present in at least 90% of patients. Left untreated phaeochromocytoma can occasionally lead to hypertensive crisis, encephalopathy, hyperglycaemia, pulmonary oedema, cardiac arrhythmias, or even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      10.5
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 23-year-old student presents with a fever and sore throat. Upon physical examination,...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old student presents with a fever and sore throat. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he had bilaterally enlarged tonsils that are covered in large amounts of exudate. A diagnosis of tonsillitis was made.

      The lymph from the tonsils will drain to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer: Deep cervical lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The tonsils are collections of lymphatic tissue located within the pharynx. They collectively form a ringed arrangement, known as Waldeyer’s ring: pharyngeal tonsil, 2 tubal tonsils, 2 palatine tonsils, and the lingual tonsil.

      Lymphatic fluid from the lingual tonsil drains into the jugulodigastric and deep cervical lymph nodes.

      Lymphatic fluid from the pharyngeal tonsil drains into the retropharyngeal nodes (which empty into the deep cervical chain), and directly into deep cervical nodes within the parapharyngeal space.

      The retropharyngeal and the deep cervical lymph nodes drain the tubal tonsils.

      The palatine tonsils drain to the jugulodigastric node, a node of the deep cervical lymph nodes, located inferior to the angle of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      143.6
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of hypoglycaemia: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of hypoglycaemia:

      Your Answer: Polyuria

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of hypoglycaemia:
      Autonomic  symptoms: Sweating, feeling hot, anxiety/agitation, palpitations, shaking, paraesthesia, dizziness
      Neuroglycopaenic symptoms: Weakness, blurred vision, difficulty speaking, poor concentration, poor coordination, drowsiness, confusion, seizures, coma
      Other symptoms: Nausea, fatigue, hunger

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      14.5
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 39-year-old woman's son with meningococcal meningitis was recently admitted to the Paediatric...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman's son with meningococcal meningitis was recently admitted to the Paediatric Intensive Care Unit. She is currently 22 weeks pregnant and is concerned about the possibility of her also contracting the disease as she cared closely for her son during his admission.

      Which antibiotic would be the MOST appropriate choice for chemoprophylaxis in this case?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin is recommended for use as meningococcal chemoprophylaxis in all age groups and in pregnancy, and is the most appropriate for this patient.

      However, rifampicin is the drug of choice for meningococcal chemoprophylaxis because it is licensed for chemoprophylaxis, but multiple doses are necessary and it is not readily available in community pharmacies. It also interacts with oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      246
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A young man develops an infection spread via aerosol transmission.

    Which of these organisms...

    Correct

    • A young man develops an infection spread via aerosol transmission.

      Which of these organisms is commonly spread by aerosol transmission?

      Your Answer: Measles virus

      Explanation:

      Aerosols are airborne particles less than 5 µm in size, containing infective organisms that usually cause infection of the upper or lower respiratory tract.

      Examples of organisms commonly spread by aerosol transmission are:
      Measles virus
      Varicella zoster virus
      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      The following table summarises the various routes of transmission with example organisms:
      Route of transmission
      Example organisms
      Aerosol (airborne particle < 5 µm)
      Mycobacterium tuberculosis
      Varicella zoster virus
      Measles virus

      Hepatitis A and Rotavirus are spread by the faeco-oral route.

      Neisseria gonorrhoea is spread by sexual route.

      Staphylococcus aureus is spread by direct contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      12.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (4/6) 67%
Renal (1/3) 33%
Endocrine (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (1/1) 100%
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