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Question 1
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A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Meningococcaemia
Explanation:Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the mortality proportion attributed to accidents in this age group?
Your Answer: 10-20%
Correct Answer: 40-50%
Explanation:Deaths by age group: 60% <1 year - due mainly to congenital, neonatal, and infection related problems.10% 1-4 years - due to accident (15%), cancer (15%), or congenital problems (14%)18% 15-19 years - accidental (42%) accidents reflect increased risk taking
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following classification systems is used for categorizing scaphoid fractures?
Your Answer: Gartland classification
Correct Answer: Herbert classification
Explanation:Scaphoid fractures are regarded as fractures that are difficult to heal, so a classification system is needed taking different factors into account that should lead towards proper guidance to the healing time and management of these fractures. Popular classification criteria are Herbert, Russe, and Mayo classification systems. Herbert’s classification system is based on the fracture’s stability and proposes that all complete bicortical fractures (except for tubercle fractures) are unstable. Salter-Harris classification is used for categorizing epiphyseal fractures, while Delbert classification system is reserved for fractures of the proximal femur in children. Fractures of the ankles are classified using Ottawa rules, and Garland classification is used for supracondylar fractures in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Advise the parents she will have to get a High Court injunction in order to stop the transfusion
Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion
Explanation:People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.This could be:the child’s mother or fatherthe child’s legally appointed guardiana person with a residence order concerning the childa local authority designated to care for the childa local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 5 year old boy falls into the swimming pool whilst playing and almost drowns. His parents start BLS and transfer him to the emergency department. You attach him to the cardiac monitoring and you notice ventricular fibrillation. You immediately start on CRP algorithm for shockable rhythms. Which of the following may result in a poor defibrillation response?
Your Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Guidelines suggest that when hypothermia manifests in the context of a shockable rhythm, it might get harder to defibrillate. Therefore, defibrillation is recommended to occur at temperatures below 30°C, and to be limited in three shocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his thumbs are dysplastic. Clinical and paraclinical exams suggest an acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fanconi syndrome
Correct Answer: Fanconi anaemia
Explanation:Fanconi anaemia, a rare autosomal recessive condition, presents with congenital abnormalities and defective hemopoiesis. Clinical signs include pallor and bruising. Hypoplasia of the thumbs and radial hypoplasia are two of the most common congenital abnormalities. Conductive deafness is also common. Those with Fanconi anaemia have a higher risk for developing acute myeloid leukaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 10-month-old infant is brought to the hospital with a 3-day history of frequent watery stools and vomiting. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and is refusing to drink in the emergency department.What would be the most appropriate course of action for this child?
Your Answer: Admit for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube
Explanation:The most appropriate step in this patient would be to admit the patient for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube.Enteral rehydration:Oral rehydration is the most preferred way of rehydrating children. If a child is not tolerating small-frequent-feeds, then nasogastric rehydration is an underused next best step. The fluid can be run through a continuous pump so that it is better tolerated. Note:Intravenous fluids are effective but can have profound effects on the serum electrolyte balance if not monitored closely. Most children will tolerate fluids in an emergency department, but failure to take fluids orally is not an indication for intravenous therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which of the following would be a contraindication for the baby's discharge from the hospital?
Your Answer: Any one of the above
Explanation:Any 2-month-old child presenting with any of the above signs, should be assessed and have a history taken and physical examination made before discharge. As these may all be signs and symptoms for a condition requiring hospitalisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?
Your Answer: Sub dural haematoma
Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?
Your Answer: Diaphragm rupture
Explanation:Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented with bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, and diarrhoea. On examination, a drop in heart rate and blood pressure was noted.What is the mechanism by which the substance causes these effects?
Your Answer: Reduction in the re-uptake of acetylcholine into neurones
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism
Explanation:The symptoms of excessive salivation and diarrhoea, along with hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction, indicates excess parasympathetic nervous system activity. The patient is showing features of acetylcholine toxicity. Pesticides typically contain organophosphates that are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction, as well as at select points in the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic acetylcholine receptors can be nicotinic (more sensitive to nicotine) or muscarinic (more sensitive to muscarine). The most relevant receptors in this scenario are the muscarinic receptors as the majority are located in the parasympathetic nervous system smooth muscle, exocrine glands, and cardiac conduction system.Other options:- Accordingly, to cause the symptoms described, there must be an abundance of acetylcholine which stimulates the muscarinic receptors to enhance the parasympathetic effects. Therefore the reduction in the formation of acetylcholine option must be incorrect as this would produce the opposite effect. – Noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, and both answer options relating to noradrenaline would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects, making them incorrect.Features can predict the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD):- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Defecation/diarrhoeaCardiovascular symptoms include hypotension and bradycardia. The patient can show associated small pupils and muscle fasciculationManagement:- Atropine- The role of pralidoxime is still unclear – meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road traffic accident. You intubate and ventilate her. However, at some point you notice that the girl becomes tachycardic and her blood pressure drops. Her trachea is displaced to one side and neck veins appear quite distended. What should you do next?
Your Answer: Needle Decompression
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests tension pneumothorax which requires immediate needle decompression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cushing's ulcers
Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers
Explanation:Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Correct Answer: Methicillin
Explanation:Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he suddenly developed stridor and is struggling to breathe. The patient was brought to the emergency room tired and unable to cough. On examination, he is found to be conscious, and there is no rash. Auscultation did not reveal any abnormal breath sounds.What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?
Your Answer: Adrenaline intramuscularly
Correct Answer: Five back blows
Explanation:This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of choking. According to the BLS algorithm, the next step in managing a case of choking in a conscious child with an ineffective cough is five back blows.Other options:- Adrenaline intramuscularly: The history is similar to anaphylaxis, but the absence of a rash or oedema and the acute onset make choking more likely in this situation. Thus, adrenaline will not be of use in this patient.- CPR at a ratio of 15:2: Since the child is conscious, it is not advised. If the child were unconscious, you would commence basic life support.- Five abdominal thrusts: In the given scenario, the child is an infant. Abdominal thrusts are avoided in infants due to the risk of intra-abdominal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 2-year-old boy was admitted in the A&E with a history of a 38.4°C fever and 15 minute tonic clonic seizure episode at home. However, he is conscious now, his temperature is normal and the fit has stopped. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Febrile convulsion
Explanation:Febrile seizures are convulsions that can happen when a child, most often between the ages of six months and three years, has a fever. They usually last for less than five minutes and although the child may lose consciousness, they are relatively harmless. However, sometimes they can last for up to 15 minutes and when they are termed complex febrile seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?
Your Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding
Explanation:Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy fell and hit his head. The parents say that after the fall he cried immediately and then vomited four times. They brought him to the emergency department one hour after the event. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 15 and he has a 6 cm haematoma on the right side of his head. Neurological examination is normal and he has full memory of what happened. What would you do next?
Your Answer: Observe for 24 hours from the time of injury on the ward
Correct Answer: Observe for 4 hours from the time of injury
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that when a child’s single risk factor is 2 vomits, the child should be observed for 4 hours from the time of the injury, instead of having a CT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?
Your Answer: Abdominal trauma
Explanation:Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 6 month old baby presents with a sausage-shaped abdominal mass and a history of green vomit a few hours earlier. The baby was born at 38 weeks of gestation and immigrated recently form the Philippines with his parents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is the invagination of one segment of the intestine within a more distal segment. It presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and a palpable abdominal mass.Intussusception usually affects infants between 6-18 months old. Boys are affected twice as often as girls
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water scalding injury to his hand. On examination, his hand appears to be white but he does not complain of any pain. What is the explanation for the absence of pain in this patient?
Your Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurones
Explanation:The clinical scenario provided is highly suggestive of third-degree burns (or full-thickness burns) that may have invaded the deeper levels up to dermis, evident from the insensate nature of the lesion.Degrees of Burns:- First degree burns are superficial second-degree burns.- Second-degree burns are just deeper than that of first-degree burns but vary enormously in other properties.- Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns which are leathery in consistency, and insensate. These burns do not heal on their own. The sensory neurons present in the skin at the deeper levels are destroyed completely and hence provide a paradoxical lack of pain.- Fourth-degree burns involving the subcutaneous tissues, tendons, and bones are very difficult to manage.Assessment of the extent of the burns for the treatment employs specialized charts, such as Lund and Browder charts and Wallace rule of nines.The Lund and Browder chart is, however, considered the most accurate.Wallace’s Rule of Nines can be used for children >16 years: – Head + neck = 9%- Each arm = 9%- Each anterior part of leg = 9%- Each posterior part of leg = 9%- Anterior chest = 9%- Posterior chest = 9%- Anterior abdomen = 9%- Posterior abdomen = 9%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle following a fall from his bicycle.Which vessel is at the highest risk of injury?
Your Answer: Subclavian artery
Correct Answer: Subclavian vein
Explanation:Being anatomically situated immediately posterior to the subclavius muscle and the medial part of the clavicle, the subclavian vein is at the highest risk of injury in the above patient.As a direct tributary of the brachiocephalic vein, it’s injury poses a high risk of massive bleeding.The brachiocephalic vein rests on the first rib, below and in front of the third part of the subclavian artery, and then on scalenus anterior which separates it from the second part of the artery (posteriorly).Anatomy of the clavicle:The clavicle extends from the sternum to the acromion and helps prevent the shoulder falling forwards and downwards.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?
Your Answer: Altered sensation
Correct Answer: Absent distal pulses
Explanation:The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?
Your Answer: A 2 year old boy with heart rate of 140
Correct Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60
Explanation:Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure<1 30-40 110-160 70-901-2 25-35 100-150 80-952-5 25-30 95-140 80-1005-12 20-25 80-120 90-110>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.Which of the following can improve his current condition?
Your Answer: Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa
Correct Answer: Mannitol 20%
Explanation:All of the presenting features of the child are suggestive raised intracranial pressure. Thus, urgent treatment with 20% Mannitol can improve the child’s condition. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used in the treatment of raised intracranial pressure. It should be avoided in hypovolaemia because of its diuretic effects. Other options:- Head up at 15°: Keeping the head up at 20° in the midline will aid venous drainage. – Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa: If there is an acute rise in intracranial pressure, then lowering the CO2 to 4–4.5 kPa as a temporary measure can be beneficial. However, this must be only short-lived since it causes vasoconstriction and can impair cerebral blood flow. – 10% glucose bolus: Maintaining normoglycemia in traumatic brain injury is important. – 0.9% saline infusion: Hypertonic saline infusion of 3% can reduce intracranial pressure. 0.9% saline as a bolus could be beneficial if there were hypotension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?
Your Answer: Food
Explanation:In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?
Your Answer: Spinal
Correct Answer: Neurogenic
Explanation:Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?
Your Answer: Hypotension
Correct Answer: Pin point pupils
Explanation:Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of fever, lethargy and a reduction in feeds. On examination, the infant is hypotonic, tachypnoeic and has a CRT of 4 seconds, with the femoral pulse being barely palpable. Venous access is obtained with difficulty by inserting an interosseous needle and blood sugar level is 13. His saturation is found to be 98%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duct dependent lesion
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:Sepsis is a medical emergency that describes the body’s systemic immunological response to an infectious process that can lead to end-stage organ dysfunction and death. The fever, alongside the clinical presentation, make sepsis the likely diagnosis. A temperature >38 degrees in an infant <3months of age warrants investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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