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Question 1
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis. Blood investigations reveal:ALT: 50 IU/L (0–45) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 505 IU/L (0–105)Which of the following medications has she most likely been administered in the course of her treatment?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Based on the presentation, she probably was administered co-amoxiclav.The liver function tests are highly suggestive of cholestatic jaundice, which is a classic adverse dug reaction related to co-amoxiclav use.Other options:- Erythromycin is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal (GI) disturbance.- Gentamicin is more commonly associated with renal impairment.- Meropenem does not commonly cause cholestasis but is associated with transaminitis.- Vancomycin is associated with red man syndrome on fast administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 2
Correct
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The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:
Your Answer: Should be performed before the study commences
Explanation:Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 3
Correct
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A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?
Your Answer: Make a tower out of 9 bricks
Explanation:3-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalCopies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/CommunicationFollows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handle Movement/Physical DevelopmentClimbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and downstairs one foot on each step
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 4
Correct
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A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with reduced responsiveness and muscle rigidity. His mother reports that he attended a rave and came home euphoric, ataxic, and experiencing multiple hallucinations.Which of the following illicit substances is the most likely to have been consumed?
Your Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:The given presentation is highly suggestive of withdrawal effect of ketamine.Ketamine is known for its unique property of inducing dissociative anaesthesia. Emergence phenomenon (as seen in the child in question) is an adverse effect that occurs during recovery from dissociative anaesthesia. The components of emergence phenomenon include a euphoric state associated with hallucinations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted to the NICU with suspected congenital TB. Her mother is HIV positive and is on HAART, recently diagnosed with tuberculosis 1 week ago. All of the following are features of congenital tuberculosis EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Congenital TB symptoms typically develop during the second or third week of life and include poor feeding, poor weight gain, cough, lethargy, and irritability. Other symptoms include fever, ear discharge, and skin lesions.Signs of congenital TB include failure to thrive, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, tachypnoea, and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation. The father, one boy and one girl present with a short stature, large heads, short digits, and trident hands. Genetic evaluation reveals they are all heterozygotes for a specific mutation. The rest of the family, the mother and the other daughter, do not carry this mutation. What is the pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
Explanation:In this case, the affected individuals are all heterozygotes. Therefore, the mutation is autosomal dominant. Also, the mother does not carry the mutation, further confirming the autosomal dominant nature of the disease, which is most probably achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoid tumours
Explanation:Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit
Explanation:The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male is learning about HIV as part of sex and relationships education in school. What is the most common mode of transmission of HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual
Explanation:Unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse with an infected individual is by far the most common (95%) route by which HIV is transmitted. Other options:- Blood transfusion is an extremely rare cause of HIV transmission in the UK. – While HIV can be transmitted from mother to baby either during birth or via breastfeeding, the transmission rate is only 5 – 20%.- Sharing contaminated needles does put individuals at risk of getting HIV, although public health measures are in place to reduce this risk. – Although HIV can be transmitted via this route, it is around ten times less likely to result in transmission than unprotected anal or vaginal intercourse with an infected individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing on her right temple that wasn't noted at birth, but is now 5 mm in diameter.What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress
Explanation:Capillary haemangiomas are one of the most common benign tumours of infancy. They are benign endothelial cell neoplasms that are typically absent at birth and characteristically have rapid growth in infancy with spontaneous involution later in life. This is in contrast to another known group of childhood vascular anomalies, vascular malformations. Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and arteriovenous malformations, are present at birth and are characterized by very slow growth with persistence into adult life. The indications for treatment can be divided into systemic, ophthalmic, and dermatologic reasons. Systemic reasons for intervention include congestive heart failure, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, and nasopharyngeal obstruction. Ophthalmic indications for intervention include occlusion of the visual axis, optic nerve compression, severe proptosis, and anisometropia. Dermatologic indications for intervention include maceration and erosion of the epidermis, infection, and cosmetic disfigurement.The first-line treatment of capillary haemangiomas is simple observation. Since most of these lesions regress on their own, there is no need to intervene unless one of the above criteria is met.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impetigo
Explanation:Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococci viridans
Explanation:Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not having opened his bowels. On examination, the anus is not visible, and meconium is coming out of the urethra. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is most accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This is an anorectal malformation with a recto urethral fistula, urgent defunctioning colostomy needed
Explanation:Anorectal malformations (ARMS) are also known as imperforate anus (IA). This is an umbrella term for a group of birth defects which affect the anorectal area.During a normal bowel movement, solid waste passes from the colon (large intestine) to the rectum (the final section the colon) and through the anus. When a child has an ARM, the rectum and the anus do not develop properly.Some types of ARM can cause constipation, faecal and / or urinary incontinence, infections and other problems. Some of these problems are very minor and easy to treat, with great long-term prognosis. Others are complex and affect multiple areas of life, such as sexual function and urinary and bowel control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the community clinic with constipation. During the examination, she goes into a seizure. The physician carries her to the treatment room and administers oxygen. After 5 minutes, the fits continue, and there is lack of buccal midazolam. Which of the following would be the best strategy in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam
Explanation:Diazepam given rectally may be helpful in treating prolonged convulsions outside and within hospital when intravenous injection is not possible. A rectal dose of 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 10 mg) of injectable diazepam, undiluted or diluted with a 50% propylene glycol solution, can stop seizures in up to 80% of children. There are few adverse reactions. Seizures in children usually cease spontaneously within 5-10 minutes and are rarely associated with significant sequelae. The chance of a seizure stopping spontaneously decreases significantly after 10-15 minutes. Similarly, the efficacy of anticonvulsant medication decreases after 10-15 minutes of fitting and the risk of adverse effects increases. Convulsive seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes constitute status epilepticus and may be complicated by cardio respiratory depression and brain injury. Diazepam or clonazepam, given intravenously, is generally the drug of choice for the emergency treatment of convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous diazepam may be difficult to administer to the young convulsing child and, because of the need for intravenous access, is not ideal for rapid treatment in the community by non-medical carers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child’s condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somogyi effect
Explanation:Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2
Explanation:Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones would you expect to see in a normal 6-month-old baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have lost the Moro reflex
Explanation:The Moro reflex is a normal primitive, infantile reflex. It can be seen as early as 25 weeks postconceptional age and usually is present by 30 weeks postconceptional age.6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.The causes of hypertrichosis include:- Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.- Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.- Porphyria cutanea tarda- Anorexia nervosa
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningococcaemia
Explanation:Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Airborne
Explanation:Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, vomiting and constipation. Her parents notice that she has been eating substances like soil, soap and paper recently. Her blood count and peripheral smear examination reveal a microcytic-hypochromic anaemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is lead poisoning.Lead poisoning: While it is not common, it can be potentially fatal. One of the key presenting features here is pica, the ingestion of non-nutritive substances such as soil, soap, paper or wood. Pica can also be observed in children in iron-deficiency anaemia, developmental delay and pregnancy. However, in a child who is exposed to lead in their environment (e.g. from lead paint or pipes), lead poisoning is most likely. It is commonly associated with iron deficiency which in turn increases the lead absorption. Treatment is either with oral D-penicillamine or intravenous sodium calcium edetate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure
Explanation:The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the head, and the muscles of mastication. The nerve is divided into three branches, the ophthalmic nerve (V1) the mandibular nerve (V2) and the maxillary nerve (V3) which all exit the skull through their respective foramina. An easy way to remember these foramina is with the following mnemonic:Standing Room Only, for V1-V3 respectivelyV1- Superior orbital FissureV2- foramen RotundumV3 foramen Ovale
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child underwent an emergency splenectomy following trauma. After full recovery he is dismissed from the hospital and returns home. On re-examination, eight weeks later, the GP performs a full blood count with a film. What would you expect to see?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies
Explanation:Howell-Jolly bodies are often seen in post-splenectomy cases, together with Pappenheimer bodies, target cells and irregular contracted red blood cells. The loss of splenic tissue results in the inability to readily remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from the circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A mother and her 2 year old girl is referred to a paediatrician on account of concerns over a possible squint. On examination the doctor uses a pen torch to assess the symmetry of the light reflex on each cornea. The following test was used to assess the child:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschberg test
Explanation:In the Hirschberg test, the corneal reflex should fall in the same place in both eyes. If there is a malalignment then the reflection of the light will appear in different places in the two eyes. The cover test is then used to differentiate between a latent deviation, or a manifest deviation.In the Bruckner test, the direct ophthalmoscope is used to obtain a red reflex simultaneously in both eyes. If strabismus is present, the deviated eye will have a lighter and brighter reflex than the fixating eye.The swinging flashlight test is a test of the pupils response to light, and to check for a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD).The Angle Kappa test measures the angle between the line of sight and the corneal-pupillary axis. It is a monocular measurement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. What is the most appropriate management for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9 months. On examination, both parotid glands are firm and non-tender and are not warm to touch.What is the most probable infectious cause for chronic parotitis in the given scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Explanation:The most probable cause for chronic parotitis in this patient would be HIV infection.Rationale:Chronic infectious parotitis is relatively uncommon in children. While mycobacterial infection can result in chronic parotitis, HIV is a relatively more common cause. The presentation should always prompt an HIV test. Other options:- While mumps is the most common cause of acute viral parotitis, the chronic nature of the boy’s presentation rules it out. – Acute bacterial parotitis is usually unilateral and is warm and tender to touch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following injection complications are more prevalent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipohypertrophy
Explanation:Lypohypertrophy is the most common skin-related complication of insulin injection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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