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Question 1
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A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone| however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-Mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors. The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old?
Your Answer: Doing up buttons unaided
Explanation:3-year-old milestones:Social and Emotional:- Copies adults and friends – Shows affection for friends without prompting – Takes turns in games – Shows concern for crying friend – Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” – Shows a wide range of emotions – Separates easily from mom and dad – May get upset with major changes in routine- Dresses and undresses self Language/Communication- Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps – Can name most familiar things – Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” – Says first name, age, and sex- Names a friend – Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) – Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time – Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentencesCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts – Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people – Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces – Understands what “two” means – Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon – Turns book pages one at a time – Builds towers of more than 6 blocks – Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handleMovement/Physical Development- Climbs well – Runs easily – Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) – Walks up and downstairs, one foot on each stepDoing up buttons is a skill more usually seen in 5-year-olds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 4
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection. This infection can possibly result in which of the following complications?
Your Answer: Fitz- Hugh- Curtis syndrome
Explanation:Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (FHCS), or perihepatitis, is a chronic manifestation of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It is described as an inflammation of the liver capsule, without the involvement of the liver parenchyma, with adhesion formation accompanied by right upper quadrant pain. A final diagnosis can be made through laparoscopy or laparotomy via direct visualization of violin string-like adhesions or through hepatic capsular biopsy and culture. FHCS is a complication of PID. Microorganisms associated with PID are thought to spread in one of three ways:-Through spontaneous ascending infection, microbes from the cervix or vagina travel to the endometrium, through the fallopian tubes, and into the peritoneal cavity. Complications include endometritis, salpingitis, tubo-ovarian abscess, pelvic peritonitis, and perihepatitis.-Microbes can also spread via lymphatic channels such as an infection of the parametrium from an intrauterine device.-Finally, the hematogenous spread is also possible such as with tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A mother and her 2 year old girl is referred to a paediatrician on account of concerns over a possible squint. On examination the doctor uses a pen torch to assess the symmetry of the light reflex on each cornea. The following test was used to assess the child:
Your Answer: Hirschberg test
Explanation:In the Hirschberg test, the corneal reflex should fall in the same place in both eyes. If there is a malalignment then the reflection of the light will appear in different places in the two eyes. The cover test is then used to differentiate between a latent deviation, or a manifest deviation.In the Bruckner test, the direct ophthalmoscope is used to obtain a red reflex simultaneously in both eyes. If strabismus is present, the deviated eye will have a lighter and brighter reflex than the fixating eye.The swinging flashlight test is a test of the pupils response to light, and to check for a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD).The Angle Kappa test measures the angle between the line of sight and the corneal-pupillary axis. It is a monocular measurement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient was diagnosed with a fast-growing pituitary adenoma. Magnetic resonance image (MRI) scanning reveals a suprasellar extension. Which structure is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:Cranial nerve II (CN II or optic nerve) runs along the midline of the ventral surface of the brain and conveys visual information from the retina of each eye to the corresponding region of the primary visual cortex. The right half of the visual field of both eyes is processed by the left half of the retina, while the right half of the retina processes the left half of the visual field. These retinal ganglion cells project myelinated axons, carrying CN II sensory afferent fibres, through the optic chiasm, where optic nerve fibres from the nasal half of each retina decussate to the contralateral side of the brain for processing. After passing through the optic chiasm, the optic nerve becomes the optic tract that synapses to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus and subsequently projects optic radiations to the primary visual cortex (V1) of the occipital lobe. The optic tract also projects to the superior colliculus, pretectal nuclei, and suprachiasmatic nuclei. This part of the optic pathway serves the important light reflex.Due to the anatomical location of the optic chiasm superior to the pituitary gland, a suprasellar extension of a pituitary macroadenoma will lead to compression of the optic nerve fibres decussating at the optic chiasm. Impingement of these nerves prevents visual information from the temporal visual fields of each eye from reaching the processing centres in the brain, leading to peripheral vision loss
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which among the following nerves carries the sensation from the tonsillar fossa?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The glossopharyngeal nerve is the primary sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The lesser palatine nerve makes a smaller contribution. Because of this, otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.Anatomical Rationale:Each palatine tonsil has two surfaces, a medial surface which projects into the pharynx and a lateral surface that is embedded in the wall of the pharynx.The primary arterial supply is from the tonsillar artery, a branch of the facial artery. Its veins pierce the constrictor muscle to join the external palatine or facial veins. The external palatine vein is immediately lateral to the tonsil, which may result in bleeding during a tonsillectomy.Lymphatic drainage is the jugulodigastric node and the deep cervical nodes.TonsillitisThe inflammation of tonsils is usually due to bacterial aetiology (50%) – group A Streptococcus, the remainder of the causes are viral.May be complicated by the development of an abscess (quinsy), which may distort the uvula.Indications for tonsillectomy include recurrent acute tonsillitis, and enlargement causing sleep apnoea.Dissection tonsillectomy is the preferred technique with haemorrhage being the most frequent complication. Delayed otalgia may occur owing to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 8
Correct
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What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?
Your Answer: 15-20%
Explanation:Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties following routine vaccination. On examination, it was noted that he was developing swelling around the mouth and neck.What is the most appropriate next step to manage this child?
Your Answer: IM adrenaline 150 mcg (0.15ml of 1 in 1,000)
Explanation:The IM dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis in:< 6 months: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 months - 6 years: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 - 12 years: 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)Adult and child > 12 years: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress. The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline or Nebulised adrenaline- IV Hydrocortisone – pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate nutritional input?
Your Answer: 15g/kg/day
Explanation:The general target of weight gain in the neonatal intensive care unit is to replicate the intrauterine growth in the third trimester, which equates to the daily weight gain of nearly 15 g/kg/day with infants receiving 120 kcal/kg/day
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 11
Correct
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When measuring blood pressure in infants and children, which one of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: Doppler methods of auscultation are especially helpful in infants
Explanation:Using a Doppler device, you can estimate systolic BP even when the pulse is inaudible. Handheld and portable, the device uses ultrasound waves to detect the velocity of arterial blood flow. Helpful for patients with traumatic injuries or shock, the Doppler technique is also useful for children and patients whose BP is hard to hear because of oedema, obesity, vasoconstriction, or low cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a painless swelling on the superotemporal aspect of his orbit. It was smooth on examination and produced no visual disturbances. Following excision, it was found to be lined by squamous epithelium and hair follicles.Which lesion is most probably associated with these findings?
Your Answer: Dermoid cyst
Explanation:The most probable lesion in the patient is a dermoid cyst.Rationale:Dermoid cysts are embryological remnants and may be lined by hair and squamous epithelium (like teratomas). They are often located in the midline and may be linked to deeper structures resulting in a dumbbell shape to the lesion. Complete excision is required as they have a propensity to local recurrence if not excised.Note:Desmoid tumours are a different entity entirely. These lesions most commonly develop in ligaments and tendons. They are also referred to as aggressive fibromatosis and consist of dense fibroblastic lesions (resembling scar tissue). They should be managed in a similar manner to soft tissue sarcomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus about two weeks ago and started on an insulin pump. Which of the following complications is least likely to occur due to the treatment modality adopted?
Your Answer: Lipoatrophy
Explanation:Among the given options, lipoatrophy takes time to develop as it is a long-term complication of insulin therapy. Since it has only been two weeks since the initiation of insulin therapy, it is unlikely to occur so early.The risk of lipoatrophy is reduced with newer insulins and also can be avoided by site rotation.However, anaphylaxis, allergic reactions, infection and abscesses at the site of an insulin pump can occur in this patient as a complication of insulin therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic ventricular septal defect, is prepared for pulmonary artery banding through a left thoracotomy (the child is not fit for a surgical closure). The surgeon initially passes his index finger immediately behind two great arteries in the pericardial sac to mobilise the great arteries in order to pass the tape around the pulmonary artery. Into which space is the surgeon's finger inserted?
Your Answer: Horizontal pericardial sinus
Correct Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus
Explanation:Cardiac notch: is an indentation on the left lung of the heart.
Coronary sinus: a venous sinus on the surface of the heart (the posterior aspect) that receives blood from the smaller veins that drain the heart.
Coronary sulcus: a groove on the heart between the atria and ventricles.
Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and anterior to the superior vena cava.
Oblique pericardial sinus: located behind the left atrium. Accessed from the inferior side (or the apex) of the heart upwards.
Horizontal pericardial sinus: this is a made-up term. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Persistent pulmonary hypertension is NOT a recognized complication of which of the following?
Your Answer: Group B streptococcal septicaemia (GBS)
Correct Answer: Duct dependent congenital heart disease
Explanation:Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born is secondary to the failure of normal circulatory transition at birth, leading to an abnormally high pulmonary vascular resistance. This elevated resistance causes right-to-left shunting of blood and hypoxemia. It can be caused by parenchymal lung diseases (meconium aspiration syndrome, pneumonia or ARDS), lung hypoplasia (like occurring in oligohydramnios or diaphragmatic hernia), or it can be idiopathic. Other possible causes include maternal indomethacin use, group B streptococcal septicaemia, and high-pressure ventilation. Duct dependent congenital heart disease does not lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding bone age?
Your Answer: Boys' growth plates close at around age 13 to 15 years
Correct Answer: Girl's growth plates close around age 13 to 15 years
Explanation:Bone age is a valuable tool for determining the skeletal maturation in children. An X-ray of the left hand and wrist or knee is used to calculate bone age, which is then compared with the chronological age of the subject to know if the bone age is advanced or delayed. Certain standardized methods are used to score skeletal maturity, the most common methods are the Tanner-Whitehouse (TW) and Greulich-Pyle (GP) methods. The growth plate comprises a resting zone, a proliferative zone, hypertrophic cartilage zone, calcified cartilage zone, and then the ossification zone. This is the zonal distribution from the epiphysis to the diaphysis. After the closure of growth plates, spinal growth still occurs to some extent, adding up to the final height. The growth plates in boys close at around 17 to 19 years of age, while in girls, they close at around 13 to 15 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?
Your Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach. Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue. Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:- Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage- Ecchymosis- Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums- Sjogren’s syndrome- Arthralgia- Oedema- Impaired wound healing- Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 19
Correct
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A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed by generalised shaking. Doctors suspect he might have experienced a fit. History taking and clinical examination shows he has a macular erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid which has been present since birth. The lesion has not changed in size and aspect. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome
Explanation:Sturge-Weber syndrome is a genetic condition affecting various blood vessels. I causes brain, eye, and skin abnormalities, including three major features: port-wine birthmark, leptomeningeal angioma, and glaucoma. Most people are born with a port-wine birthmark that is usually located on the face, including the eyelid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Maple syrup urine disease
Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A healthy 12-month-old infant should be able to do which of the following?
Your Answer: Wave bye -bye
Explanation:Milestones of 12-month-old child are as follows:Social and Emotional- Is shy or nervous with strangers- Cries when mom or dad leaves- Has favourite things and people camera- Shows fear in some situations- Hands you a book when he wants to hear a story- Repeats sounds or actions to get attention- Puts out arm or leg to help with dressing – Plays games such as “peek-a-boo” and “pat-a-cake” Language/Communication- Responds to simple spoken requests- Uses simple gestures, like shaking head “no” or waving “bye-bye”- Makes sounds with changes in tone (sounds more like speech)- Says “mama” and “dada” and exclamations like “uh-oh!”- Tries to say words you sayCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Explores things in different ways, like shaking, banging, throwing- Finds hidden things easily- Looks at the right picture or thing when it’s named- Copies gestures- Starts to use things correctly| for example, drinks from a cup, brushes hair- Bangs two things together- Puts things in a container, takes things out of a container- Lets things go without help- Pokes with index (pointer) finger – Follows simple directions like “pick up the toy”Movement/Physical Development- Gets to a sitting position without help – Pulls up to stand, walks holding on to furniture (“cruising”)- May take a few steps without holding on- May stand alone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 22
Correct
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A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through spontaneous, vaginal delivery. She had rupture of membranes 30 hours before birth, however looked healthy and did not receive antibiotics. On admission, doctors obtained a vaginal swab. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the baby?
Your Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results
Explanation:Doctors must perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results to prevent neonatal sepsis. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of the membranes. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of membranes greater than 12–24 hours, intrapartum maternal pyrexia (> 38°C), fetal tachycardia, chorioamnionitis, pre-term birth and maternal colonisation with group B Streptococcus. In this case there are two risk factors: prolonged rupture of membranes, and pre-term birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 23
Correct
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Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true?
Your Answer: Should be obtained as part of the overall consent to the study
Explanation:Randomization is one of the ethical protocols for research work, involving unbiased sample selection. Consent is required before undertaking any research and is taken for the complete research work at once. No separate consent is required for the process of randomization. The consent should explain each and every aspect of the study, including details about the process of randomization. Only particular study designs, like Zelen design, permit the avoidance of consent to randomization but these studies have their setbacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 24
Correct
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A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:HBsAg PositiveHBeAg PositiveWhat is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?
Your Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Explanation:The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum?
Your Answer: It is associated with streptococcal infections
Explanation:Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Chronic or recurrent erythema nodosum is rare but may occur.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adults.The eruptive phase of erythema nodosum begins with flulike symptoms of fever and generalized aching. Arthralgia may occur and precedes the eruption or appears during the eruptive phase. Most lesions in infection-induced erythema nodosum heal within 7 weeks, but active disease may last up to 18 weeks. In contrast, 30% of idiopathic erythema nodosum cases may last more than 6 months. Febrile illness with dermatologic findings includes abrupt onset of illness with initial fever, followed by a painful rash within 1-2 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following are associated with port wine stains?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Correct Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Port-wine stains are a type of vascular birthmark caused by the abnormal development of capillaries in the skin. These pinkish-purplish discolorations present at birth and are associated with medical conditions such as Sturge-Weber syndrome, a neurocutaneous disorder involving the leptomeninges. Port wine stains are therefore associated with epilepsy, glaucoma or intellectual disability common in Sturge-Weber syndrome. Additional complications of Port wine stains include a loss of function if near the eye or mouth due to hypertrophy, or glaucoma if near the eyelid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Bloody stool
Correct Answer: Steatorrhoea
Explanation:CMPI ( cow’s milk protein intolerance) is an immunological reaction to one or more of the many proteins found in cow’s milk. It may be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated. The prominent signs and symptoms include sneezing, rhinorrhoea, coughing, wheezing, oral angioedema, oral itching, diarrhoea, vomiting, and bloody stools. Steatorrhea is not a recognized feature of CMPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 28
Correct
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A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the echocardiography. Which of the following condition most likely predisposes to this finding?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Several types of right-sided aortic arch exist, the most common ones being right-sided aortic arch with aberrant left subclavian artery and the mirror-image type. The variant with aberrant left subclavian artery is associated with congenital heart disease in only a small minority of affected people. The mirror-image type of right aortic arch is very strongly associated with congenital heart disease, in most cases tetralogy of Fallot. A right-sided aortic arch does not cause symptoms on itself, and the overwhelming majority of people with the right-sided arch have no other symptoms. However when it is accompanied by other vascular abnormalities, it may form a vascular ring, causing symptoms due to compression of the trachea and/or oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Correct
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Surfactant reduces the surface tension at the air/liquid interface in the lung. Which of the following cells produce surfactant in the lung parenchyma?
Your Answer: Type II pneumocyte
Explanation:Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of lipids and proteins which is secreted by the epithelial type II cells into the alveolar space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Correct
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Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic hormone) primarily acts?
Your Answer: Collecting ducts
Explanation:ADH primarily acts on the collecting ducts.Other options:- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the site of renin production.- The proximal tubule conducts isosmotic reabsorption of about 60% of sodium chloride and volume. Most of the glucose, amino acids, potassium and phosphate are absorbed here.- The loop of Henle is the site of 25% of sodium reabsorption. Active Chloride transport provides the basis for the counter current multiplier aiding urinary concentration.- The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water and acts via active sodium chloride absorption to dilute urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 31
Correct
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A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?
Your Answer: Ectoderm
Explanation:The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month later, he presents with anorexia, malaise, reduced urine output and fever. Laboratory investigations reveal: Hb - 12.6 g/dL WBC Count - 13,000/µL Urea - 30 mmol/L Creatinine - 400 µmol/L| andUrinalysis shows numerous pus cells. What is the probable cause of the presenting symptoms of the patient?
Your Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis
Explanation:Among the given options, the most likely cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is acute interstitial nephritis secondary to anti-tubercular therapy (ATT)Drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis can occur following treatment with beta-lactams, sulphonamides, rifampicin, ethambutol, and erythromycin. They can cause an acute allergic reaction with the infiltration of immune cells.Acute interstitial nephritis is said to be the most common renal complication in patients undergoing anti-TB treatment. Rifampicin is the most implicated drug, although ethambutol can also be a cause. The pathogenesis involves an immune-complex mediated acute allergic response, which leads to their deposition on renal vessels, the glomerular endothelium, and the interstitial area. Other options:Isoniazid does not affect the kidneys. Pulmonary-renal syndrome is a feature of Goodpasture’s syndrome. It is characterized by renal failure and lung haemorrhage. Severe cardiac or renal failure ensues and is complicated by pulmonary oedema, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?
Your Answer: Build a tower of nine cubes
Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors
Explanation:At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl about her language development.Which feature would NOT be associated with language delay in an 18-month-old child?
Your Answer: Failure to respond to own name
Correct Answer: Lack of imitative gesture
Explanation:18-month-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalLikes to hand things to others as play May have temper tantrums May be afraid of strangers Shows affection to familiar people Plays simple pretend, such as feeding a doll May cling to caregivers in new situations Points to show others something interesting Explores alone but with parent close by Language/CommunicationSays several single words Says and shakes head “no” Points to show someone what he wants Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Knows what ordinary things are for| for example, telephone, brush, spoon Points to get the attention of others Shows interest in a doll or stuffed animal by pretending to feed Points to one body part Scribbles on his own Can follow 1-step verbal commands without any gestures| for example, sits when you say “sit down” Movement/Physical DevelopmentWalks alone May walk up steps and run Pulls toys while walking Can help undress herself Drinks from a cup Eats with a spoon
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding the anterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: It secretes oxytocin
Correct Answer: The majority of hormone production occurs in the pars distalis
Explanation:The pituitary gland synthesizes and releases various hormones that affect several organs throughout the body.The pituitary gland is entirely ectodermal in origin but is composed of 2 functionally distinct structures that differ in embryologic development and anatomy: the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) and the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary).The anterior pituitary has three main regions:Pars distalis: Where the main hormone production occursPars tuberalis: Joins the pituitary stalk arising from the posterior pituitary glandPars intermedia: Divides the anterior and posterior parts of the pituitary gland. The pars distalis forms the majority of the adenohypophysis and resembles a typical endocrine gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a minor fall. He was initially unable to bear weight on his legs but after ibuprofen he can walk and run with a minor limp. X-ray of the leg shows no abnormality. However, ten days later a repeat x-ray is done due to persistent limp and it reveals a spiral fracture. How do you explain this?
Your Answer: Delayed periosteal reaction
Explanation:A periosteal reaction can result from a large number of causes, including injury and chronic irritation due to a medical condition such as hypertrophic osteopathy, bone healing in response to fracture, chronic stress injuries, subperiosteal hematomas, osteomyelitis, and cancer of the bone. This history is consistent with a toddler’s fracture. Here a minor, usually twisting, injury results in a spiral fracture of the tibia. An initial X-ray may appear normal as the periosteum holds the bone together preventing displacement. Ten days later a repeat X-ray will show callous formation and confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's daughter inheriting the condition?
Your Answer: This depends on the prevalence of the condition
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.Which of the following is NOT a requirement to perform imaging studies in this child?
Your Answer: E.coli UTI
Explanation:E. coli accounts for the majority of UTI’s in children. If this child responds well to treatment and has no recurrence of his symptoms, then no form of imaging is required, as per NICE advice for children aged 6 months to 3 years. Had the child been less than 6 months of age, then a USS at 6 weeks would be necessary.Other options:- Pseudomonas causes atypical UTI. This warrants ultrasonography within the acute illness phase as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Recurrent UTI is defined as two or more episodes of pyelonephritis OR 1 pyelonephritis and one cystitis OR 3 or more cystitis. It requires USS at six weeks and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Septicaemia is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Unwell 48hrs post antibiotics is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as may reflect underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 39
Correct
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A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen saturation that is less than:
Your Answer: 0.92
Explanation:In an acute and severe asthma attack the child cannot complete sentences in one breath because they are too breathless. The O2 saturation is less than 92% and PEF is between 33-50% best or predicted. In children that are 2-5 years old, HR is more than 140 bpm and more than 125 bpm in those older than 5 years old. The RR in children between 2-5 years old is more than 40/min, and more than 30/min in those older than 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with vomiting. For the past 6 months she has been experiencing weight loss, poor appetite and lethargy. When the physician inquires about the possibility of these symptoms' beings self-induced, both the patient and her family deny. Lab reports show sodium 125 mmol/l, potassium 5.5 mmol/l, urea 7.9 mmol/l and creatinine 67 µmol/l. A blood gas shows a bicarbonate of 12.4 mmol/l. Which of the following is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Correct Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Addison disease is adrenocortical insufficiency due to the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. It affects glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The onset of disease usually occurs when 90% or more of both adrenal cortices are dysfunctional. The most common symptoms are fatigue, muscle weakness, loss of appetite, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Adrenal insufficiency can be caused by autoimmune disease or suddenly stopping steroid medicines used to treat other conditions, among other causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 41
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus:
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Itchy skin conditions include:Allergy & anaphylaxisAthletes footAtopic dermatitisContact dermatitisDrug allergyErythema multiformeFolliculitisImpetigoInsect bites, stings, infestationsKawasaki diseaseLichen planusNummular eczemaPityriasis roseaPsoriasisScabiesTinea corporisToxic epidermal necrolysisUrticariaVaricellaViral exanthemNote: Miliaria rubra is itchy, miliaria profunda usually isn’t.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in the face and swollen ankles - these symptoms have been present for 4 days. The swelling began just a few days after he suffered from a mild cold with a runny nose. His only past medical history is that of eczema. His urine analysis showed the following: haematuria| proteinuria (10g/24h)| creat60umol/l| and albumin of 15g/l. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:A 10 year old child, with a history of URTI and haematuria, presents a picture consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. This condition can present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. However, an important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is the duration. IgA nephropathy is usually <10 days (commonly 4-5 day history of infection).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 43
Correct
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Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?
Your Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth
Explanation:6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 44
Correct
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A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of 0.256.Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: The paired differences are not significantly different from zero on average
Explanation:The paired sample t-test, sometimes called the dependent sample t-test, is a statistical procedure used to determine whether the mean difference between two sets of observations is zero. In a paired sample t-test, each subject or entity is measured twice, resulting in pairs of observations. Common applications of the paired sample t-test include case-control studies or repeated-measures designs.Statistical significance is determined by looking at the p-value. The p-value gives the probability of observing the test results under the null hypothesis. The lower the p-value, the lower the probability of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true. Thus, a low p-value indicates decreased support for the null hypothesis. However, the possibility that the null hypothesis is true and that we simply obtained a very rare result can never be ruled out completely. The cut-off value for determining statistical significance is ultimately decided on by the researcher, but usually a value of .05 or less is chosen. This corresponds to a 5% (or less) chance of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 45
Correct
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A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?
Your Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation
Explanation:A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 46
Incorrect
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What is the best study design to use when trying to determine a causal relationship between a certain factor and the onset of a rare disease?
Your Answer: Cohort
Correct Answer: Case–control
Explanation:Case control studies are used to determine the relationship between exposure to a risk factor and the resultant outcomes. It finds patients in the general population who have a certain condition and retrospectively searches for past exposure to possible risk factors for the disease. Controls are people who do not have the disease found in the general population. This type of study is useful for rare diseases, and is less time consuming to conduct. While cohort studies can be used to study rare diseases they measure the relative risk of developing the disease over time based on exposure. Ecological or cross-sectional studies attempt take a snapshot of a whole population, and thus are inappropriate for rare diseases as larger sample numbers are needed. A randomised control trial is better suited to determine the effect of an intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 47
Correct
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A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say that he has had frequent breath holding spells which occur almost 4 times per week. Which of the following nutritional deficiency most often results in the breath holding spells like the ones experienced by this child?
Your Answer: Iron
Explanation:Breath-holding spells are usually caused by either a change in the child’s breathing or a slowing of the heart rate. In some children, breath-holding spells may be related to iron deficiency anaemia, a condition in which the body doesn’t produce a normal number of red blood cells. Conclusion: Not only Iron deficiency anaemia but also iron deficiency alone without anaemia is associated with a risk of high-frequency cyanotic breath holding spells. Iron therapy results in reduction in spells’ frequency which was correlated with increasing ferritin and iron levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 48
Correct
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Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?
Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 49
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is originally from Ghana.An ultrasound shows evidence of gallstones. What is the most likely risk factor for the child to develop gallstones?
Your Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely risk factor in this child to develop gallstones is sickle cell disease.Note:Haemolysis is the most frequent cause for gallstones in children and the likeliest cause because of his ethnicity would be sickle cell disease. The gallstones are pigmented which form from bilirubin. 70% of patients with sickle cell disease will develop gallstones| the prevalence of gallstones is related to the rate of haemolysis.Other options:- Gilbert’s syndrome: it is a common condition in which bilirubin glucuronidation (i.e. converting bilirubin into a water-soluble form) is affected. During times of stress (viral illness, fasting, etc.) there is an excess bilirubin production, and jaundice may develop. It is a benign condition but there is some evidence of an increased risk of developing gallstones. However, sickle cell disease is a more likely risk factor in this case.- Hereditary spherocytosis: Hereditary spherocytosis is a disease of the white population and is less likely to be the underlying cause in this case.- Male gender: After puberty, the incidence of gallstones is higher in women. Before puberty, the incidence is equal.- Obesity: Obesity is a risk factor for gallstones and is thought to be behind the rising incidence among young adults. Nevertheless, haemolytic states remain the most common reason for gallstones in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 51
Correct
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Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement?
Your Answer: Low serum creatinine
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is associated with a decrease in muscle mass, which is one of the primary locations of creatinine metabolism. Due to this, plasma creatinine levels are found to be decreased in patients with anorexia. Other blood chemistry derangements in patients of anorexia nervosa include hypercortisolism, hypoglycaemia, low free T3 levels, and hypercholesterolemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 52
Correct
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A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer: Facial X ray
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 53
Correct
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A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 54
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?
Your Answer: Call ENT specialist
Explanation:A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks. He complains of intermittent pain in his epigastrium. He is otherwise healthy with no history of vomiting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite or weight. History revealed that he has had fatigue all his life leading to him missing out on sports at regular intervals at school. His mother reports that he had two episodes of hepatitis at ages 5 and 7 years. There is no family history of jaundice. He has no significant travel history.On physical examination, yellow sclera were observed. Additionally, on abdominal examination, the splenic tip was palpable at 3 cm with some tenderness of the right upper quadrant. He was found to have mild tachycardia with normal blood pressure and no fever.Blood results:- Hb: 12.6 g/dl- MCV: 104 fL- MCHC: 38 g/dL- WBC Count: 10 x 109/L- Reticulocyte count: 148 x 109/L (Normal Range 20-100 x 109/L)- Bilirubin: 34 μmol/L- LDH: 600 lμ/L (Normal Range 230-450 lμ/l)- Direct Coomb's test: NegativeAbdominal ultrasonography revealed an enlarged spleen measuring 15 cmWhat is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis based on the scenario provided above is hereditary spherocytosis.While jaundice and abdominal pain might make you think of hepatitis or cholecystitis in the first instance, the lack of fever suggests otherwise. The apyrexial presentation is against acute cholecystitis, and the past medical history reveals a chronic type of fatigue and two previous episodes of hepatitis. Furthermore, it is unlikely that the child has contracted infective hepatitis twice and now a third time! The most common cause of hepatitis in childhood is hepatitis A, however the lack of travel history to endemic areas makes this less likely. Hepatitis A is usually a mild, self-limiting disease that never presents with chronic symptoms. The chronicity of his fatigue and the blood results lead towards a haematological diagnosis. This is further substantiated by his low haemoglobin levels, high MCV and high reticulocyte count. Chronic haemolytic anaemia is the most likely cause, and the negative Coombs excludes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). Thus, leaving us with the answer as hereditary spherocytosis.Hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder that makes the cytoskeleton of red cells more fragile and therefore leads to red cell death and splenomegaly. Gallstones are a result of this red cell destruction and increased haem metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gilbert’s disease
Explanation:People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 57
Correct
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Withdrawal from which of the following substances is associated with hypersomnia, hyperphagia, irritability?
Your Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:Drug withdrawal symptoms after a period of substance abuse can lead to a range of symptoms. Amphetamines are known to cause hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and irritability, as well as vivid dreams as a result of withdrawal. Similar symptoms are found in cocaine withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal presents with symptoms such as insomnia, tremulousness and delirium. Ecstasy withdrawal includes irritation, mood swings, fatigue and insomnia. Heroin withdrawal presents with symptoms which include dilated pupils, insomnia, abdominal cramps and muscle aches. Withdrawal from prolonged cannabis use can cause depression, anxiety restlessness and insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 58
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum?
Your Answer: The typical eruption is symmetrical, tender, and with bruise like lesions to the shins, ankles, and knees
Explanation:Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis or ulceration. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides, and malignancies like some leukemias and lymphomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 59
Correct
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A female 4-week-old baby was admitted with jaundice. Her appetite for breast milk is preserved and she is playing actively and well without any other disturbances. What is the most probable cause of jaundice?
Your Answer: Breast milk Jaundice
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is thought to be associated with one or more abnormalities in the maternal milk itself. Breast milk jaundice syndrome generally needs no therapy if serum bilirubin concentrations remain below 270 mmol/l in healthy full-term infants. When the serum bilirubin concentration is above 270 mmol/l and rising, temporary interruption of breastfeeding may be indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing. A diagnosis of acute diabetic ketoacidosis was made. Which of the following regarding management is incorrect?
Your Answer: Fluid deficit should be replaced over 48, not 24 hours
Correct Answer: Bolus of insulin recommended
Explanation:The following methods are adopted for the treatment of DKA:
– Fluids: Bolus of 10 ml/kg of normal saline. Stop at three boluses to avoid precipitating cerebral oedema. The remaining deficit has to be corrected over 48 hours. Strict input/output, U&E, and pH monitoring is necessary in such patients.
– Insulin: Insulin infusion can be initiated at 0.05-0.1 unit/kg/hour. It is essential to monitor blood glucose closely, and the aim is to decrease by 2 mmol/hour.
– Potassium: Initially, it will be high, but following insulin administration, the levels drop quickly as K+ enters cells with glucose, and thus, replacement is almost always necessary.
– Acidosis: Bicarbonate is avoided unless pH is less than 7. Acidosis will get corrected with the correction of fluid and insulin deficits. The definitive treatment is directed towards correcting the underlying precipitants of DKA, e.g. sepsis, infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 61
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents with difficulty using his left hand ever since he sustained a distal humerus fracture at the age of 12. On examination, there was diminished sensation overlying the hypothenar eminence and medial one and half fingers. What is the most likely nerve injured?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely nerve injured in this case is the ulnar nerve.Ulnar Nerve:It arises from the medial cord of brachial plexus (C8, T1).It supplies motor fibres to the following structures:- Medial two lumbricals- Adductor pollicis- Interossei- Hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimiflexor carpi ulnarisIt carries sensation from the palmar and dorsal aspects of the medial 1 1/2 fingers.Patterns of damageIf the nerve is damaged at the wrist, the following features are observed:- Claw hand’: Hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits.- Wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals)- Wasting and paralysis of hypothenar muscles- A sensory loss in the medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)If the nerve is damaged at the elbow or above the ulnar paradox is observed – the fourth and fifth fingers are simply paralyzed and claw hand is less severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 62
Correct
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Haemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with which of the given laboratory findings?
Your Answer: Low platelet count
Explanation:Haemolytic uremic syndrome belongs to a heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by a triad of thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and acute kidney injury. It is one of the most common causes of renal injury in children. The clinical findings are due to thrombotic microangiopathy, which leads to arterioles and capillary wall thickening along with endothelial swelling and detachment. The significant laboratory findings include increased white cell count, raised serum urea and creatinine, increased serum LDH, decreased platelet count, haematuria, and proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 63
Correct
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An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been holding onto her both ears and crying out of pain. This has been going on for about a week and there has been no improvement in the pain despite using paracetamol and ibuprofen. On examination, the child is febrile, and her pulse is 130 beats per minute. the tympanic membranes are red and bulging on both sides. What is the most appropriate course of action in this patient?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Management of acute otitis media should begin with adequate analgesia. Antibiotic therapy can be deferred in children two years or older with mild symptoms. Antibiotics should be prescribed immediately if:- Symptoms lasting more than 4 days or not improving- Systemically unwell but not requiring admission- Immunocompromise or high risk of complications secondary to significant heart, lung, kidney, liver, or neuromuscular disease- Younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media- Otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canaHigh-dose amoxicillin (80 to 90 mg per kg per day) is the antibiotic of choice for treating acute otitis media in patients who are not allergic to penicillin, otherwise erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 64
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both arms. Ataxia and dysarthria are also observed along with occasional involuntary grimacing of the face. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Your Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 65
Correct
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A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the garden. She is unvaccinated as the parents are concerned regarding side effects. There is no contraindication to vaccinations. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: Give complete DPT vaccine course
Explanation:A complete course of DPT should be given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 66
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin. A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis. Psoriasis:Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved. Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma. Diagnosis:Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 67
Correct
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A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?
Your Answer: Streptococci viridans
Explanation:Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 68
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents with moderate acne and pustules affecting the face, back and chest.What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: An oral tetracycline for three months
Explanation:When topical agents are insufficient or not tolerated, or in cases of moderate to severe acne, especially when the chest, back and shoulders are involved, systemic antibiotics are often considered the next line of treatmentSystemic antibiotics should not be used to treat mild acne because of the risk of increasing resistance. The additional use of nonantibiotic topical agents in combination with oral antibiotics should be considered. Topical retinoids with oral antibiotics may give a faster response and be more effective than either drug used alone.Treatment with tetracyclines and erythromycin reduces P. acnes within the follicles, thereby inhibiting the production of bacterial-induced inflammatory cytokines. These agents also have inherent anti-inflammatory effects, such as suppressing leukocyte chemotaxis and bacterial lipase activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his partner whose HIV status is not known. He is concerned about his risk of acquiring HIV. He is feeling well and shows no symptoms. The physician offers him a post exposure prophylaxis, which consists of 3 different antiviral drugs. Two of these drugs act by which of the following mechanisms?
Your Answer: Inhibition of protease
Correct Answer: Inhibition of viral reverse transcriptase
Explanation:Recommended regimens3 NRTI (e.g., zidovudine, lamivudine, abacavir) OR2 NRTI (e.g., lamivudine + abacavir) AND1 NNRTI (e.g., efavirenz) OR1 PI (e.g., lopinavir) OR1 INI (e.g., raltegravir)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 70
Correct
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A young child with cystic fibrosis also suffers from malabsorption. Which of the following represent a possible state and consequence for such a child?
Your Answer: Vitamin A deficiency and night blindness
Explanation:Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins is likely in most people with Cystic Fibrosis (CF).Factors that may contribute to fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies in CF include:- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption as a consequence of pancreatic insufficiency and bile salt deficiency.- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption due to suboptimal PERT or poor adherence to PERT especially with vitamin replacement therapy.- Poor dietary intake due to anorexia or poor dietary sources of vitamins.- Poor adherence to prescribed fat-soluble vitamin supplementation.- Inappropriate vitamin supplementation regimens.- Increased utilisation and reduced bioavailability.- Short gut syndrome due to previous bowel resection.- CF-related liver disease.- Chronic antibiotic use.Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the eye (dark adaptation), skin, respiratory and immune systems. Vitamin A deficiency may cause night blindness and can proceed to xerophthalmia in CF.Severe vitamin D deficiency causes rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults.Vitamin E acts as an antioxidant reducing the effects of free radicals produced by infection and chronic inflammation, thus helping to protect cell membranes from oxidative damage.Vitamin E deficiency has been associated with haemolytic anaemia in infants and may cause ataxia, neuromuscular degeneration and compromised cognitive function. Oxidative stress is enhanced in CF due to chronic respiratory inflammation.Vitamin K is important for blood coagulation and bone health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A nervous father is concerned about the development of his 4-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at 4 months of age?
Your Answer: Smiling spontaneously is not expected at around 4 months of age
Correct Answer: The ability to string vowels together whilst babbling is not expected at around 4 months of age
Explanation:Developmental milestones at 4 months of age:Social and Emotional:Smiles spontaneously, especially at people Likes to play with people and might cry when playing stops Copies some movements and facial expressions, like smiling or frowningLanguage/CommunicationBegins to babble Babbles with expression and copies sounds he hears Cries in different ways to show hunger, pain, or being tiredCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Lets you know if he is happy or sad Responds to affectionReaches for a toy with one hand Uses hands and eyes together, such as seeing a toy and reaching for it Follows moving things with eyes from side to side Watches faces closely Recognizes familiar people and things at a distance Movement/Physical DevelopmentHolds head steady, unsupported Pushes down on legs when feet are on a hard surface May be able to roll over from tummy to back Can hold a toy and shake it and swing at dangling toys Brings hands to mouth When lying on stomach, pushes up to elbows
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 72
Correct
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Question 73
Correct
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A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past presented with a recent history of wetting himself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:As this boy has experienced significant dry spells in the past, it is unlikely that a structural abnormality is causing the enuresis. The only therapies that have been shown to be effective in randomized trials are alarm therapy and treatment with desmopressin acetate or imipramine. Bladder training exercises are not recommended. Desmopressin acetate is the preferred medication for treating children with enuresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 74
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl was accompanied by her mother to the hospital due to a change in speech, which is now an indistinct nasal speech. She is always tired by day, has restless sleep and even snores at night. What is the best management strategy?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT surgeon
Explanation:Adenoid tissue sometimes swell as a result of fighting off the infection as germs are trapped in the adenoids. Adenoid enlargement is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 75
Correct
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An 18-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of persistent palpitations. The ECG shows a regular rhythm with a rate of 200 beats/min and QRS duration of 80ms. The tachycardia spontaneously resolves and presents in sinus rhythm. The PR interval is 60 ms and QRS duration is 120 ms, there is a positive delta wave in V1. Regarding the boy's tachycardia, which of the following statements holds true?
Your Answer: Verapamil is contraindicated
Explanation:Although WPW syndrome is a type of supraventricular re-entrant tachycardia, CCBs are contraindicated in its management. This is because CCBs depress AVN conduction| the current then passes through the accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) instead, causing ventricular tachycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after suffering a blow to the face. He is applying pressure on his nose with a towel which is saturated with blood. Direct compression results in cessation of bleeding. On examination, a pink/blue mass can be seen occupying the right nostril. The rest of the ENT examination is not significant. The patient reports a blocked nose for the past few weeks. The boy is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Septal haematoma
Correct Answer: Juvenile Angiofibroma
Explanation:Juvenile angiofibroma (JA) is a rare benign vascular lesion of the skull base that affects young adolescent males. The management of JA is challenged by the abundant vascular blood supply of the lesion, along with the complex anatomy of the skull base and the young age of the affected population. JA typically affects the male population, most commonly between 9 and 19 years of age. The most frequent symptoms are nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Nasal obstruction may be bilateral despite the unilaterality of the lesion, due to nasopharyngeal extension as well as deviation of the nasal septum by the expansile lesion. Epistaxis is usually brisk and intermittent. Purulent nasal discharge and facial pain can be due to sinus drainage pathway obstruction, and conductive hearing loss indicates obstruction of the eustachian tube.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 77
Correct
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A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child’s condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?
Your Answer: Somogyi effect
Explanation:Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 78
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?
Your Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 79
Correct
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Bone age would be delayed in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21 in a 10 year old boy
Explanation:Bone age is used to determine the maturation of a child’s bones’ and is used to detect pathological growth. This is done using the X-ray of the wrist. Several conditions can either advance or delay the bone age such that they may not match the child’s chronological age. Bone age is advanced in conditions where there are prolonged or elevated sex hormone levels such as precocious puberty, or in genetic overgrowth conditions such as Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. Bone age is delayed in constitutional growth delay, chronic ill health, endocrine disorders such as growth hormone deficiencies or hypothyroidism, genetic disorders such as Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and Turner’s syndrome. Obesity is unlikely to cause growth delay.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 80
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help. She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time
Explanation:According to the Rumack-Matthew Normogram, accurate levels of paracetamol can be measured only between 4-15 hours. The levels measured before 4 hours post-ingestion would highly underestimate the level of paracetamol ingested.The patient in question presents 2 hours after ingestion. Hence the most appropriate time to measure the levels of acetaminophen would be a further 2 hours later. Other options:- Note that the treatment with NAC can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram.- Furthermore, haemodialysis is only indicated if she develops hepato-renal syndrome that is likely to occur 72-96 hours post-ingestion.- Indications for acute liver transplantation include persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome and worsening coagulopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 81
Correct
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Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?
Your Answer: Hunter's syndrome
Explanation:Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 82
Correct
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Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:
Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:Café-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:
Neurofibromatosis type I
McCune–Albright syndrome
Legius syndrome
Tuberous sclerosis
Fanconi anaemia
Idiopathic
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Basal cell nevus syndrome
Benign congenital skin lesion
Bloom syndrome
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Congenital nevus
Gaucher disease
Hunter syndrome
Maffucci syndrome
Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Pulmonary Stenosis
Silver–Russell syndrome
Watson syndrome
Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of eczema?
Your Answer: Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire
Correct Answer: Eczema Severity Questionnaire
Explanation:Eczema is an immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by intense pruritis and scaly rashes over the body. The impact of the disease can be measured by using certain scales, which include the Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire, infant’s Dermatitis Quality of Life Index, Patient-oriented Eczema Measure, and Children’s Dermatology Life Quality Index among many others. Eczema severity questionnaire is not a recognized scale to determine eczema impact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 84
Correct
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A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Low baseline TSH level
Explanation:A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 85
Correct
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A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oculogyric crisis
Explanation:Answer: Oculogyric crisisOculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 86
Correct
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A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Foreign body
Explanation:Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 87
Correct
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Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?
Your Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)
Explanation:Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 88
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling. Physical examination also reveals digital clubbing and linea nigra on her abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Clinical signs of early pregnancy-Amenorrhoea-Nausea and vomiting -Breast enlargement and tenderness -Hyperpigmentation of the areola and formation of linea nigra: Most likely due to increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone produced by the placenta -Increased urinary frequency-Fatigue-Cravings for or aversions to certain foods-Abdominal bloating and constipation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 89
Correct
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An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with his new girlfriend during which they had sexual intercourse around ten days ago. The girlfriend's HIV status is unknown, and the patient is concerned that he might have acquired HIV. He has a blood test for a 4th generation assay, testing for HIV antibody and a p24 antigen. The results come out negative, however, HIV infection cannot be ruled out as he may be presenting in the window period. Which of the following most likely explains the pathology of the window period?
Your Answer: Antibodies to HIV undetectable
Explanation:Any blood test used to detect HIV infection must have a high degree of sensitivity (the probability that the test will be positive if the patient is infected) and specificity (the probability that the test will be negative if the patient is uninfected). Unfortunately, no antibody test is ever 100 % sensitive and specific. Therefore, if available, all positive test results should be confirmed by retesting, preferably by a different test method. HIV antibody tests usually become positive within 3 months of the individual being infected with the virus (the window period). In some individuals, the test may not be positive until 6 months or longer (considered unusual). In some countries, home testing kits are available. These tests are not very reliable, and support such as pre and post test counselling is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality of the G protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Laron syndrome
Correct Answer: McCune–Albright syndrome
Explanation:McCune–Albright syndrome, characterised by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café au lait spots, sexual precocity, and hyperfunction of multiple endocrine glands, is the result of G-protein abnormality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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Primary amenorrhea is caused by all of the following EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Testicular feminisation
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:Primary amenorrhea is defined as the total absence of menarche in a girl of 14 years of age if the secondary sexual characteristics are also absent or in a girl of 16 years of age in whom normal secondary sexual characteristics are present. There are multiple causes of primary amenorrhea, but the most common are constitutional delay, imperforate hymen, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypothalamic failure, and testicular feminization. Cushing’s syndrome leads to secondary amenorrhea, which is defined as the absence of a menstrual period for 6 consecutive cycles in a girl who has achieved menarche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 92
Correct
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A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following do you expect to see?
Your Answer: High voltage T waves in the electrocardiogram
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia presents with high voltage (peaked) T waves on ECG. Other features on ECG include smaller p-waves and wider QRS complexes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 93
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?
Your Answer: Cefixime
Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 94
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis. Blood investigations reveal:ALT: 50 IU/L (0–45) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 505 IU/L (0–105)Which of the following medications has she most likely been administered in the course of her treatment?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Based on the presentation, she probably was administered co-amoxiclav.The liver function tests are highly suggestive of cholestatic jaundice, which is a classic adverse dug reaction related to co-amoxiclav use.Other options:- Erythromycin is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal (GI) disturbance.- Gentamicin is more commonly associated with renal impairment.- Meropenem does not commonly cause cholestasis but is associated with transaminitis.- Vancomycin is associated with red man syndrome on fast administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 95
Correct
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A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?
Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 96
Correct
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Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Disorders of thyroid hormone metabolism are more common than structural thyroid gland defects
Correct Answer: It may lead to prolongation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) is inadequate thyroid hormone production in new-born infants. It can occur because of an anatomic defect in the gland, an inborn error of thyroid metabolism, or iodine deficiency.CH is the most common neonatal endocrine disorder, and historically, thyroid dysgenesis was thought to account for approximately 80% of cases. However, studies have reported a change in the epidemiology, with a doubling in incidence to around 1 in 1500 live new-borns.Infants with congenital hypothyroidism are usually born at term or after term. Symptoms and signs include the following:Decreased activityLarge anterior fontanellePoor feeding and weight gainSmall stature or poor growthJaundiceDecreased stooling or constipationHypotoniaHoarse cryProlonged neonatal jaundice or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Norovirus
Explanation:Certain infections and medications cause characteristic skin lesions, which are the result of hypersensitivity reactions to these agents. A skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like circular lesions is referred to as erythema multiforme. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting with a propensity for distal extremities. The most common infectious cause is the infection with herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Other notable infectious causes of erythema multiforme include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, cytomegalovirus, HIV, hepatitis c virus, varicella zoster virus, adenovirus, and some fungal infections. Norovirus infection has not been implicated in the aetiology of erythema multiforme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions exhibits Koebner’s phenomenon?
Your Answer: Erythema multiforme
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Koebner’s phenomenon describes skin lesions that occur on damaged skin, usually in a linear fashion at the site of injury. Conditions which exhibit true Koebnerisation include psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosis, vitiligo, Kaposi sarcoma and SLE. Conditions such as erythema nodosum or multiforme, or Lyme disease and Impetigo do not exhibit Koebner’s phenomenon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly rash that is more profound on the extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. It is also found on his trunk. However, the flexor surfaces, face and neck are spared. It has been present for 4 months. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ichthyosis vulgaris
Explanation:Ichthyosis vulgaris presents clinically with xerosis, hyperkeratosis, excess scaling, keratosis pilaris, and palmar and plantar hyperlinearity. It most commonly affects the extensor surfaces of the limbs and spares flexor surfaces, the face, and the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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