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  • Question 1 - A 3 year old child was brought in by her father with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old child was brought in by her father with complaints of watery diarrhoea, vomiting and low grade fever. She looked slightly dehydrated. According to her parents, the other children in the school also have a similar illness. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      Rota virus is the leading cause of vital gastroenteritis among children from 6 months to 6 years of age. It is transferred by feco-oral route and it damages the transport mechanism in the intestinal mucosal cells which leads to electrolyte imbalance that’s why the child suffers from dehydration. Treatment of choice is rehydration and correction of electrolyte imbalance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      215.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?

      Your Answer: Cranial ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples...

    Correct

    • A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples and a systolic murmur. Her femoral pulses are absent. Her mother admits she did not have any scans during gestation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disease that affects females. It presents with wide-spread nipples, low hairline, lymphoedema, short 4th metacarpals, high-arched palate, cardiac problems, and horseshoe kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: It usually occurs distal to the ileocecal valve

      Correct Answer: It is associated with Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is one of the common causes of intestinal obstruction in children, resulting from the invagination or telescoping of one segment of the bowel into the other distal segment. It may induce bowel ischemia and necrosis, as well. It can occur as a complication of Meckel’s diverticulum. It usually occurs proximal to the ileocecal valve, and the most common presentation is ileocecal. Early signs and symptoms include cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and pulling legs up to chest area. First line treatment includes resuscitation with IV fluids and nasogastric tube. It responds well to air-enema, which is also diagnostic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party....

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party. Her friends state that she complained about palpitations prior to collapsing. On further history, it is revealed that she recently visited the dermatologist and was given an antibiotic prescription for an infected toe. She is reported to be allergic to penicillin. Her mother died of a sudden cardiac event when the girl was just 3 years old. An uncle and aunt also passed away suddenly at a young age. ECG shows sinus rhythm and a corrected QT interval of 550 ms. Which of the following most likely lead to the collapse in this young girl?

      Your Answer: Congenital long QT syndrome

      Explanation:

      Congenital LQTS arises from mutations in genes that code for ion channels within myocytes.These mutations all cause ventricular action potentials to be prolonged, resulting in a lengthened QT interval on ECG. The congenital long-QT syndrome (LQTS) is a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia syndrome that represents a leading cause of sudden death in the young. LQTS is typically characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG and by the occurrence of syncope or cardiac arrest, mainly precipitated by emotional or physical stress.LQTS type 1Most common type of congenital LQTSDefect: loss of function mutation on the KCNQ1 gene located on chromosome 11p → defective slow delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channelSubtypesJervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome Associated with congenital deafnessAutosomal recessiveAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmiasRomano-Ward syndrome No associated deafnessAutosomal dominantAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship.What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Adequate diet and observation

      Explanation:

      Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a consult with a dietician, a decision was made to supplement her nutrition through total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which of the following is a common complication associated with TPN?

      Your Answer: Deranged liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) frequently causes derangement of liver function in children. Other options:- While line sepsis and thromboembolism are recognised complications of TPN, they do not occur frequently. – A child who is on TPN will require regular blood tests because of the potential for the development of electrolyte abnormalities. Need to observe their liver function, in order to provide TPN more accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for abnormally short stature amongst children?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Familial/inherited short stature is the most likely and commonest factor resulting in short stature among the children. Klinefelter syndrome is characterised by tall stature, widely spaces nipples and infertility. Other factors include congenital heart disease, maternal deprivation and diabetes mellitus but these are the rare causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: >90%

      Explanation:

      90% of patients with meconium ileus have cystic fibrosis (CF). Indeed, in 10 – 15% of cases of CF, the patient presents with meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum following a kick to the groin. What is the most appropriate management that can be done at this stage?

      Your Answer: Exploratory surgery

      Explanation:

      The most worrying condition is testicular torsion and to exclude it exploratory surgery is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain....

    Correct

    • A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?

      Your Answer: Spina bifida occulta

      Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele

      Explanation:

      Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - We want to compare body mass index (BMI) values between children from several...

    Correct

    • We want to compare body mass index (BMI) values between children from several ethnic groups, taking into account differences in the age distributions of the groups.The appropriate analysis is:

      Your Answer: Linear regression analysis with age and ethnicity as predictors

      Explanation:

      Linear regression is a basic and commonly used type of predictive analysis. The overall idea of regression is to examine two things: (1) do a set of predictor variables do a good job in predicting an outcome (dependent) variable? (2) Which variables, in particular, are significant predictors of the outcome variable, and in what way do they–indicated by the magnitude and sign of the beta estimates–impact the outcome variable.These regression estimates are used to explain the relationship between one dependent variable and one or more independent variables. Three major uses for regression analysis are (1) determining the strength of predictors, (2) forecasting an effect, and (3) trend forecasting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to...

    Correct

    • What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?

      Your Answer: 30 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a concern that many of...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a concern that many of his friends are now taller than him. He feels that he has not grown as they have. On physical examination, sparse dark coarse hair was observed over the junction of the pubes. He reports having noticed some enlargement of his penis and growth of his testis. His testicular volume was measured to be 8 ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal puberty

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the boy is going through normal pubertal changes.In the 3 years before puberty, low pulsatile LH levels become detectable during sleep. LH and FSH are produced in the anterior pituitary and released due to pulsatile gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secreted by the hypothalamus. There is an increase in the amplitude and frequency of LH secretion as puberty approaches, which causes enlargement of the gonads. In boys, the testicles produce testosterone, and in girls, the ovaries produce oestradiol and ovarian androgens, which, with the adrenal androgens, produce secondary sexual characteristics.Note:The average age at onset of puberty is 11 years in girls. The first sign is breast bud development, followed by the appearance of pubic hair 6–12 months later. Menarche usually occurs 2–2.5 years after breast bud development. Peak height velocity in girls occurs at breast stage 2–3 and virtually always precedes menarche. The onset of puberty in boys is at 11.5 years. The first sign is testicular enlargement (>3 ml) and thinning of the scrotum. This is followed by the pigmentation of the scrotum and growth of the penis, and pubic hair follows. Peak height velocity (growth spurt) is two years later in boys than in girls and occurs at testicular stage 4–5 (i.e. testicular volume 10–12 ml), which is around 13–14 years of age. Breast enlargement occurs in 40–60% of boys (rarely, significant enough to cause social embarrassment in 10%) and is a result of oestradiol produced by the metabolism of testosterone. It usually resolves within three years. During puberty, elongation of the eye often occurs, causing short-sightedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A screening test correctly identifies 90 of 100 individuals with disease and falsely...

    Correct

    • A screening test correctly identifies 90 of 100 individuals with disease and falsely identifies a further 15 of 300 individuals without disease. Which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: The sensitivity of the test is 90%

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of a screening test can be described in a variety of ways, typically such as sensitivity being the ability of a screening test to detect a true positive, being based on the true positive rate, reflecting a test’s ability to correctly identify all people who have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all people with a condition of interest by those people testing positive on the test.The specificity of a test is defined in a variety of ways, typically such as specificity is the ability of a screening test to detect a true negative, being based on the true negative rate, correctly identifying people who do not have a condition, or, if 100%, identifying all patients who do not have the condition of interest by those people testing negative on the test.Sensitivity=[a/(a+c)]×100Specificity=[d/(b+d)]×100a: True positiveb: False Positivec: False negatived: True negative

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Correct

    • Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism results from insufficient levels of thyroid hormone in the body since birth, which is either due to dysgenesis of the thyroid gland or dyshormonogenesis. The important features of this disease include coarse facial features (macroglossia, large fontanelles, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism, etc.), failure to thrive, cardiomegaly, hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and low core body temperature among many others. Frontal bossing is the usual feature of rickets and acromegaly. Mitral regurgitation is not usually associated with congenital hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 32 weeks of gestation by...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 32 weeks of gestation by spontaneous vaginal delivery. The new-born looks floppy, irritable, and drowsy and soon has a seizure. His blood sugar levels and CRP are normal and the doctors refer the baby for urgent neuroimaging. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Intracranial haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests intracranial haemorrhage which is uncommon but prevalent in pre-term babies. The rest of the options suggest peripheral causes which do not affect the central function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet...

    Correct

    • A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision

      Explanation:

      Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when: – There are no other causes, and- The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:- If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.- If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluidContinued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old...

    Correct

    • A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?

      Your Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Shingles

      Correct Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling down while playing. The...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling down while playing. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?

      Your Answer: Facial XR

      Explanation:

      The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after suffering a blow to the face. He is applying pressure on his nose with a towel which is saturated with blood. Direct compression results in cessation of bleeding. On examination, a pink/blue mass can be seen occupying the right nostril. The rest of the ENT examination is not significant. The patient reports a blocked nose for the past few weeks. The boy is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Juvenile Angiofibroma

      Explanation:

      Juvenile angiofibroma (JA) is a rare benign vascular lesion of the skull base that affects young adolescent males. The management of JA is challenged by the abundant vascular blood supply of the lesion, along with the complex anatomy of the skull base and the young age of the affected population. JA typically affects the male population, most commonly between 9 and 19 years of age. The most frequent symptoms are nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Nasal obstruction may be bilateral despite the unilaterality of the lesion, due to nasopharyngeal extension as well as deviation of the nasal septum by the expansile lesion. Epistaxis is usually brisk and intermittent. Purulent nasal discharge and facial pain can be due to sinus drainage pathway obstruction, and conductive hearing loss indicates obstruction of the eustachian tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?

      Your Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents...

    Correct

    • A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?

      Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On examination, hypopigmented macules were found on her abdomen with acne-like eruptions on her face. Also, her fingers show small periungual fibrous papules. Her parents said that she has learning disabilities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville’s disease)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient, according to the clinical scenario provided is tuberous sclerosis. It is an autosomal-dominant disorder characterised by hamartomas located throughout the body, often prominently involving the central nervous system and skin. Two loci on chromosomes 9 and 16 have been identified to be associated with this condition. The condition has a variable expression and penetrance and is further characterised by:- Seizures (usually infantile spasms)- Developmental delay- Facial/cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum)- Periungual fibromas (pink projections from the nail folds)- Shagreen patches (leathery thickenings of the skin usually on the back) – Ash leaf macules (areas of depigmentation that become visible under a Wood’s light)- Fundoscopy may reveal white streaks along the fundal vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer: Is usually associated with lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum (also called Kaposi varicelliform eruption) is a disseminated viral illness usually associated with lymphadenopathy.It is most often caused by Herpes Simplex type 1 or type 2. Occasionally, other viruses such as coxsackievirus A16 may cause eczema herpeticum. Affected children usually develop itchy blisters and fever after coming in contact with an affected individual who may or may not display cold sores.It is characterised by an itchy and sometimes painful cluster of blisters most commonly on the face initially. This spreads over one to several weeks resulting in further crops of blisters which can become confluent. Lymphadenopathy and fever are common in these patients.The severity varies from mild illness to life-threatening, especially in immunocompromised children or young infants. It is markedly more common in children with atopic dermatitis. It is one of the few dermatological emergencies, and oral antivirals are often indicated. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be needed if there is eyelid or eye involvement. Occasionally, superadded skin infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:

      Your Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the back as well as on the chest. X-ray showed a radiolucent area around the ribs indicating callus formation. Which of the following is the most important investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Skeletal survey

      Explanation:

      Because the initial chest X-ray returned an anomaly, a skeletal survey is the best option. Also known as a bone survey, the skeletal survey is a series of X-rays that will help analyse the structure of all the bones in the body. Because the child is not very active yet presents with bruising, the child protection register should also be checked but only after a skeletal survey has been conducted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      36.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (6/6) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (4/4) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (3/3) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology And Statistics (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Passmed