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Question 1
Correct
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An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia
Explanation:A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 2
Correct
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Correct
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An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 4
Correct
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Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer: Scoliosis
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis (aka Von Recklinghausen’s disease) includes: neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma, optic nerve tumours, scoliosis and acoustic neuromas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?
Your Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton
Explanation:The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 6
Correct
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A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?
Your Answer: Reassure
Explanation:A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:
Your Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose
Explanation:The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 8
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?
Your Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia
Explanation:Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and soles of the extremities?
Your Answer: Tinea corporis
Explanation:Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body. It produces an itchy rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Diagnosis can be made by skin examination. All other mentioned conditions do not affect the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?
Your Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?
Your Answer: Cholesterol crystals
Explanation:Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands?
Your Answer: 0.7
Explanation:The submandibular glands provide the bulk of salivary secretions contributing close to 70%. The sublingual glands provide 5% and the remainder from the parotid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Congenital retinal pigment epithelial hypertrophy (CHRPE) suggests a diagnosis of Peutz-Jegher syndrome
Correct Answer: Intestinal hamartomatous polyps are seen in Cowden syndrome
Explanation:Colonic Polyposis and neoplasia are often seen in Cowden Syndrome which is a hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. Patients with Cowden syndrome have an increased risk for colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome?
Your Answer: Normal IQ
Explanation:DiGeorge syndrome is one of the most common microdeletion syndromes, resulting from 22q11 deletion. 10% of the cases can be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, while 90% are sporadic. The syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of both T and B-cell lines along with hearing loss, 20-fold increased lifetime chances of developing schizophrenia, renal abnormalities, congenital heart defects, and a borderline or low IQ. Distinctive facial features include micrognathia, long face, short philtrum, cleft palate, and small teeth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more than the current standard treatment (95% confidence interval minus 2 to 22).Which of the following statements is most accurate?
Your Answer: If the results are from a randomised controlled trial they can be believed to be accurate
Correct Answer: The difference is not statistically significant
Explanation:If the 95% confidence interval contains zero (more precisely, the parameter value specified in the null hypothesis), then the effect will not be significant at the 0.05 level.If the 95% CI for the DIFFERENCE between the 2 groups contains the value 0, this means that the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Conversely, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 0, then the p-value will be strictly less than 0.05. The same applies when comparing groups using a ratio, such as an odds ratio or risk ratio. When using a RATIO instead of a DIFFERENCE, the situation of no difference between the 2 groups will be indicated by a value of 1 instead of 0. If the ratio equals to 1, the 2 groups are equal. Hence, if the 95% CI of the ratio contains the value 1, the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Alternatively, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 1, the p-value is strictly less than 0.05.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 6 year old child who has been developing normally until the age of 18 months, is now being investigated for developmental delay. The girl started losing her acquired skills and stopped walking. During the clinical examination she is holding her hands together and twisting and turning them. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Rett syndrome is a disorder that affects the brain and occurs most commonly in girls. It presents with a period of normal development followed by severe problems with language and communication, learning, coordination, and other brain functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?
Your Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following features is least likely to be present in a 14-year-old girl with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Infertility
Explanation:A patient with Down’s syndrome is likely to be subfertile rather than infertile.Down’s syndrome:The clinical features of Down’s syndrome include:- Face: upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in iris, protruding tongue, small ears, and round/flat face- Flat occiput- Single palmar crease, pronounced ‘sandal gap’ in the first interdigital space of the feet.- Hypotonia- Congenital heart defects (40-50%)- Duodenal atresia- Hirschsprung’s diseaseThe cardiac complications in these patients include:- Endocardial cushion defect (40%)- Ventricular septal defect (30%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (5%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (5%)The complications that occur later in the life of the patient include:- Subfertility: Males are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis. Females, however, are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.- Learning difficulties- Short stature- Repeated respiratory infections (+hearing impairment from glue ear)- Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia- Hypothyroidism- Alzheimer’s disease- Atlantoaxial instability
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A study shows that of children with asthma, 25% have a first-degree relative with asthma compared with only 10% of a sample of children without asthma. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Having a first-degree relative with asthma is predictive of childhood asthma
Correct Answer: To interpret the results we need to know how the samples were selected
Explanation:Observational studies fall under the category of analytic study designs and are further sub-classified as observational or experimental study designs. The goal of analytic studies is to identify and evaluate causes or risk factors of diseases or health-related events. The differentiating characteristic between observational and experimental study designs is that in the latter, the presence or absence of undergoing an intervention defines the groups. By contrast, in an observational study, the investigator does not intervene and rather simply “observes” and assesses the strength of the relationship between an exposure and disease variable.Three types of observational studies include cohort studies, case-control studies, and cross-sectional studies. Case-control and cohort studies offer specific advantages by measuring disease occurrence and its association with an exposure by offering a temporal dimension (i.e. prospective or retrospective study design). Cross-sectional studies, also known as prevalence studies, examine the data on disease and exposure at one particular time point. Because the temporal relationship between disease occurrence and exposure cannot be established, cross-sectional studies cannot assess the cause and effect relationshipDisadvantage of Cohort study is Susceptible to selection bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 22
Correct
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A patient undergoes investigation for chronic upper urinary tract obstruction with intravenous urography (IVU).The patient should be informed about which severe complication of IVU?
Your Answer: Contrast hypersensitivity
Explanation:Allergy: A history of a prior allergic-like reaction to contrast media is associated with an up to a 5-fold increase in the likelihood of experiencing a subsequent reaction. Also, any patient with a predilection to allergic reactions may predispose them to a reaction after the administration of contrast media. Given the increased risk of severe life-threatening anaphylaxis related to the administration of contrast media in the setting of the history of atopy, the risk versus benefits should be discussed before following through with the procedure. A premedication regimen may be used to reduce the risk of anaphylaxis.Asthma: A history of asthma may be indicative of a higher likelihood of developing a contrast reaction. Cardiac status: Attention must be turned to patients with significant cardiac disease (congestive heart failure, aortic stenosis, severe cardiomyopathy, and/or pulmonary hypertension), as higher volumes and osmolality of contrast material may result in an increased risk for a contrast reaction.Renal insufficiency: Contrast nephrotoxicity is defined as the rapid deterioration of renal function after the administration of contrast media when no other aetiology can be determined from the clinical records. The major predisposing risk factors include pre-existing renal insufficiency (defined as serum creatinine level >1.5 mg/dL) and diabetes. Other risk factors include dehydration, cardiovascular disease, the use of diuretics, advanced age (>70 years old), hypertension, and hyperuricemia. Obtaining multiple contrast-enhanced studies within 24 hours is also thought to increase the risk for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity. Miscellaneous: Relative contraindications to the use of high osmolality iodinated contrast media (HOCM) in patients with pheochromocytoma, sickle cell disease, and multiple myeloma have been reported. Although the administration of low osmolality or iso-osmotic contrast media may be beneficial in patients with pheochromocytoma and sickle cell disease, little evidence suggests that these agents mitigate the risks associated with multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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All of the following are features of tinea corporis EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Flat, red scaly lesions progressing to annular lesions with central clearing
Correct Answer: It is less common on glabrous skin
Explanation:Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body, including the glabrous skin. It produces an erythematous itchy skin rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Lesions can appear as concentric circles that overlap, referred to as tinea imbricate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?
Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct
Explanation:The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Advanced paternal age is a risk factor for which of the following diseases?
Your Answer: Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma
Explanation:Advancing paternal age has been linked with lower quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility and an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 26
Correct
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A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing an NG tube. A Chest /Abdominal X-ray is performed which shows an NG tube coiled at T3/4 and a gasless abdomen. Which of the following operations is likely to be required?
Your Answer: Laparotomy and open gastrostomy
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia refers to a congenitally interrupted oesophagus. One or more fistulae may be present between the malformed oesophagus and the trachea. The lack of oesophageal patency prevents swallowing. In addition to preventing normal feeding, this problem may cause infants to aspirate and literally drown in their own saliva, which quickly overflows the upper pouch of the obstructed oesophagus. If a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is present, fluid (either saliva from above or gastric secretions from below) may flow directly into the tracheobronchial tree.The complete absence of gas in the GI tract denotes the absence of a distal tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF)| however, distal fistulae simply occluded by mucous plugs have been rarely reported.If no distal TEF is present, a gastrostomy may be created. In such cases, the stomach is small, and laparotomy is required. In all cases of oesophageal atresia in which a gastrostomy is created, care should be taken to place it near the lesser curvature to avoid damaging the greater curvature, which can be used in the formation of an oesophageal substitute. When a baby is ventilated with high pressures, the gastrostomy may offer a route of decreased resistance, causing the ventilation gases to flow through the distal fistula and out the gastrostomy site. This condition may complicate the use of ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 27
Correct
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A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?
Your Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference
Explanation:The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a line and start cutting with scissors?
Your Answer: 2- 2 1/2 years
Explanation:Fine motor development involves greater use of the hands to perform more precise tasks. By 6 -12 months children should be able to reach for small objects and pass an object from one hand to the other. From 1 -2 years they can perform more complex tasks such a building a tower of blocks, feeding themselves, and turning knobs. In terms of pencil skills, they should be able to imitate scribbles and then spontaneously scribble. By the age of 2 years they can draw a line, and by three they can draw a circle. From the age of 3.5 they can draw a cross, 4.5 – a square, 5 – a triangle, and 6 a diamond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 29
Correct
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A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting blood glucose. Her HBA1c was found to be 31 mmol/mol (5.0%). What is the most probable co-existing condition that can lead to these unusual HBA1c levels?
Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Explanation:HbA1c stands for glycated haemoglobin. In patients with haemolytic diseases associated with a shortened RBC survival, HbA1c levels can be unusually low despite controlled diabetes mellitus.These haemolytic diseases can include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency and sickle cell anaemia.HbA1c:It is a measure of non-enzymatic glycation which occurs due to haemoglobin’s exposure to plasma glucose. As plasma glucose increases so does HbA1c.The level of HbA1c quantitively assesses the control of diabetes mellitus over the last 120 days (as this is the life span of a red blood cell).Haemoglobin type A is separated on cation exchange chromatographyOther subsections include HbA1O, HbA1a, HbA1b.According to the updated NICE recommendations (2015):The target level of HbA1c in children with T1DM is 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. It is monitored every three months. Better control is associated with fewer long term complications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 31
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?
Your Answer: Lyme disease
Explanation:Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests. Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with a pigmented lesion on her back. A melanoma is suspected. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?
Your Answer: 2mm punch biopsy from the centre of the lesion
Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of the lesion
Explanation:Melanoma, a highly malignant tumour arising from melanocytes, is the most common life-threatening dermatological disease. Risk factors include UV radiation exposure, particularly in light-skinned individuals that are easily sunburned, increasing age, family history, and immunosuppression. Lesions that are suspicious for melanoma should be excised with complete margins. Radical excision is not routinely undertaken for diagnostic purposes and therefore if subsequent histopathological assessment determines that the lesion is a melanoma a re-excision of margins may be required.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cm
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Correct
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A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?
Your Answer: Perineum
Explanation:Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 34
Correct
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Which of the following is true about haemophilia C?
Your Answer: Prothrombin time (PT) is normal
Explanation:In haemophilia C, The severity of the deficiency is based on plasma factor XIC (clotting) activity. Major factor XI deficiency is present when the activity of factor XI in plasma is less than 1-15 IU/dL.In major deficiency factor XI, bleeding is related to injury, especially when trauma involves tissues rich in fibrinolytic activators, such as the oral mucosa, the nose, and the urinary tract. Unlike patients with severe haemophilia A or B, patients with major factor XI deficiency do not spontaneously bleed.The aPTT is usually prolonged in factor XI deficiency (but depends on the sensitivity of the reagent and test system–partial deficiency can be missed), whereas the PT and TT are normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 10 hour old baby who was born by emergency caesarean section, is being observed for foetal distress. She has a displaced apex beat and decreased air entry on the left side of her chest. A scaphoid abdomen is seen on abdominal examination but all else is unremarkable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation:Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic herniaCongenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) occurs when the diaphragm muscle — the muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen — fails to close during prenatal development, and the contents from the abdomen (stomach, intestines and/or liver) migrate into the chest through this hole.Examination in infants with congenital diaphragmatic hernias include the following findings:Scaphoid abdomenBarrel-shaped chestRespiratory distress (retractions, cyanosis, grunting respirations)In left-sided posterolateral hernia: Poor air entry on the left, with a shift of cardiac sounds over the right chest| in patients with severe defects, signs of pneumothorax (poor air entry, poor perfusion) may also be foundAssociated anomalies: Dysmorphisms such as craniofacial abnormalities, extremity abnormalities, or spinal dysraphism may suggest syndromic congenital diaphragmatic herniaIleal atresia is a congenital abnormality where there is significant stenosis or complete absence of a portion of the ileum. There is an increased incidence in those with chromosomal abnormalities. Ileal atresia results from a vascular accident in utero that leads to decreased intestinal perfusion and subsequent ischemia a segment of bowel. This leads to narrowing, or in the most severe cases, complete obliteration of the intestinal lumen. In the postnatal period, an abdominal radiograph will show air in the dilated loops of proximal bowel. An ileal atresia is often discovered prenatally at a routine prenatal ultrasound scan or following the development of polyhydramnios. On ultrasound, there is frequently a proximal dilated intestinal segment.Meconium Ileus (MI) is a condition where the content of the baby’s bowel (meconium) is extremely sticky and causes the bowel to be blocked at birth. In most cases the bowel itself is complete and intact but it is just the inside that is blocked.In some cases there has been a twist of the bowel before birth, which has caused the bowel to be blind ending (an atresia). Most babies with meconium ileus (90%) have Cystic Fibrosis (CF) and it is this that has caused the sticky meconium. Meconium ileus is a rare condition affecting only 1 in 25,000 babies. There is normally a delay in your baby passing meconium (black sticky stool normally passed within 24 hours of delivery) and your baby may also be reluctant to feed and may vomit a green fluid called bile which would normally pass through the bowel.Your baby may be uncomfortable because of constipation and trapped air in the bowel and the abdomen (tummy) will become distended. Some babies present at delivery with a distended abdomen and may be unwell due to infection around the bowel.Pyloric stenosis is a problem that affects babies between birth and 6 months of age and causes forceful vomiting that can lead to dehydration. It is the second most common problem requiring surgery in new-borns. The lower portion of the stomach that connects to the small intestine is known as the pylorus. In pyloric stenosis, the muscles in this part of the stomach enlarge, narrowing the opening of the pylorus and eventually preventing food from moving from the stomach to the intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is struck on the left eye by a tennis ball. Following the event, he immediately complains of eye discomfort and dimming of vision in the affected eye. Three hours later, in the emergency department, the assessment of his visual acuity revealed that he can see 6/24 on a Snellen chart.Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of this boy?
Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Hyphaema
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be hyphaema.The acuity has varied because the blood has been settling in the anterior chamber of the eye, thus allowing a reasonable level of visual acuity. The size of the tennis ball (which is not as harmful as a squash ball in the eye) and the fact that it was struck from a distance would cause a moderately significant injury due to pressure to the globe. Other options:- The absence of severe pain makes a large corneal abrasion less likely. – Vitreous haemorrhage would lead to very poor acuity, more likely ‘hand movements only’. – A retinal detachment or traumatic cataract would not produce such immediate symptoms, and if they did occur it would probably be in the presence of more extensive eye trauma and pain, with additional signs of both hyphaema and vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 37
Correct
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A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains significant damage to his frontal lobe.Which of the following would you expect him to have?
Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia
Explanation:Neuroanatomically, the frontal lobe is the largest lobe of the brain lying in front of the central sulcus. It is divided into 3 major areas defined by their anatomy and function. They are the primary motor cortex, the supplemental and premotor cortex, and the prefrontal cortex. Damage to the primary motor, supplemental motor, and premotor areas lead to weakness and impaired execution of motor tasks of the contralateral side. The inferolateral areas of the dominant hemisphere are the expressive language area (Broca area, Brodmann areas 44 and 45), to which damage will result in a non-fluent expressive type of aphasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions?
Your Answer: Congenital aqueduct stenosis
Correct Answer: Bacterial meningitis
Explanation:Hydrocephalus is a serious medical condition resulting from excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain leading to abnormal pressure build-up inside the brain. Hydrocephalus can be categorized into two types according to the flow of CSF between the ventricles. When the CSF flows freely between the ventricles, but is blocked after it exits the ventricular system, the hydrocephalus is said to be a communicating hydrocephalus. When the flow of CSF within the ventricles is blocked, the resulting hydrocephalus is termed as obstructive, or non-communicating. The communicating hydrocephalus is caused by insufficient reabsorption of CSF in the subarachnoid space, which is also observed in cases of bacterial meningitis, in which inflammatory process leads to the thickening of the leptomeninges and thereby reduces CSF reabsorption. Arnold Chiari malformation is associated with obstructive hydrocephalus due to blocked ventricles. Congenital aqueduct stenosis causes the blockage of third and lateral ventricles. Congenital atresia of the foramen of Monro leads to blocked lateral ventricles and thus results in obstructive hydrocephalus. Tumour of the posterior fossa is associated with blockage of the fourth ventricle outflow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 40
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: It may lead to prolongation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) is inadequate thyroid hormone production in new-born infants. It can occur because of an anatomic defect in the gland, an inborn error of thyroid metabolism, or iodine deficiency.CH is the most common neonatal endocrine disorder, and historically, thyroid dysgenesis was thought to account for approximately 80% of cases. However, studies have reported a change in the epidemiology, with a doubling in incidence to around 1 in 1500 live new-borns.Infants with congenital hypothyroidism are usually born at term or after term. Symptoms and signs include the following:Decreased activityLarge anterior fontanellePoor feeding and weight gainSmall stature or poor growthJaundiceDecreased stooling or constipationHypotoniaHoarse cryProlonged neonatal jaundice or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?
Your Answer: Build a tower of nine cubes
Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors
Explanation:At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension about 10 days later. What would be the characteristic blood test finding in this condition?
Your Answer: Elevated antinuclear antibody
Correct Answer: Depressed CH 50 level
Explanation:Because the medical history included tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension, there is a strong suspicion of a case of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN). Patients with PSGN usually have serological findings showing depressed serum haemolytic component CH50 and serum concentrations of C3. Sometimes depressed C4 levels are also apparent, but not always, therefore, the answer to this question is: depressed CH50 level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal pulses and otherwise normal examination. There are no dysmorphic features on the routine first-day neonatal check. What is the MOST appropriate action to be taken immediately?
Your Answer: Four limb blood pressure
Correct Answer: Pre-and post-ductal saturations
Explanation:Certain CHDs may present with a differential cyanosis, in which the preductal part of the body (upper part of the body) is pinkish but the post ductal part of the body (lower part of the body) is cyanotic, or vice versa (reverse differential cyanosis). The prerequisite for this unique situation is the presence of a right-to-left shunt through the PDA and severe coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption or severe pulmonary hypertension. In patients with severe coarctation of the aorta or interruption of the aortic arch with normally related great arteries, the preductal part of the body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA and LV, whereas the post ductal part is supplied by deoxygenated systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, main pulmonary artery (MPA) and the PDA. In the new-born with structurally normal heart, a differential cyanosis may be associated with persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. In the cases of TGA with coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption, the upper body is mostly supplied by systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, and ascending aorta, whereas the lower body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA, LV, MPA, and then the PDA. For accurate detection of differential cyanosis, oxygen saturation should be measured in both preductal (right finger) and post ductal (feet) parts of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination, her eyes were red. But she denied any ocular or visual discomfort.Which of the following should be suspected in this patient?
Your Answer: Congenital cataract
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:When a child with joint problems presents with red-eye, the likelihood of anterior uveitis must be excluded by involving an ophthalmologist in the assessment. This is because uveitis is the most common extra-articular manifestation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Other options:- Cataract: It does not give rise to a red-eye, but leukocoria. Often this would have been picked up at an earlier age. – A patient with a corneal foreign body almost would almost invariably give a suspicious history (onset while playing outdoors etc.), as well as have marked symptoms of ocular discomfort (red, watery and painful eyes). – A child with periorbital cellulitis often presents acutely unwell and distressed. – A child with an uncorrected refractive error often complains of being unable to see in class and does not normally present with ocular redness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A new-born baby with confirmed trisomy 21 presents with bilious vomiting and an abdominal X-ray at 1 day of age showing a ‘double-bubble’ appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malrotation volvulus
Correct Answer: Duodenal Atresia
Explanation:Congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).Presenting symptoms and signs are the results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.Once delivered, an infant with duodenal atresia typically has a scaphoid abdomen. One may occasionally note epigastric fullness from dilation of the stomach and proximal duodenum. Passing meconium within the first 24 hours of life is not usually altered. Dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance soon follow unless fluid and electrolyte losses are adequately replaced. If intravenous (IV) hydration is not begun, a hypokalaemic/hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria develops, as with other high GI obstruction. An orogastric (OG) tube in an infant with suspected duodenal obstruction typically yields a significant amount of bile-stained fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections)?
Your Answer: Panic attacks
Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder
Explanation:A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when:- Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet fever.- The symptoms of OCD or tic symptoms suddenly become worse following a strep infection.The symptoms are usually dramatic, happen “overnight and out of the blue,” and can include motor or vocal tics or both and obsessions, compulsions, or both. In addition to these symptoms, children may become moody or irritable, experience anxiety attacks, or show concerns about separating from parents or loved ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 47
Incorrect
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All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except:
Your Answer: Addison’s disease
Correct Answer: Di-George syndrome
Explanation:Among the given options, Di-George syndrome is not associated with adrenal gland disorders.Di-George syndrome is characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletionOther options:- Addison’s disease is a result of adrenal hypofunction and may present with collapse secondary to a salt-losing crisis.- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia: CAH is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme (classically 21-hydroxylase deficiency) in the biosynthetic pathway in the adrenal cortex, leading to insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone, and a build-up of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.- Cushing’s syndrome is a syndrome of cortisol excess. An adrenal tumour is a primary cause.- Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine releasing tumour of the adrenal gland/s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malaria with supra added chest infection
Correct Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis
Explanation:The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of green vomiting. Upon clinical examination, doctors notice an acutely swollen mass located in the groin, extending to the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis and what’s the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia, emergency surgery
Correct Answer: Incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia, analgesia, sedation and attempt to reduce
Explanation:An incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and intestinal obstruction. It is characterized by the appearance of a tender mass in the inguinal area. Manual reduction in children requires analgesia and sedation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 50
Correct
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Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer: Hirsutism
Explanation:Treacher Collins syndrome is a congenital disorder transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. The basic abnormality is the TCOF 1 gene mutation, which leads to a multitude of clinical features, of which the most striking is the symmetrical craniofacial deformities. Important clinical features include conductive deafness, coloboma of lower eyelids, cleft palate, antimongoloid (short and downward slanting) palpebral fissures, deformed or absent ears, sleep apnoea, and airway issues. Hirsutism is not a recognized feature of this syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?
Your Answer: The head-righting reflex is absent
Correct Answer: The Moro reflex is absent
Explanation:Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the first symptom or sign of a congenital cataract in a 1-year old?
Your Answer: A ‘white’ red reflex
Correct Answer: A strabismus
Explanation:The most obvious sign of a congenital cataract in a child less than 1 year would be a strabismus/squint. A 12 month old child is unable to complain of loss of visual acuity and the child is likely to see well in one eye ruling out clumsiness. Amblyopia may also be difficult to test at this age unless it presents with the strabismus. ‘White’ red reflexes usually only present in very mature congenital cataracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal| however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?
Your Answer: Capillary blood gases
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 54
Correct
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A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?
Your Answer: Macrophage
Explanation:The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
Basophils are not present.
The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 6 week old girl presents with intermittent rectal bleeding. She is breastfed and otherwise healthy. Doctors suggest the baby has allergic proctitis. What of the following should the mother do and what should she feed her baby at this point?
Your Answer: Continue to breast-feed| mother to use soya milk instead of cow’s milk
Correct Answer: Continue to breast-feed| mother to go onto a strict milk- and soya-free diet
Explanation:This is probably a case of protein-induced allergic proctitis, due to dietary protein transmitted through the mother to the breast-fed child. The mother should go on a milk-free and soya-free diet but continue to breast-feed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the community clinic with constipation. During the examination, she goes into a seizure. The physician carries her to the treatment room and administers oxygen. After 5 minutes, the fits continue, and there is lack of buccal midazolam. Which of the following would be the best strategy in this case?
Your Answer: Give 1 g rectal paracetamol
Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam
Explanation:Diazepam given rectally may be helpful in treating prolonged convulsions outside and within hospital when intravenous injection is not possible. A rectal dose of 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 10 mg) of injectable diazepam, undiluted or diluted with a 50% propylene glycol solution, can stop seizures in up to 80% of children. There are few adverse reactions. Seizures in children usually cease spontaneously within 5-10 minutes and are rarely associated with significant sequelae. The chance of a seizure stopping spontaneously decreases significantly after 10-15 minutes. Similarly, the efficacy of anticonvulsant medication decreases after 10-15 minutes of fitting and the risk of adverse effects increases. Convulsive seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes constitute status epilepticus and may be complicated by cardio respiratory depression and brain injury. Diazepam or clonazepam, given intravenously, is generally the drug of choice for the emergency treatment of convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous diazepam may be difficult to administer to the young convulsing child and, because of the need for intravenous access, is not ideal for rapid treatment in the community by non-medical carers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 57
Correct
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A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician with vomiting, joint pains, diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals a purpuric rash on her legs and over the belt area. She has microscopic haematuria, proteinuria and RBC casts on urine testing. Which of the underlying diagnoses is most likely in this case?
Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?
Your Answer: Intravenous 10% dextrose at 150 mL/kg day
Correct Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding
Explanation:Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy is hit by a car at a speed of 40 mph. He sustained a head injury and was intubated at the scene due to reduced GCS. In the emergency department, he is stable with no chest abnormalities on examination. Some bruising was noted in the lower abdomen. Which of the following would be the most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child?
Your Answer: CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis
Correct Answer: CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR
Explanation:The most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child would be CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis and chest X-ray (CXR).The C-spine cannot be cleared, this alongside a multi-trauma presentation means a CT C-spine is indicated rather than X-rays alone. The imaging modality for blunt trauma to the chest is CXR| if this shows significant thoracic trauma, a CT chest should be considered. Other options:- CT Head and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR and X-ray C-spine: This child is at risk of C-Spine injury following the mechanism of trauma. He had a reduced GCS, has undergone a multi-region trauma and is now intubated. NICE head injury guidelines, therefore, recommend using CT.- CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis X-rays: Imaging of the chest is required following blunt trauma and for endotracheal tube position.- MRI Head: If there were concerns of abnormal neurology, then spinal MRI could be considered.- Whole-body CT: It is not recommended in children in view of the high radiation doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp?
Your Answer: Tinea capitis
Correct Answer: Cutaneous lupus erythematous
Explanation:Pityriasis amiantacea: This condition is characterized by thick, asbestos-like scales on the scalp and is often associated with psoriasis or seborrheic dermatitis.
Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis: Also known as cradle cap, this condition causes greasy, yellowish scales on the scalp.
Tinea capitis: A fungal infection of the scalp that leads to scaling, hair loss, and sometimes redness and swelling.
Cutaneous lupus erythematosus: While lupus can cause skin lesions, it is less commonly associated with a scaly scalp compared to the other conditions listed. It can cause hair loss and erythema, but significant scaling is not a primary feature.
Scalp psoriasis: This condition is well-known for causing thick, silvery scales on the scalp
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 5 month old girl was admitted to the emergency department with reduced movement of her right arm. History reveals she was born at term, 4.5 kg and via natural delivery. Her mother reports her head was stuck for a while before she was fully delivered. Postnatal examination revealed reduced movement of her right arm as well but was thought to improve over time. The baby cannot sit and her right arm is flaccid, internally rotated, adducted, and extended. The reflexes are absent in the right arm. Which of the following investigations would provide the most useful information?
Your Answer: CT scan
Correct Answer: MRI scan
Explanation:The vignette describes an infant with a sustained post-delivery brachial plexus injury that does not improve with time. MRI is the most appropriate intervention to assess the injury and evaluate the treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 63
Correct
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A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?
Your Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 64
Correct
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A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits she often has to repeat herself to be heard. History reveals that the girl often watches television in high volume. Weber test reveals that the sounds are louder on the left side. What can you conclude from these findings?
Your Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.
Explanation:To get more information regarding hearing loss, a physician should perform both Rinne and Weber tests. Weber test alone cannot tell which side is affected.Rinne test – a vibrating tuning fork (typically 512 Hz) is placed initially on the mastoid process behind each ear until sound is no longer heard. Then, without re-striking the fork, the fork is then quickly placed just outside the ear with the patient asked to report when the sound caused by the vibration is no longer heard. A normal or positive Rinne test is when sound is still heard when the tuning fork is moved to air near the ear (air conduction or AC), indicating that AC is equal or greater than (bone conduction or BC).Weber’s test – tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears. The patient is then asked which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localised to the unaffected side however in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localised to the affected side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 6 month old child was brought in after choking on a foreign body, which had resulted in the child having difficulty breathing. The best possible site for the incision would be?
Your Answer: Rectus sheath muscle
Correct Answer: Cricoid cartilage
Explanation:Cricothyroidectomy is done in life threatening condition, where an incision is made in cricothyroid membrane to establish a patent airway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 66
Incorrect
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Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: Neonatal macrosomia
Correct Answer: A single umbilical artery
Explanation:An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?
Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal
Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal
Explanation:Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.Functions of cortisol:- Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.- Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.- Increases insulin resistance.- Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.- Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.- Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?
Your Answer: Foetal death
Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves
Explanation:Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?
Your Answer: Increase targeted tidal volume
Correct Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume
Explanation:Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4–6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2 days. She is lethargic and persistently crying. Urine dipstick showed leucocytes. What is the single most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Blood for C&S
Correct Answer: Urine for C&S
Explanation:The clinical presentation and leucocytes on the urine dipstick is suggestive of a urinary tract infection. To confirm the diagnosis, urine should be sent for culture and sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with jaundice. His labs reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. AST, ALT, albumin and clotting are in normal range. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody level is positive. Radiological examination shows multi-focal strictures and irregularity of both intra and extra hepatic bile ducts which has resulted in a 'beads on a string' appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gallstones
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a long-term progressive disease of the liver and gallbladder characterized by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts which normally allow bile to drain from the gallbladder. Early cholangiographic changes can include fine or deep ulcerations of the common bile duct. As PSC progresses, segmental fibrosis develops within the bile ducts, with saccular dilatation of the normal areas between them, leading to the typical beads-on-a-string appearance seen on cholangiography. Although these strictures can be found anywhere on the biliary tree, the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts are simultaneously involved in the vast majority of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?
Your Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Urethral valves
Explanation:The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?
Your Answer: Macrophage
Correct Answer: Basophil
Explanation:Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 74
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile foreskin has been treated with 1% hydrocortisone for 3 months. He presents with a white and thickened foreskin. What would you do next to manage his condition?
Your Answer: Circumcision
Correct Answer: Circumcision with urethral calibration
Explanation:The boy suffers from balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) which is surgically treated with circumcision and urethral calibration. In fact, the condition is the only true medical indication for circumcision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Down’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Explanation:Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin. A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Tinea capitis
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis. Psoriasis:Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved. Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma. Diagnosis:Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reiter’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 78
Correct
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Georgie is a bright 3 year old girl whose development seems to be ahead of her preschool classmates. Which of the following should a typical 3 year old be able to do?
Your Answer: Match 2 colours
Explanation:A 3 year old should be able to match two colours, copy a circle, walk up and down the stairs, and jump up and down. By the time they are 4 they can copy a cross, draw a person with three parts, count to 10, stand on one foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 79
Incorrect
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Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?
Your Answer: Hypernatraemia
Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia
Explanation:The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents with offensive stool, clubbing of fingers, and recurrent chest pain. Choose the single most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: Glucose tolerance test
Correct Answer: Sweat test
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a progressive, genetic disease. A defective gene causes a thick, sticky build-up of mucus in the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps bacteria leading to infections, extensive lung damage, and eventually, respiratory failure. In the pancreas, the mucus prevents the release of digestive enzymes that allow the body to break down food and absorb vital nutrients. Since the digestive enzymes are not being made, the food is not completely digested making them bulky, smelly, and hard to flush away. Finger clubbing is a prominent feature of cystic fibrosis on most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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The mother of 6 months old girl tests positive for HIV. Doctors test her daughter as well and the results turn out to be positive for HIV, both by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and serology. The girl is clinically healthy and seems to attain normal developmental milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Await the CD4 count and percentage to decide on the need for co-trimoxazole and antiretroviral therapy
Correct Answer: Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately and plan to start antiretrovirals once further work-up is complete
Explanation:Infants exposed to maternal HIV and with positive results require immediate management with co-trimoxazole prophylaxis, regardless of their CD4 levels. Antiretroviral treatment is necessary as well but it could wait until further work-up is complete.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at riding camp. A CT scan demonstrates a grade IV splenic injury. The child has a pulse of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70. What is the best management of this child?
Your Answer: Transfer 1 adult unit of blood reassess
Correct Answer: Admit to the ward for a week of bed-rest
Explanation:The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. In Paediatrics, Blunt splenic injuries with hemodynamic stability and absence of other internal injuries requiring surgery should undergo an initial attempt of Non-operative Management (NOM) irrespective of injury grade.In hemodynamically stable children with isolated splenic injury, splenectomy should be avoided.NOM is contraindicated in the presence of peritonitis, bowel evisceration, impalement or other indications to laparotomy.The vast majority of paediatric patients do not require angiography/angioembolization (AG/AE) for CT blush or moderate to severe injuries.AG/AE may be considered in patients undergone to NOM, hemodynamically stable with sings of persistent haemorrhage not amenable of NOM, regardless with the presence of CT blush once excluded extra-splenic source of bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 83
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Correct Answer: Myxoedema
Explanation:Hyposplenism usually occurs after the surgical removal of the spleen or in pathological processes where the splenic tissue is replaced with abnormal tissue. It is often associated with diseases such as sickle cell disease, Coeliac disease, SLE and Dermatitis Herpetiformis. Myxoedema however bears no known association with hyposplenism. Patients with hyposplenism are at risk of fulminant bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?
Your Answer: The right eyelid is numb
Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally
Explanation:Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye. Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopiaExamination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by which of the following tests?
Your Answer: Sweat test
Correct Answer: US
Explanation:Blood tests do not help in the diagnosis of jaundice except of course by telling the level of jaundice (bilirubin) and providing some corroborative evidence such as autoantibodies, tumour markers or viral titres in the case of hepatitis. Classifying causes of jaundice on the basis of ultrasound provides a quick and easy schema for diagnosing jaundice which is applicable in primary care as well as hospital based practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?
Your Answer: Epilepsy
Correct Answer: Sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old pre-schooler complains of ear pain and fever. He has taken paracetamol several times for relief. It is noted that he increases the volume of the television and has a symmetric loss of 40db on a hearing test. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: OM with effusion
Correct Answer: Otitis externa
Explanation:Increasing the volume of the TV and the child’s loss of hearing may suggest that he has otitis media with effusion but the fever and the ear pain and fever strongly points to otitis externa as the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 6 month old baby can squeeze an object against his palm, can vocalize and can sit with support. But he cannot hold objects between his index finger and the thumb. He cannot sit without support and he doesn't have stranger fear. Which of the following is correct regarding his development?
Your Answer: Neuro imaging
Correct Answer: Normal development
Explanation:Children are able to use a palmar grasp by the age of 6 months and use a pincer grasp by the age of 9 to 10 months. They can sit with support by 6 months and sit without support by 7 to 9 months. They can vocalize by 3 months. Stranger fear appears from 7 to 10 months. So this baby’s development is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 89
Incorrect
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Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21?
Your Answer: Auto-immune hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Hypotonia
Explanation:Trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 in all the body cells, mostly due to non-disjunction during gametogenesis. Robertsonian translocation occurs only in about 2-4% of the cases. A variety of clinical features are found in trisomy 21 due to multi-system involvement but the hallmark is hypotonia, which is present in almost all the cases of trisomy 21. Different types of leukemias are also found in association with down’s syndrome, but they are not the hallmark. Atlantoaxial subluxation is secondary to hypotonia, which induces joint and ligament laxity. Other clinical findings are hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, Hirschsprung’s disease, and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the anatomy and embryology of the thyroid gland?
Your Answer: The thyroid gland consists of follicles made of colloid, that contain the prohormone parathyroid hormone
Correct Answer: Between the follicular cells are C cells
Explanation:The thyroid gland is one of the first endocrine glands to develop, and is formed from the endoderm of the epithelial tissue of the primitive pharynx. The mature gland is functionally made up of follicles with colloid which contain the pro hormone thyroglobulin. Thyroid hormone is synthesised at a cellular level and is stored as thyroglobulin, before its release as thyroid hormone, a major modulator of metabolism. In between the follicular cells are parafollicular, or C-cells which secrete parathyroid hormone or calcitonin which are responsible for calcium regulation in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cryptococcal meningitis
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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Which of the following terms denote the property demonstrated by conditions where there are a variety of genetic defects, all leading to the same phenotypical manifestations?
Your Answer: Linkage
Correct Answer: Heterogeneity
Explanation:The property described in the question is heterogeneity.Heterogeneity is when a single phenotype or genetic disorder can be caused by multiple numbers of genetic mutations.Other options:- Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits. The underlying mechanism is that the gene codes for a product that is used by various cells. A classic example of pleiotropy is the human disease PKU (phenylketonuria).- The penetrance of a disease-causing mutation is the proportion of individuals with the mutation who exhibit clinical symptoms. For example, the gene responsible for a particular autosomal dominant disorder has 70% penetrance, then 70% of those with the mutation will develop the disease, while 30% will not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
Your Answer: Height spurt
Correct Answer: Breast development
Explanation:The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11.The first sign of puberty in girls is usually that their breasts begin to develop.It’s normal for breast buds to sometimes be very tender or for one breast to start to develop several months before the other one.Pubic hair also starts to grow, and some girls may notice more hair on their legs and arms.After a year or so of puberty beginning, and for the next couple of years:girls’ breasts continue to grow and become fuller.Around 2 years after beginning puberty, girls usually have their first period,pubic hair becomes coarser and curlierunderarm hair begins to grow. From the time their periods start, girls grow 5 to 7.5cm (2 to 3 inches) annually over the next year or two, then reach their adult height.After about 4 years of puberty in girls:breasts become adult-likepubic hair has spread to the inner thighgenitals should now be fully developedgirls stop growing taller.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Streptococcus A
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: Nasogastric decompression, broad spectrum antibiotics and immediate surgery for suspected intra-abdominal adhesions
Correct Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery
Explanation:Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 96
Correct
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A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She anxiously explained that he was not responding to loud sounds. He was vocalizing at the presentation and he had normal motor milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Arrange Hearing test
Explanation:History is suggestive of a possible hearing impairment. As the baby is vocalizing and has normal motor development, an isolated hearing problem is possible. A hearing test will confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 97
Correct
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A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal
Explanation:The management of cystic fibrosis requires a multidisciplinary approach, starting with a planned diet.The critical points of this management approach are:Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage – the parents are usually taught to do this.Deep breathing exercises,High calorie, high fat intake with vitamin supplementation.Pancreatic enzyme supplements with meals.Heart-lung transplantation would be the definitive treatment.Note: Previously, a high-calorie, low-fat diet was recommended to reduce steatorrhea. However, it is no longer the desired approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Which of the following is responsible for the closure of the ductus arteriosus at birth?
Your Answer: Decreased oxygen tension
Correct Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:The ductus arteriosus is normally patent during fetal life| it is an important structure in fetal development as it contributes to the flow of blood to the rest of the fetal organs and structure. From the 6th week of fetal life onwards, the ductus is responsible for most of the right ventricular outflow, and it contributes to 60% of the total cardiac output throughout fetal life. Only about 5-10% of its outflow passes through the lungs.This patency is promoted by continual production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) by the ductus.In the foetus, the oxygen tension is relatively low, because the pulmonary system is non-functional. Coupled with high levels of circulating prostaglandins, this acts to keep the ductus open. The high levels of prostaglandins result from the little amount of pulmonary circulation and the high levels of production in the placenta.At birth, the placenta is removed, eliminating a major source of prostaglandin production, and the lungs expand, activating the organ in which most prostaglandins are metabolized. In addition, with the onset of normal respiration, oxygen tension in the blood markedly increases. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases with this activity.Normally, functional closure of the ductus arteriosus occurs by about 15 hours of life in healthy infants born at term. This occurs by abrupt contraction of the muscular wall of the ductus arteriosus, which is associated with increases in the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) coincident with the first breath. A preferential shift of blood flow occurs| the blood moves away from the ductus and directly from the right ventricle into the lungs. Until functional closure is complete and PVR is lower than SVR, some residual left-to-right flow occurs from the aorta through the ductus and into the pulmonary arteriesA balance of factors that cause relaxation and contraction determine the vascular tone of the ductus. Major factors causing relaxation are the high prostaglandin levels, hypoxemia, and nitric oxide production in the ductus. Factors resulting in contraction include decreased prostaglandin levels, increased PO2, increased endothelin-1, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, bradykinin, and decreased PGE receptors. Increased prostaglandin sensitivity, in conjunction with pulmonary immaturity leading to hypoxia, contributes to the increased frequency of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature neonates.Although functional closure usually occurs in the first few hours of life, true anatomic closure, in which the ductus loses the ability to reopen, may take several weeks. The second stage of closure related to the fibrous proliferation of the intima is complete in 2-3 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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An infant was born yesterday with ambiguous genitalia. Mineralocorticoid deficiency and androgen excess are associated with the suspected diagnosis. What is the pathophysiology of the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Defect in AIRE gene
Correct Answer: Deficiency of 21-alphahydroxylase
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a common cause of virilisation in females that can present as ambiguous genitalia at birth. Deficiency of the 21-alphahydroxylase enzyme is implicated in excess mineralocorticoid and androgens produced by the adrenal gland. Virilisation occurs when excess androgens are converted to testosterone in a genetically female foetus, causing the genitalia to resemble male genitalia. A deficiency of 5-alpha hydroxylase would rather decrease the production of testosterone and lead to the presentation of external female genitalia in a genetically male foetus. Autoantibodies against glutamic acid are seen in type 1 diabetes mellitus, while defects in the AIRE gene and the FOXP3 affect components of the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with a day's history of urticarial rash.While addressing the parents' query on the cause of the rash, what would be the most appropriate statement?
Your Answer: A causal agent is identified in 90% of cases
Correct Answer: The rash may be due to a viral infection
Explanation:The most common cause of acute urticaria is a viral infection. Individual lesions typically are short-lived and last less than 24 hours. Urticaria can be due to or can be made worse by cold temperatures. One of the other causes of urticaria is salicylic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 101
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?
Your Answer: Luteinising Hormone
Explanation:The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Mesenteric adenitis
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 103
Correct
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A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week
Explanation:European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot form a sentence. What is the best management strategy?
Your Answer: MRI brain
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Not being able to form a sentence at the age of 18 months is quite normal. A combination of two words to form a sentence can be done by 2 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 105
Correct
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A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss and fatigue for the last few months. On examination he was pale and had hepatosplenomegaly. A full blood count was ordered and it revealed immature white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:The age of the patient and the presence of immature white blood cells are suggestive of leukaemia. Hodgkin’s disease is unlikely in this age group and it usually presents with lymphadenopathy. In HIV, immature white blood cells are not present in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 106
Correct
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A child presents with hypothyroidism. Which of the following features is characteristic of hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Prolonged neonatal jaundice
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism is one of the most important diseases of the new-born, which may lead to mental and physical retardation when treatment is delayed or an appropriate dosage of thyroxine is not administered. The most alarming and earliest sign is jaundice, especially when it is prolonged, during the neonatal period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding the anterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: It is derived from endoderm
Correct Answer: The majority of hormone production occurs in the pars distalis
Explanation:The pituitary gland synthesizes and releases various hormones that affect several organs throughout the body.The pituitary gland is entirely ectodermal in origin but is composed of 2 functionally distinct structures that differ in embryologic development and anatomy: the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) and the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary).The anterior pituitary has three main regions:Pars distalis: Where the main hormone production occursPars tuberalis: Joins the pituitary stalk arising from the posterior pituitary glandPars intermedia: Divides the anterior and posterior parts of the pituitary gland. The pars distalis forms the majority of the adenohypophysis and resembles a typical endocrine gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days. She was taking ibuprofen and paracetamol over the counter for the pain. She was started on phenoxymethylpenicillin V following a diagnosis of tonsillitis.The next day she presents with a painful rash and feels unwell. On examination, she has extensive papular and plaque lesions. On palpation the papules desquamate. What is this sign called?
Your Answer: Gorlin's sign
Correct Answer: Nikolskys sign
Explanation:The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorder, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points are left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of increased body temperature, rhinorrhoea and an unusual bark-like cough. The girl is also drooling because of excessive salivation. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Adrenaline nebulizer
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:The symptoms and signs described are typical for epiglottitis which represents a paediatric emergency and the child should be put immediately on corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 1-week history of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain which becomes worse upon leaning forward. Assuming that she's suffering from sinusitis, which sinus is most commonly the site of infection?
Your Answer: Petrosal
Correct Answer: Maxillary
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is maxillary sinusitis.The maxillary sinus drains from its superior aspect, leaving it prone to infections. It is the most commonly affected sinus in sinusitis.Common symptoms of maxillary sinusitis include postnasal discharge, pain, headache and toothache.Radiological imaging may show a fluid level in the antrum.Common organisms causing maxillary sinusitis include Haemophilus influenzae or Streptococcus pneumoniae.Treatment with antral lavage may facilitate diagnosis and relieve symptoms. Antimicrobial therapy has to be continued for long periods. Antrostomy may be needed.Other options:- Frontal sinusitis more commonly causes intracranial complications, but it is still less frequent than maxillary sinusitis.- The petrosal sinus is not a cavity within bone| rather, it is a venous structure located beneath the brain.- Frontoethmoidal sinusitis: It usually presents with frontal headache, nasal obstruction and altered sense of smell. Inflammation may progress to involve periorbital tissues. Ocular symptoms may occur, and secondary CNS involvement brought about by infection entering via emissary veins. CT scanning is the imaging modality of choice. Early cases may be managed with antibiotics. More severe cases usually require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and bloody diarrhoea. Examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Explanation:Answer: Inflammatory bowel diseaseThe inflammatory bowel diseases (IBDs), including ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease, are chronic inflammatory disorders of the gastrointestinal tract most often diagnosed in adolescence and young adulthood, with a rising incidence in paediatric populations. Inflammatory bowel disease is caused by a dysregulated mucosal immune response to the intestinal microflora in genetically predisposed hosts. Although children can present with the classic symptoms of weight loss, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhoea, many present with nonclassical symptoms of isolated poor growth, anaemia, or other extraintestinal manifestations.Colorectal Carcinoma (CRC) is rare in patients less than 20 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 112
Correct
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A 13-year-old male presented in the OPD with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, his BP was normal. Urinalysis showed a high degree of proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Minimal change GN
Explanation:Minimal change disease is a type of glomerulonephritis that mostly affects younger children. Proteinuria is present which leads to body oedema. But in these patients blood pressure is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 113
Incorrect
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Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 114
Correct
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The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?
Your Answer: Tricuspid atresia
Explanation:Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 2-week-old infant is suffering from hydrocephalus that has developed secondary to congenital spina bifida. Where in the brain is the CSF formed?
Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct
Correct Answer: Choroid plexuses
Explanation:CSF is produced mainly by a structure called the choroid plexus in the lateral, third and fourth ventricles. CSF flows from the lateral ventricle to the third ventricle through the interventricular foramen (also called the foramen of Monro). The third ventricle and fourth ventricle are connected to each other by the cerebral aqueduct (also called the Aqueduct of Sylvius). CSF then flows into the subarachnoid space through the foramina of Luschka (there are two of these) and the foramen of Magendie (only one of these).Absorption of the CSF into the blood stream takes place in the superior sagittal sinus through structures called arachnoid villi . When the CSF pressure is greater than the venous pressure, CSF will flow into the blood stream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 116
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for a child who has repeated UTIs?
Your Answer: Toilet training
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics
Explanation:Prophylactic antibiotics should be given to the child to avoid infections and renal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas
Explanation:History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a history of bloody diarrhoea starting 7 days previously. On investigation, her serum urea and creatinine were raised and proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most suitable diagnosis for her?
Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)
Correct Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:HUS syndrome occurs mostly in children after some days of bloody diarrhoea. Damaged red blood cells also damage the kidney filtering unit and lead to sudden renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 119
Correct
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Where does Stensens duct primarily open?
Your Answer: Opposite the second molar tooth
Explanation:The parotid duct (Stensen’s duct), which provides an exit for the gland’s secretions, passes through the anterior edge of the gland in the superficial lobe, turns medially at the anterior border of the masseter, penetrates the buccinator, then enters the oral cavity lateral to the second maxillary molar.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 120
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male child presents with an injury to his right brachial plexus in a motor vehicle accident. Clinical examination reveals a right shoulder weakness when it comes to abduction and flexion of the forearm. His lateral aspect of the right upper arm seems to have some sensory loss as well. All reflexes are present except for the right biceps and brachioradial ones. What is the level of brachial plexus injury?
Your Answer: C7,8 root
Correct Answer: C5,6 root
Explanation:Upper brachial plexus roots innervate the proximal muscles of the shoulder and the upper arm. In this particular case, only these areas are affected, suggesting that the levels of brachial plexus injury are at roots C5-C6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A young child presents with a dull and greyish tympanic membrane and no shadow of the handle of malleus is evident. His mother complains that he does not respond when she calls him and that he lately raises the volume of the TV. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cholesteatoma
Correct Answer: Secretory OM
Explanation:In secretory OM, effusion in the middle ear is present which does not produce any pain to the patient in comparison to acute OM which produces otalgia. The family members are the ones to notice hearing loss as the patient usually is not aware of it. On otoscopy, the features described in the question are prominent. Otitis externa is usually painful and it also produces an itching sensation. Chronic otitis media is painful and may interfere with balance problems. Cholesteatoma is an abnormal cystic growth in the middle ear that usually discharges foul-smelling fluids and as it grows, otalgia can appear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders?
Your Answer: Hormone treatment with oestrogen should be used to treat bone loss in patients with anorexia nervosa
Correct Answer: Evidence-based self-help programme is first line in patients with bulimia
Explanation:Most individuals with eating disorders do not receive treatment. The treatment gap may involve individuals’ attitudes about accessing various types of treatment, as well as perceived barriers to seeking treatment. Therapies to be considered for the psychological treatment of anorexia nervosa include cognitive analytic therapy (CAT), cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT), interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), focal psychodynamic therapy and family interventions focused explicitly on eating disorders.The first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. Antidepressants may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.Acute pharmacologic treatment of anorexia nervosa is rarely required. However, vitamin supplementation with calcium should be started in patients, and although oestrogen has no established effect on bone density in patients with anorexia nervosa, oestrogen replacement (i.e., oral contraceptives) has been recommended for the treatment of osteopenia. Note: Oestrogen should not be used in children (due to premature fusion of the bones).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?
Your Answer: Sweat chloride test
Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies
Explanation:The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation. The father, one boy and one girl present with a short stature, large heads, short digits, and trident hands. Genetic evaluation reveals they are all heterozygotes for a specific mutation. The rest of the family, the mother and the other daughter, do not carry this mutation. What is the pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
Explanation:In this case, the affected individuals are all heterozygotes. Therefore, the mutation is autosomal dominant. Also, the mother does not carry the mutation, further confirming the autosomal dominant nature of the disease, which is most probably achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 125
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old male presented in the OPD with the complaint of nasal bleeding which started 3 days before. Now on examination, there is no bleeding and only slight redness of the anterior mucosa is present. Which of the following steps is the most suitable now?
Your Answer: Ice pack on the bridge of nose and pinching of the nose
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Epistaxis is common in younger children usually due to nose picking. After the episode is over no active management is required and reassurance should be given to the patient and his attendants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 126
Incorrect
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What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?
Your Answer: Gives rise to the adrenal medulla
Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament
Explanation:The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer a cube from her left to her right hand. She gains much excitement when placed in a forward or downward parachute position. In contrast to her last visit, she no longer has a rooting, grasp, or startle reflex. Her symmetrical Moro reflex has also disappeared. The infant continuously presents items to her mouth and sucks her fingers. She has a positive Babinski sign but a negative asymmetrical tonic neck reflex.What is the developmental age of the child in question?
Your Answer: 12 months
Correct Answer: 8 months
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the developmental age of the child is 8 months.The primitive reflexes are indicators of functional integrity and maturity. The majority of reflexes do not persist beyond 6 months of age. There are 13 reflexes of importance, including:- Moro reflex- Startle reflex- Rooting reflex- Sucking reflex- Grasp reflex- Voluntary palmar grasp reflex- Voluntary reach reflex- Stepping reflex- Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)- Parachute reflex- Plantar reflex- Tendon reflex- ClonusIt is interesting to note that gastrocolic reflex is not a primitive reflex.Ninety-five per cent of reflexes will have disappeared by the ages shown below:- 6 weeks: Stepping- 3-4 months: Palmar grasp and Moro- 6 months: Sucking, rooting, and asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 128
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum?
Your Answer: It is associated with herpes simplex infections
Correct Answer: It is associated with streptococcal infections
Explanation:Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Chronic or recurrent erythema nodosum is rare but may occur.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adults.The eruptive phase of erythema nodosum begins with flulike symptoms of fever and generalized aching. Arthralgia may occur and precedes the eruption or appears during the eruptive phase. Most lesions in infection-induced erythema nodosum heal within 7 weeks, but active disease may last up to 18 weeks. In contrast, 30% of idiopathic erythema nodosum cases may last more than 6 months. Febrile illness with dermatologic findings includes abrupt onset of illness with initial fever, followed by a painful rash within 1-2 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?
Your Answer: A 10 month old with heart rate of 110
Correct Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60
Explanation:Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure<1 30-40 110-160 70-901-2 25-35 100-150 80-952-5 25-30 95-140 80-1005-12 20-25 80-120 90-110>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are worried that he might have delayed growth as all his friends are taller than him. On examination, he has a preadolescent body habitus and no evidence of development of secondary sexual characteristics. Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone all match prepubertal range. Following an injection of GnRH, the LH and FSH concentrations increase only slightly. However, when the GnRH is given daily for 7 days, a normal response is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely causing this boy's delayed puberty?
Your Answer: A pituitary disorder
Correct Answer: A hypothalamic disorder
Explanation:Hypogonadotropic hypogonadismIn Kallmann syndrome: impaired migration of GnRH cells and defective olfactory bulb → ↓ GnRH in hypothalamus → ↓ FSH and ↓ LH → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogenIn hypothalamic and/or pituitary lesions: ↓ pituitary gonadotropins (↓ FSH and ↓ LH) → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogen
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells?
Your Answer: Oligodendrocyte
Correct Answer: Microglia
Explanation:The central nervous system comprises of two types of cells| neurons and neuroglial cells. Glial cells are the support cells that serve a number of important functions. Three types of neuroglia comprise the mature nervous system, which are ependymal cells, microglia, and macroglia. The macroglia are of two types oligodendrocytes and astrocytes. Microglia are the neuroglial cells that serve the function of phagocytosis since they are derived from the hematopoietic stem cells and share properties with tissue macrophages. They remove the cellular debris from the site of injury or normal cellular turnover by performing scavenger function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 132
Correct
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Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:
Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:Café-au-lait spots is hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular. Causes include:
Neurofibromatosis type I
McCune–Albright syndrome
Legius syndrome
Tuberous sclerosis
Fanconi anaemia
Idiopathic
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Basal cell nevus syndrome
Benign congenital skin lesion
Bloom syndrome
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
Congenital nevus
Gaucher disease
Hunter syndrome
Maffucci syndrome
Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Pulmonary Stenosis
Silver–Russell syndrome
Watson syndrome
Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?
Your Answer: 17-OH serum progesterone level
Correct Answer: GnRH stimulation test
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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Gertrude is an 18 month old child who is developing normally. Which of the following should she be able to do?
Your Answer: Jump well
Correct Answer: Follow commands such as 'give me a doll please'
Explanation:At the age of 18 months, Gertrude should be able to follow a one step command. At this age she would also be capable of putting words together in 1 or 2 word phrases, scribbling, throwing a ball, and building a tower of four cubes. At 2 she should be able to feed herself with a spoon or a fork, copy a vertical line, ride a tricycle, kick a ball and balance on one foot. Activities such as jumping will follow later on in her development at 3 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 135
Correct
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A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Low baseline TSH level
Explanation:A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2℃ and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. Clinically he is jaundiced. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a common bile duct diameter of 10mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sickle Cell Crisis
Correct Answer: Impacted Gall Stone
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario provided, this patient most probably has impacted gall stones. Gall stones in children can be caused by haematological diseases such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassemia. Cholesterol stones are also becoming more prevalent. A dilated common bile duct (> 10mm in adults) suggests gall stone impaction. The presence of pyrexia indicates cholecystitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Cryptosporidium
Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain, fever, and listlessness. She doesn’t want to eat and the doctors noticed a bloody nappy. Upon clinical examination she’s found to be tachycardic and with cool peripheries. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Organise an air enema
Correct Answer: Resuscitate with intravenous fluids and commence triple antibiotics
Explanation:This clinical case is most probably due to intussusception complicated by sepsis. Regardless of the cause, the baby is sick and in a critical condition. The first thing to do is to preserve the vital signs and resuscitate with IV fluids. As sepsis is suspected, you should also start on triple antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular pain. On examination, he is found to have testicular tenderness. On trans-illumination, a faint blue dot can be seen. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Idiopathic Scrotal Oedema
Correct Answer: Torsion of the hydatid cyst of the testis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be torsion of a hydatid cyst of the testis.Note:The differential diagnoses in acute testicular pain/swelling are listed in the possible answers. Testicular torsion typically affects adolescent males and presents with acute painful swelling and a horizontally lying testicle. Other options:- Epididymo-orchitis is diagnosed during surgery when a thickened erythematous epididymis is noted. Ectopic ureteric insertion into the vas must be excluded by ultrasound scan on an out-patient basis. The hydatid cyst or cyst of Morgagni represents the remnants of the Mullerian structure. In the pre-pubertal child, a surge in hormones can stimulate growth and chance of torsion. It is diagnosed by surgical exploration or by a blue dot sign. Idiopathic scrotal oedema tends to be within the scrotum itself, and the testis can be examined in the groin to exclude pain in the testis. All acute scrotal pain must be explored to exclude testicular torsion unless a surgical registrar is convinced of a torted hydatid cyst.- An 8-year-old is more likely to present with a torted hydatid cyst. The blue dot sign is diagnostic and can negate the need for surgical exploration. The age of the child also makes epididymo-orchitis less likely.- Idiopathic scrotal oedema presents with an erythematous and thickened scrotum. This can cross the midline and involve the whole scrotum.- Finally, an inguinal hernia would present with a mass in the groin extending to the scrotum that you cannot get above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This congenital anomaly is most likely due to a developmental failure of which embryological structure?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular canal
Correct Answer: Endocardial cushions
Explanation:The heart is the first organ to form and become functional, emphasizing the importance of transport of material to and from the developing infant. It originates about day 18 or 19 from the mesoderm and begins beating and pumping blood about day 21 or 22. It forms from the cardiogenic region near the head and is visible as a prominent heart bulge on the surface of the embryo. Originally, it consists of a pair of strands called cardiogenic cords that quickly form a hollow lumen and are referred to as endocardial tubes. These then fuse into a single heart tube and differentiate into the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus, starting about day 22. The primitive heart begins to form an S shape within the pericardium between days 23 and 28. The internal septa begin to form about day 28, separating the heart into the atria and ventricles, although the foramen ovale persists until shortly after birth. Between weeks five and eight, the atrioventricular valves form. The semilunar valves form between weeks five and nine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 141
Incorrect
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Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic hormone) primarily acts?
Your Answer: Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Correct Answer: Collecting ducts
Explanation:ADH primarily acts on the collecting ducts.Other options:- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the site of renin production.- The proximal tubule conducts isosmotic reabsorption of about 60% of sodium chloride and volume. Most of the glucose, amino acids, potassium and phosphate are absorbed here.- The loop of Henle is the site of 25% of sodium reabsorption. Active Chloride transport provides the basis for the counter current multiplier aiding urinary concentration.- The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water and acts via active sodium chloride absorption to dilute urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male arrives at the clinic, 7 days after having unprotected intercourse with his girlfriend, and complains of dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. He is otherwise feeling well. Microscopic examination of the urethral swab shows gram negative diplococci. Which of the following drugs should be used in this patient?
Your Answer: Acyclovir
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Effective treatment can cure gonorrhoea and help prevent long-term complications. CDC recommends a single dose of 250mg of intramuscular ceftriaxone AND 1g of oral azithromycin. It is important to take all of the medication prescribed to cure gonorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Correct Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma
Explanation:Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 144
Correct
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A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer: Facial X ray
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem does she have?
Your Answer: Deficiency of platelets
Correct Answer: Deficiency of factor IX
Explanation:Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is due to a deficiency in factor IX. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency in factor VIII.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 4 year old boy, who is mentally unstable, accidentally shoves a pea into his ear while eating. Otoscopic examination reveals a green coloured object in the ear canal. Which of the following would be the best approach to get rid of the pea?
Your Answer: By hook
Correct Answer: Under GA
Explanation:For Otorhinolaryngologist, removal of foreign bodies (FB) from the ear, nose and throat is one of the common emergency procedures done. Most of the cases especially of the ear and nose can be managed without General Anaesthesia (GA). But in some cases GA may be needed. As the child is mentally unstable, he is unlikely to be able to hold still while the foreign body (pea) is being removed with a forceps, which could result in instrumental damage to the ear canal. Pea is an organic foreign body and not metallic hence the use of magnets would not be of any help either. From the options provided, general anaesthesia would be the best option in this child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 147
Incorrect
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Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
Your Answer: IgM
Correct Answer: T cells
Explanation:Patients with HIV have a deficiency of CD4 lymphocytes which are also known as helper T cells (Th). They are involved with antigen-specific responses as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity. The risk of developing P. jiroveci pneumonia is greatest with a CD4 count of 200 x 109/l or below.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?
Your Answer: Immediate bronchoscopy
Correct Answer: Call ENT specialist
Explanation:A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 149
Incorrect
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An 11-month old infant was brought by the parents with complaints of poor feeding, failure to thrive, and developmental delay. He was reluctant to play and was unable to sit independently at ten months. Examination revealed blond hair and pale skin with small hands and feet and a squint. He also has poor central muscle tone and unilaterally undescended testes. What is the probable diagnosis of this infant?
Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Explanation:The physical features and developmental delay are the key aspects in the given scenario. The child in question shows features of gross motor and social developmental delay and has physical features indicative of Prader-Willi syndrome (hypopigmentation, esotropia, disproportionately small hands and feet, loss of central muscle tone and undescended testes). Children with Prader-Willi syndrome can present with failure to thrive until ,12-18 months, at which point, hyperphagia and obesity become more prominent. Other options:- Although Klinefelter syndrome can present with delayed development, undescended/small testes and reduced muscle power, the presence of small hands/feet, hypopigmentation and failure to thrive are not characteristic features. – Marfan syndrome presents with different physical features (arachnodactyly, cardio-respiratory complications and skin changes, amongst others) than those associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. – DiGeorge can manifest with developmental delay, hypotonia and feeding difficulties. However, this clinical scenario does not report any of the typical facial features, hearing abnormalities or cardiac abnormalities that are typically caused by DiGeorge syndrome. – Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental abnormalities, poor muscle tone and power (poor head control and muscle function), feeding difficulties and poor growth during the post-natal period and infancy. However, characteristic facial (small, triangular face, blue sclerae) and skeletal abnormalities (limb asymmetry, finger abnormalities) are not present. Therefore, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.Note:Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of genetic imprinting where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father: In Prader-Willi syndrome, it is the paternal gene that is deleted from the long arm of chromosome 15, while in Angelman syndrome the maternal gene is deleted. Prader-Willi syndrome can occur due to the microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 (70% of cases) maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with signs and symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Liver function tests reveal raised unconjugated bilirubin levels. Subsequent genetic testing led to a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason for the unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in Gilbert's syndrome?
Your Answer: Reduced levels of CYP2C9
Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that results from defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronyl transferase – 1. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.The clinical presentation of Gilbert’s syndrome include:- Unconjugated hyperbilinaemia- Jaundice can occur during an intercurrent illnessManagement:Blood investigations usually reveal a rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or intravenous nicotinic acid.No treatment required for these patients.Other options:- CYP2C9 deficiency causes reduced warfarin metabolism, and subsequent enhanced drug effects. – Pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption and certain drugs are common causes of raised GGT levels- Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin is related to the pathophysiology of Dubin-Johnson syndrome- Reduced CYP2C19 levels can lead to the disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs such as proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants and sedatives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy's illness started with a 4-day history of fever and cough. Crepitations are noted upon auscultation. Other examination results are temperature 38.9C, O2 sats 94% on air, respiratory rate is 45/min, and capillary refill time 1 sec. Urine is also negative on dipstick. What is the single investigation most likely to lead to a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chest X Ray
Correct Answer: Blood for culture and sensitivity
Explanation:Blood culture and sensitivity will distinguish the bacteria that is responsible for the infection and the effective antibiotic treatment to which the bacteria is sensitive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 152
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of miliaria?
Your Answer: Miliaria profunda causes a very pruritic erythematous papular rash
Correct Answer: Miliaria crystalline causes tiny, fragile clear vesicles
Explanation:Miliaria is a common skin disease caused by blockage and/or inflammation of eccrine sweat ducts. Miliaria is frequently seen in hot, humid or tropical climates, in patients in the hospital, and in the neonatal period. Miliaria is also known as sweat rash.Based on the level of the sweat duct obstruction, miliaria is divided into three subtypes:- Miliaria crystallina (sudamina), caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts close to the surface of the skin (epidermis)|- Miliaria rubra, caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts deeper in the epidermis|- Miliaria profunda (tropical anhidrosis), the result of sweat leaking into the middle layer of skin (dermis).Miliaria crystallina appears as 1–2 mm superficial clear blisters that easily break. The blisters can look like beads of sweat. There is no inflammation. The blisters are usually seen widely spread on the head, neck, and upper trunk.Miliaria rubra is the most common type of miliaria results in red, 2–4 mm, non-follicular papules and papulovesicles. They are very itchy. Background erythema is often present. In children, miliaria affects the skin folds of the neck, axilla or groin. In adults, miliaria often affects the upper trunk, scalp, neck and flexures, particularly areas of friction with clothing. Miliaria pustulosa is a variant of milia rubra in which there are pustules.Miliaria profunda describes asymptomatic deep papules. The flesh–coloured, 1–3 mm diameter papules usually arise on the trunk and extremities.Mild Topical steroids can be used as a treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?
Your Answer: Subscapularis
Correct Answer: Infraspinatus
Explanation:There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 154
Incorrect
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Which of following statements with regards to the developmental problems found in Fragile X syndrome is the most accurate?
Your Answer: Intellectual disability is usually in the severe range
Correct Answer: Around one third of children with FXS meet diagnostic criteria for autistic spectrum disorder
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic syndrome associated with neuro-developmental problems such as learning disabilities and cognitive impairment, with many affected children having mild to moderate intellectual disability. About a third of children have features of autism spectrum disorder and ADHD which affects their communication skills and social interactions. As such, affected individuals usually have delayed speech development and poor nonverbal skills such as gaze aversion. Symptoms tend to worsen with age into adolescence as the demands on their intellect becomes greater. Pre-mutation carriers, who posses smaller genetic repeat expansions, have been found to be associated with some neurodevelopment and other medical problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 155
Incorrect
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Congenital cataracts are NOT a known complication of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Downs syndrome
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disease that does not lead to congenital cataracts. A congenital cataract is the clouding of the cornea that is present from birth. Causes can be categorized as genetic, infectious, and metabolic. The most common infectious cause is congenital rubella syndrome. Galactosemia is a metabolic cause of congenital cataracts. Down’s syndrome represents a genetic cause of congenital cataract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: IgA deficiency
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with the following conditions:- Dermatitis herpetiformis- Autoimmune disorders (e.g. thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, diabetes)- IgA deficiency- Small-bowel malignancy, particularly lymphoma, if the gluten-free diet is not followed.Serology testing: The IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the most sensitive and specific, compared with the anti-endomysial antibody. However, false negatives will occur in children who are IgA-deficient, and IgA levels should be taken at the same time. Other options:Distal obstruction syndrome, meconium ileus, pancreatitis and rectal prolapse are all gastrointestinal manifestations of cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A hyperkinetic gait is most likely associated with which condition?
Your Answer: Wernicke's
Correct Answer: Sydenham chorea
Explanation:Hyperkinetic Gait is seen with certain basal ganglia disorders including Sydenham’s chorea, Huntington’s Disease and other forms of chorea, athetosis or dystonia. The patient will display irregular, jerky, involuntary movements in all extremities. Walking may accentuate their baseline movement disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 158
Correct
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A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on regular check-up and was subsequently referred to a cardiologist. A thorough physical examination reveals long upper extremities with thin slender fingers, with a high arched palate and excessive ligamentous laxity. Her thumb can be bent back easily to touch her radius. ECG reveals sinus bradycardia that is consistent with aerobic conditioning. She also had an echo done. In reference to her most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most serious cardiac complication associated to this condition?
Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of noisy breathing and difficulty feeding. On examination, the baby had a mild inspiratory stridor, and subsequent laryngoscopy reveals an omega-shaped epiglottis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Epiglottitis
Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:Omega-shaped epiglottis is a characteristic feature in the X-ray of a patient with laryngomalacia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with reduced responsiveness and muscle rigidity. His mother reports that he attended a rave and came home euphoric, ataxic, and experiencing multiple hallucinations.Which of the following illicit substances is the most likely to have been consumed?
Your Answer: Opioids
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:The given presentation is highly suggestive of withdrawal effect of ketamine.Ketamine is known for its unique property of inducing dissociative anaesthesia. Emergence phenomenon (as seen in the child in question) is an adverse effect that occurs during recovery from dissociative anaesthesia. The components of emergence phenomenon include a euphoric state associated with hallucinations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with bruise-like painful lumps on her lower legs after a sore throat. Which of the following is expected in her case?
Your Answer: The scarring associated with this condition may respond to triamcinolone injections
Correct Answer: The condition may take 6-12 weeks to resolve
Explanation:Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. It is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to a variety of antigens| circulating immune complexes have not been found in idiopathic or uncomplicated cases but may be demonstrated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is a streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adultsIn most patients, erythema nodosum is a self-limited disease and requires only symptomatic relief using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), cool wet compresses, elevation, and bed rest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported to be in a critical state. Birth weight is 550g and the baby shows a poor respiratory effort. The membranes ruptured just prior to the delivery with no signs of maternal fever or sepsis. The infant received no antenatal steroids. After delivery, the neonate was subsequently intubated, resuscitated and given a dose of Curo surf. he was extubated onto CPAP within 6 hours. UVC and UAC access was established and benzylpenicillin and gentamicin were administered. Small amounts of maternal breast milk were given for mouthcare. The baby's cardiovascular system was stable and early ABG samples were within acceptable ranges. At 24 hours of age the baby deteriorates with numerous desaturations and bradycardias requiring reintubation. First gas following reintubation shows pH 7.19, CO2 8.6 kPa, BE -10. Oxygen requirement is 60%. FBC is unremarkable. The baby is cool peripherally and central CRT is 3-4 seconds. There is a loud machinery murmur. Abdominal radiograph shows a football sign. What is the most likely cause of the baby's deterioration?
Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Correct Answer: Spontaneous intestinal perforation
Explanation:Spontaneous intestinal perforation (SIP) of the new-born, also referred to as isolated perforation or focal intestinal perforation (FIP) of the new-born, is a single intestinal perforation that is typically found at the terminal ileum. SIP occurs primarily in preterm infants with very low birth weight (VLBW, birth weight <1500 g) and extremely low birth weight (ELBW, birth weight <1000 g), umbilical catheter placement, maternal drug use and twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. SIP is a separate clinical entity from necrotizing enterocolitis, the most severe gastrointestinal complication of preterm infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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In a mother who has taken selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI's) after 20 weeks gestation, which of the following may be an associated adverse condition in the neonate?
Your Answer: Floppy baby syndrome
Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Treatment of depression is an important component of maternal and neonatal health. The use of SSRIs and antidepressants in the first trimester are unlikely to carry any congenital risks. However the use of the antidepressants closer to delivery may result in some respiratory, motor, gastrointestinal and central nervous system problems, with the most concerning of these being persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. Other conditions such as cleft palate, jaundice, neural tube defects or floppy baby syndrome have not been shown to occur with SSRI use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 164
Correct
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Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with the vascular subtype (type IV) of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
Your Answer: Dysmorphic features, including thin nose and large eyes
Explanation:Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is a group of genetic connective tissue disorders with over 13 clinical subtypes. Hyper-mobility is common to many of these subtypes. Vascular EDS is identified by thin, translucent skin prone to easy bleeding, as well as the risk of early arterial rupture, gastrointestinal perforation and uterine rupture. Those affected have dysmorphic features including a thin nose and lips, sunken cheeks and large eyes. The other features including| atrophic scars, a dominant family history, hyper extensible skin and kyphoscoliosis are not specific to vascular EDS and overlap in many of the subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 165
Correct
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A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 166
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with an 18-month history of intermittent eye blinking, facial grimacing, grunting, and sniffing. He has enough control to suppress them at times, but not always. They are happening at school, and his classmates are starting to notice.Which among the following would be the best initial step in the treatment of the child?
Your Answer: Reassure and observe
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the above clinical scenario, of a child presenting with motor and vocal tics for more than a year is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Tourette syndrome. The symptoms often wax and wane, and although several different drugs are available, none are entirely useful, and side-effects are relatively common. With these considerations in mind, it is essential to try and avoid treatment initially as the tics can spontaneously improve with time. Informing the teacher and class about the nature of the condition and allowing the child ‘time out’ to tic might help to avoid the need for medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?
Your Answer: Relative risk
Correct Answer: Odds ratio
Explanation:A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following injection complications are more prevalent?
Your Answer: Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: Lipohypertrophy
Explanation:Lypohypertrophy is the most common skin-related complication of insulin injection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 10 year old boy is being bullied by his classmates because he's obese and he is the shortest in his class. His mother is worried and brings him in to the clinic. History reveals he had a renal transplant last year. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pseudo Cushing’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Cushing’s syndrome
Explanation:The boy had a renal transplant, for which he needs immune suppression. For the exogenous immune suppression an exogenous steroid is needed, which in this case is responsible for the primary Cushing syndrome manifesting with short stature. The administration of steroids before the physiological fusion of the growth plate can lead to premature fusion with permanent cessation of bone growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?
Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Correct Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis can have different inheritance patterns.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the APC gene, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person has one parent with the condition.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the MUTYH gene, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Most often, the parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 171
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy complains of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. On examination, Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs were positive. In the meantime, while awaiting the results from blood culture, how will you manage this patient?
Your Answer: Cefotaxime
Explanation:Positive Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs may indicate meningitis. While awaiting blood culture results, a broad-spectrum antibiotic such as Cefotaxime (a third generation cephalosporin) is preferred over the other medications listed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.
Your Answer: I.M 0.5 ml tetanus toxoid should be administered as single dose
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?
Your Answer: Clumped platelets
Correct Answer: Blast cells
Explanation:Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age| a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts| pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache and has developed diffuse raised oedematous papules. These lesions are typical of erythema multiforme. Which one of the following is true?
Your Answer: The lesions can be distinguished from urticaria as they are normal in the centre
Correct Answer: The lesions will heal without scarring
Explanation:Erythema multiforme lesions typically heal without scarring. Other options:- In erythema multiforme, lesions are typically symmetrical and acral, i.e. on the hands, feet and limbs. – HSV is a common cause of erythema multiforme in children, accounting for at least 50% of cases| the lesions typically have damaged skin in the centre and are dusky and bullous (in contrast to urticaria, where the centre of the lesion is normal).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Coxsackie group B
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: congenital hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating a hamburger in a local restaurant. Watery diarrhoea began a few hours later.The most likely organism causing her disease is?
Your Answer: Vibrio vulnificus
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Food poisoning is defined as an illness caused by the consumption of food or water contaminated with bacteria and/or their toxins, or with parasites, viruses, or chemicals. The most common pathogens are Norovirus, Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus.The following are some of the salient features of food poisoning:Acute diarrhoea in food poisoning usually lasts less than 2 weeks. Diarrhoea lasting 2-4 weeks is classified as persistent. Chronic diarrhoea is defined by duration of more than 4 weeks.The presence of fever suggests an invasive disease. However, sometimes fever and diarrhoea may result from infection outside the GI tract, as in malaria.A stool with blood or mucus indicates invasion of the intestinal or colonic mucosa.Reactive arthritis can be seen with Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and Yersinia infections.A profuse rice-water stool suggests cholera or a similar process.Abdominal pain is most severe in inflammatory processes. Painful abdominal cramps suggest underlying electrolyte loss, as in severe cholera.A history of bloating should raise the suspicion of giardiasis.Yersinia enterocolitis may mimic the symptoms of appendicitis.Proctitis syndrome, seen with shigellosis, is characterized by frequent painful bowel movements containing blood, pus, and mucus. Tenesmus and rectal discomfort are prominent features.Consumption of undercooked meat/poultry is suspicious for Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and C perfringens.Consumption of raw seafood is suspicious for Norwalk-like virus, Vibrioorganism, or hepatitis A.Consumption of homemade canned foods is associated with C botulinum.Consumption of unpasteurized soft cheeses is associated with Listeria, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Consumption of deli meats notoriously is responsible for listeriosis.Consumption of unpasteurized milk or juice is suspicious for Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Salmonella has been associated with consumption of raw eggs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise healthy and with a clear family history. He drinks sufficient amounts of fluids but is a fussy eater. Clinical examination reveals a mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Constipation is often associated with nocturnal enuresis in children. The palpable mass is the impacted stool. The decreased appetite is common in those with constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl presented to the outpatient clinic with fever, pain and discharge from her left ear. Which of the following antibiotics should be used first?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Amoxicillin has high efficacy against haemophilus influenza and streptococcus pneumonia, the most common organisms of otitis media. It is an oral drug with high bioavailability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 180
Correct
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Which of the following is true of randomisation in a clinical trial?
Your Answer: Aims to remove confounding
Explanation:The main aim of randomisation in a clinical trial is to remove the bias and avoid any potential confounding variables. While in double blind studies both the investigators and the patients are not aware of which group they belong in, being blind is not essential in carrying out a randomized study, nor is it essential that the randomisation be done away from the study centre. A placebo also does not facilitate randomisation, which can be done in single centre and multi-centre trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Viral orchitis
Correct Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid
Explanation:Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatidThe appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion| a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer: Tetracycline
Correct Answer: Sulphonamides
Explanation:Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 183
Correct
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An adolescent girl has missed her period by six days, which is unusual given her regular 28-day cycle. Suspicious, she buys a urine pregnancy test kit and tests positive.The release of which of the following substances is stimulated by the sperm at the time of fertilization in order to prevent polyspermy?
Your Answer: Calcium ions
Explanation:Fertilization occurs when the sperm reaches an egg released during ovulation. At the time of fertilization, the interaction of sperm with the zona pellucida stimulates the release of calcium. This process initiates a corona reaction that prevents polyspermy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 184
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?
Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Correct Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Trendelenburg gait is an abnormal gait resulting from a defective hip abductor mechanism. The primary musculature involved is the gluteal musculature, including the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The weakness of these muscles causes drooping of the pelvis to the contralateral side while walking.Any pathology of the fulcrum, load, effort or the lever which binds all three will lead to a positive Trendelenburg gait.Failure of the fulcrum presents in the following conditions:Osteonecrosis of hipLegg-Calve-Perthes diseaseDevelopmental dysplasia of the hipChronically dislocated hips secondary to traumaChronically dislocated hips secondary to infections like tuberculosis of the hipFailure of the lever is a feature in the following conditions:Greater trochanteric avulsionNon-union of the neck of the femurCoxa VaraFailure of effort presents in the following conditions:PoliomyelitisL5 radiculopathySuperior gluteal nerve damageGluteus medius and minimus tendinitisGluteus medius and minimus abscessPost total hip arthroplastyThe gait of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis patients can be explained as a crouch-like gait with hyperflexion in hip and knee joints and less plantar flexion in the ankle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 185
Incorrect
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Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Galactosaemia
Correct Answer: Spherocytosis
Explanation:Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia is a common clinical condition and can be categorized as conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from obstructive or hepatocellular causes mainly. The causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include inborn errors of metabolism like galactosemia and aminoaciduria, obstruction from choledochal cysts, and biliary atresia. Long term TPN also leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Spherocytosis is a hereditary condition belonging to the group of haemolytic anaemias, resulting from plasma membrane protein deficiency. This defect of the RBC plasma membrane decreases their life span, making them osmotically fragile and prone to haemolysis. This leads to an increase in the unconjugated bilirubin levels, with a risk of developing kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 186
Correct
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You notice an umbilical hernia in a 6-week old baby. What advice would you give the parents?
Your Answer: This is likely to resolve in 90% of cases by the age of 4 years. Repair is performed if still present
Explanation:Umbilical hernias are common in young children and they carry a low risk of incarceration as compared to inguinal hernias. About 90% umbilical hernias resolve by the age of 4 years. The best management for young children is to wait for resolution without surgical repair, unless there are complications. Parents should be assured that the child does not need to be referred to the general surgeon, nor should any home remedies such as taping a coin over the hernia be encouraged. If after the age of 4 it has not resolved, then surgery is indicated. This also applies to girls to prevent an unsightly hernia should she get pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 187
Incorrect
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Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases?
Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Hypercalcemia refers to increased serum calcium levels and is characterized by a number of significant constellations, including polyuria, muscle weakness, abdominal pain, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias. The causes of hypercalcemia can be classified as PTH-dependant causes and PTH-independent causes. The causes can be both congenital and acquired. The most common cause of PTH-dependent hypercalcemia is the primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, resulting from parathyroid gland tumours. Hyperparathyroidism is also associated with chronic renal failure. PTH-independent hypercalcemia is caused by William’s syndrome, hypervitaminosis (vitamin A and D intoxication), endocrinopathies (hyperthyroidism), various drugs (thiazide diuretics), and some inborn errors of metabolism. One of the congenital causes of PTH-independent hypercalcemia is idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 188
Correct
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A dental surgeon infiltrates local anaesthetic at the mandibular foramen to carry out a block of the right inferior alveolar nerve. Which of the following might occur as a result of the procedure?
Your Answer: Numbness of the lower teeth on the right side
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve supplies all the teeth of the respective hemimandible. It transverses the inferior alveolar canal and is a branch of the trigeminal nerve’s mandibular division. Therefore, in this case, the teeth of the right hemimandible will be numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area.Investigations were as follows:Hb 13.1 g/dlWCC 8.6 x109/lPLT 201 x109/lNa+ 139 mmol/lK+ 4.5 mmol/lCreatinine 110 µmol/l17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normalPelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess. Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with difficulty using his left hand ever since he sustained a distal humerus fracture at the age of 12. On examination, there was diminished sensation overlying the hypothenar eminence and medial one and half fingers. What is the most likely nerve injured?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely nerve injured in this case is the ulnar nerve.Ulnar Nerve:It arises from the medial cord of brachial plexus (C8, T1).It supplies motor fibres to the following structures:- Medial two lumbricals- Adductor pollicis- Interossei- Hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimiflexor carpi ulnarisIt carries sensation from the palmar and dorsal aspects of the medial 1 1/2 fingers.Patterns of damageIf the nerve is damaged at the wrist, the following features are observed:- Claw hand’: Hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits.- Wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals)- Wasting and paralysis of hypothenar muscles- A sensory loss in the medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)If the nerve is damaged at the elbow or above the ulnar paradox is observed – the fourth and fifth fingers are simply paralyzed and claw hand is less severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 191
Incorrect
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Proteinuria is NOT a recognized feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis
Correct Answer: Landau-Kleffner syndrome
Explanation:Proteinuria refers to an increased amount of protein excretion in urine, which should be greater than 100mg/m2 per day on a single spot urine collection. The limit is even more relaxed for infants and neonates. Proteinuria is a prominent manifestation of cystinosis, acute tubular necrosis, Fanconi syndrome, and celiac disease. Landau-Kleffner syndrome is a rare childhood convulsive disorder, associated with acquired aphasia and auditory verbal agnosia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost a month. Physical examination revealed a heart murmur, which however was not present at discharge. What is the most probable cause of this murmur?
Your Answer: TOF
Correct Answer: PDA
Explanation:PDA is particularly common in premature babies and it is managed by indomethacin administration. However, if PDA is not the only defect, prostaglandin E1 can be administered in order to keep the ductus open until the surgery takes place.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed a mass in right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this girl?
Your Answer: Increased water intake
Correct Answer: Laxatives
Explanation:Laxatives have been shown to be beneficial in the treatment of chronic childhood constipation. Studies have shown that polyethylene glycol, mineral oil, magnesium hydroxide, and lactulose are effective and can be used for a prolonged periods without risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their son might have delayed puberty. On examination, he has very little pubic hair and the testicular volume is 3ml. Bilateral gynaecomastia is also observed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Constitutional delay
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:The most overt phenotypic features of Klinefelter syndrome are caused by testosterone deficiency and, directly or indirectly, by unsuppressed follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones. Affected men typically have (in decreasing order of frequency): infertility, small testes, decreased facial hair, gynecomastia, decreased pubic hair, and a small penis. Because of their long legs, men with Klinefelter syndrome often are taller than predicted based on parental height. Body habitus may be feminized. In childhood, when there is a relative quiescence in the hormonal milieu, ascertainment of the syndrome may be difficult because the effects of hypogonadism (i.e., small external genitalia and firm testes) may be subtle or not present at all.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?
Your Answer: 200ml
Correct Answer: 600ml
Explanation:In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cushing's ulcers
Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers
Explanation:Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old visibly anxious female, known to have HIV, presents to the clinic with blurring of vision and blind spots in her field of vision. Her last CD4 count was reported to be 45 cells/mL. Which of the following complications of HIV has most likely occurred that has resulted in her ocular damage?
Your Answer: Acute episcleritis
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:The most common etiological agent for retinitis in HIV infected patients is cytomegalovirus (88.63% of retinitis in HIV/AIDS patients). Most patients have a CD4 lymphocyte count less than 50/μL, which can represent the susceptibility to this type of retinitis when lymphocyte count falls below this threshold. The treatment consists of systemic intravenous administration of Ganciclovir or Foscarnet at a first stage of induction, followed by the maintenance treatment with oral administration of Ganciclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp
Explanation:Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?
Your Answer: Sigmoid colon
Correct Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gigantism
Explanation:Hypogonadism is found to be a feature in gigantism also known as acromegaly, a condition caused by growth hormone abnormalities. The most common cause of gigantism is a pituitary adenoma. Hypogonadism exists among other endocrinopathies found in gigantism. Other causes of hypogonadism include Kleinfelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by premature testicular failure. The other options listed, primary hypothyroidism, teratoma, tuberous sclerosis and hepatoblastoma are all associated with precocious puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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