00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is not one of them?

      Your Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Serine protease coagulation factors include: thrombin, plasmin, Factors X, XI and XII. Factor VIII and factor V are glycoproteins and factor XIII is a transglutaminase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will increase blood pressure and cause hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin is a peptide that is released in response to a decrease in blood volume and blood pressure. It has multiple functions but mainly acts to cause vasoconstriction, increase BP and release aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. It is a powerful vasoconstrictor and release of aldosterone causes increased retention of sodium and excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the tissues with elevated arterial CO2 content?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic condition in which the pH of tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is the result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations. Normally, arterial pa(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mEq/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that is very quick. If the change in pa(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man complains of headaches, weakness, cramps, and confusion; blood tests reveal...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man complains of headaches, weakness, cramps, and confusion; blood tests reveal he has severe hyponatremia. The most likely cause is:

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea or vomiting

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia occurs when the sodium level in the plasma falls below 135 mmol/l. Hyponatraemia is an abnormality that can occur in isolation or, more commonly as a complication of other medical illnesses. Severe hyponatraemia may cause osmotic shift of water from the plasma into the brain cells. Typical symptoms include nausea, vomiting, headache and malaise. As the hyponatraemia worsens, confusion, diminished reflexes, convulsions, stupor or coma may occur. The cause of hyponatremia is typically classified by a person’s fluid status into low volume, normal volume, and high volume. Low volume hyponatremia can occur from diarrhoea, vomiting, diuretics, and sweating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Incorrect

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It permits carbon dioxide to pass via facilitated diffusion

      Correct Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?

      Your Answer: Reticulocytes

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the...

    Correct

    • Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:

      Your Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal...

    Correct

    • A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal structure and no increase in serum glucose after oral intake of a protein-rich diet. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is responsible for this disorder?

      Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphatase

      Explanation:

      The most common glycogen storage disorder is von Gierke’s disease or glycogen storage disease type I. It results from a deficiency of enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which affects the ability of liver to produce free glucose from glycogen and gluconeogenesis; leading to severe hypoglycaemia. There is also increased glycogen storage in the liver and kidneys causing enlargement and various problems in their functioning. The disease also causes lactic acidosis and hyperlipidaemia. The main treatment includes frequent or continuous feedings of corn-starch or other carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Electrophoresis is used to detect antibodies (immunoglobulins) in a blood sample from the...

    Correct

    • Electrophoresis is used to detect antibodies (immunoglobulins) in a blood sample from the umbilical artery of a new born. Which antibodies have the highest percentage in a new-born?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      IgG is a monomeric immunoglobulin. It is formed by two heavy chains and two light chains and has two binding sites. Its is the most abundant antibody that is equally distributed in the blood and the tissues. It is the only antibody that can pass through the placenta and thus the only antibody present in the baby after it is born. There are four subclasses: IgG1 (66%), IgG2 (23%), IgG3 (7%) and IgG4 (4%). IgG1, IgG3 and IgG4 cross the placenta easily

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Correct

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past...

    Correct

    • A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past history of easy bruising and heavy menstrual periods. The patient was also diagnosed with Willebrand's disease. Willebrand's disease is:

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant disorder marked by the deficiency of vWF, a large protein synthesized by the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. It mediates adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium at site of vascular injury. Disease characteristics include impaired platelet adhesion, prolonged bleeding time and a functional deficiency of factor VIII (vWF is its carrier protein).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the...

    Incorrect

    • After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the peripheral blood will become an activated macrophage in this granuloma?

      Your Answer: Neutrophil

      Correct Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are leukocytes that protect the body against infections and move to the site of infection within 8-12 hours to deal with it. They are produced in the bone marrow and shortly after being produced are released into the blood stream where they circulate until an infection is detected. When called upon they leave the circulation and transform into macrophages within the tissue fluid and thus gain the capability to phagocytose the offending substance. Monocyte count is part of a complete blood picture. Monocytosis is the state of excess monocytes in the peripheral blood and may be indicative of various disease states. Examples of processes that can increase a monocyte count include: • chronic inflammation • stress response • hyperadrenocorticism • immune-mediated disease • pyogranulomatous disease • necrosis • red cell regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness....

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old diabetic man complains of headaches, palpitations, anxiety, abdominal pain and weakness. He is administered sodium bicarbonate used to treat:

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Sodium bicarbonate is indicated in the management of metabolic acidosis, which may occur in severe renal disease, uncontrolled diabetes, circulatory insufficiency due to shock or severe dehydration, extracorporeal circulation of blood, cardiac arrest and severe primary lactic acidosis. Bicarbonate is given at 50-100 mmol at a time under scrupulous monitoring of the arterial blood gas readings. This intervention, however, has some serious complications including lactic acidosis, and in those cases, should be used with great care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition that occurs in critically...

    Correct

    • Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition that occurs in critically ill patients, and can be triggered by events such as trauma and sepsis. Which of the following variables is most likely to be lower than normal in a patient with ARDS?

      Your Answer: Lung compliance

      Explanation:

      Acute (or Adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition occurring in critically ill patients characterized by widespread inflammation in the lungs. The development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) starts with damage to the alveolar epithelium and vascular endothelium, resulting in increased permeability to plasma and inflammatory cells. These cells pass into the interstitium and alveolar space, resulting in pulmonary oedema. Damage to the surfactant-producing type II cells and the presence of protein-rich fluid in the alveolar space disrupt the production and function of pulmonary surfactant, leading to micro atelectasis and impaired gas exchange. The pathophysiological consequences of lung oedema in ARDS include a decrease in lung volumes, compliance and large intrapulmonary shunts. ARDS may be seen in the setting of pneumonia, sepsis, following trauma, multiple blood transfusions, severe burns, severe pancreatitis, near-drowning, drug reactions, or inhalation injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following causes the maximum increase in the secretion of antidiuretic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes the maximum increase in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

      Your Answer: Increased plasma osmolarity

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for ADH release is increased plasma osmolarity. Decreased plasma volume is a less potent stimulus in comparison. However, decrease blood volume and arterial pressure due to severe haemorrhage does lead to ADH secretion. Hypothalamic releasing factors do not control the release of posterior pituitary hormones ADH and oxytocin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis?

      Your Answer: Response of skeletal muscles to direct electrical stimulation is weakened

      Correct Answer: Response of skeletal muscle to nerve stimulation is weakened

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disorder, myasthenia gravis leads to progressive muscle weakness. It occurs due to formation of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor of the motor endplate, which leads to impaired neuromuscular transmission. Thus, nerve stimulation will lead to a weakened muscle response, but direct electrical stimulation will bring about a normal response. Diagnostic test includes improvement of muscle weakness by small doses of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (physostigmine or edrophonium). However, a large dose of physostigmine worsens the weakness due to desensitisation of the endplate to persistent Ach. One of the investigative tools includes radiolabelled snake venom α-bungarotoxin. It is an in vitro study performed on muscle biopsy specimens and used to quantify the number of ACh receptors at the motor endplate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII:

      Your Answer: Activates factor X

      Correct Answer: Is a serine protease

      Explanation:

      Factor VII (FVII) is a zymogen for a vitamin K-dependent serine protease essential for the initiation of blood coagulation. It is synthesized primarily in the liver and circulates in plasma. Within the liver, hepatocytes are involved in the synthesis of most blood coagulation factors, such as fibrinogen, prothrombin, factor V, VII, IX, X, XI, XII, as well as protein C and S, and antithrombin, whereas liver sinusoidal endothelial cells produce factor VIII and von Willebrand factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is...

    Correct

    • A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?...

    Correct

    • The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?

      Your Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

      Explanation:

      One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - How are amino acids transported across the luminal surface of the small intestinal...

    Incorrect

    • How are amino acids transported across the luminal surface of the small intestinal epithelium?

      Your Answer: Co-transport with glucose

      Correct Answer: Co-transport with sodium ions

      Explanation:

      Once complex peptides are broken down into amino acids by the peptidases present in the brush border of small intestine, they are ready for absorption by at least four sodium-dependent amino acid co-transporters – one each for acidic, basic, neutral and amino acids, present on the luminal plasma membrane. These transporters first bind sodium and can then bind the amino acids. Thus, amino acid absorption is totally dependent on the electrochemical gradient of sodium across the epithelium. The basolateral membrane in contrast, possesses additional transporters to carry amino acids from the cell into the blood, but these are sodium-independent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      5.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General (7/10) 70%
Physiology (13/20) 65%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Passmed