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  • Question 1 - The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of...

    Correct

    • The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of the neck?

      Your Answer: Visceral space

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine gland in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is situated at the front and sides of the neck in the visceral space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Incorrect

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: It is present at rest

      Correct Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a...

    Correct

    • A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal...

    Correct

    • During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal angle. The sternal angle is a land mark for locating the level of the:

      Your Answer: Second costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle, a key landmark used in the clinic for auscultating for heart sounds, is the point of attachment of the costal cartilage of rib 2 to the sternum. It thus corresponds to the location of the second rib. A horizontal plane through the sternal angle traverses the T4/T5 intervertebral disc and marks the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to...

    Correct

    • In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?

      Your Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left...

    Correct

    • A surgeon ligates the left middle suprarenal artery while carrying out a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left middle suprarenal artery originate?

      Your Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      Middle suprarenal arteries arise from either side of the abdominal aorta, opposite the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage: ...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:

      Your Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein

      Explanation:

      Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Incorrect

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer: Nasociliary nerve

      Correct Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Following a posterolateral thoracotomy, a surgeon may wish to infiltrate local anaesthetic above...

    Correct

    • Following a posterolateral thoracotomy, a surgeon may wish to infiltrate local anaesthetic above and below the incision to block the nerves supplying the thoracic wall. This wall is innervated by?

      Your Answer: Intercostal nerves

      Explanation:

      Intercostal nerves are the ventral primary rami of spinal nerves T1–T11. They give branches which supply the thoracic wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?...

    Correct

    • The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?

      Your Answer: Ischial tuberosities

      Explanation:

      The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following muscle divide the posterior triangle of the neck into...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscle divide the posterior triangle of the neck into the occipital and the subclavian triangle?

      Your Answer: Inferior belly of the omohyoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck bounded in front by the sternocleidomastoid; behind, by the anterior margin of the trapezius; inferiorly by the middle third of the clavicle and superiorly by the occipital bone. The posterior triangle is crossed, about 2.5 cm above the clavicle, by the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle, which divides the space into two triangles: an upper or occipital triangle and a lower or subclavian triangle (or supraclavicular triangle).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing tumour. The function of which of the following structures will be affected?

      Your Answer: Ciliary muscle

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve (CNIII). It offers motor and parasympathetic innervation to many of the ocular structures. The motor fibres innervate a number of the extraocular muscles. While the parasympathetic fibres supply the sphincter pupillae and the ciliary muscles of the eye, and the sympathetic fibres innervates the superior tarsal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?

      Your Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium

      Explanation:

      The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood...

    Correct

    • Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?

      Your Answer: Middle rectal

      Explanation:

      Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Correct

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine: ...

    Correct

    • Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:

      Your Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum

      Explanation:

      The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was...

    Correct

    • upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was noted. This is likely to be accompanied with:

      Your Answer: Spasticity

      Explanation:

      An upper motor neuron lesion affects the neural pathway above the anterior horn cell or motor nuclei of the cranial nerves, whereas a lower motor neurone lesion affects nerve fibres travelling from the anterior horn of the spinal cord to the relevant muscles. An upper motor neurone lesions results in the following:

      – Spasticity in the extensor muscles (lower limbs) or flexor muscles (upper limbs).

      – ‘clasp-knife’ response where initial resistance to movement is followed by relaxation

      – Weakness in the flexors (lower limbs) or extensors (upper limbs) with no muscle wasting

      – Brisk tendon jerk reflexes

      – Positive Babinski sign (on stimulation of the sole of the foot, the big toe is raised rather than curled downwards)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became worse after he started playing basket ball over the last three months. He was admitted to the orthopaedic ward to have elbow braces fitted. What type of synovial joint is the elbow joint?

      Your Answer: Hinge

      Explanation:

      The elbow joint is one of the many synovial joints in the body. This joint is an example of the hinge joint as the humerus is received into the semilunar notch of the ulna and the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the fovea on the head of the radius, together acting as a hinge in one plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.

      The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.

      The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.

      Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop...

    Correct

    • A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?

      Your Answer: Medial inguinal fossa

      Explanation:

      In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury. Which of the...

    Correct

    • During thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury. Which of the following muscles will not be affected in cases where the recurrent laryngeal nerve is severed?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      All muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except for the cricothyroid which is supplied by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted...

    Correct

    • A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted in him unable to move the proximal radioulnar joint of his right arm. Which muscles was affected?

      Your Answer: Pronator teres

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the pronator teres muscle. This muscle arises from 2 heads of origin: the humerus and ulnar. Between the 2 heads is the site of entrance of median nerve to the forearm. This muscle acts on the proximal radio-ulnar joint to rotate the radius on the ulna, otherwise known as pronation. It also assists in forearm flexion if the radius is fixed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A retroperitoneal structure is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A retroperitoneal structure is:

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal structures are those that are found behind the peritoneum. They include: kidneys, suprarenal glands, bladder, ureter, inferior vena cava, rectum, oesophagus (part of it), part of the pancreas, 2nd, 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum and ascending and descending parts of the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle...

    Correct

    • A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle is affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Right lateral pterygoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Patients with paralysis of the right pterygoid muscle are unable to move their mandible laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of...

    Correct

    • During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of glass severed the posterolateral aspect of the driver's neck. A physical examination reveals that the driver is unable to elevate the tip of his shoulder on the side that was injured. Which nerve was injured?

      Your Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      The tip of the shoulder is formed by the acromion of the scapula. This part is moved by the trapezius muscle which is innervated by the accessory nerve. Damage to this nerve therefore will prevent the patient from lifting the tip of the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg...

    Correct

    • What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg veins and ending in the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of left lung?.

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery

      Explanation:

      A clot originating in the leg vein will go to the inferior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the right ventricle, through the pulmonary trunk, into the left pulmonary artery, into the left superior lobar artery and then finally reach the left apical segmental artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Correct

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35 year-old woman is undergoing thyroidectomy. The external laryngeal nerve may be...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year-old woman is undergoing thyroidectomy. The external laryngeal nerve may be injured whilst ligating this artery during the procedure due to its close relationship?

      Your Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The superior thyroid artery arises from the external carotid artery just below the level of the greater cornu of the hyoid bone and ends in the thyroid gland. This artery must be ligated at the thyroid when conducting a thyroidectomy. If the artery is severed, but not ligated, it will bleed profusely. In order to gain control of the bleeding, the surgeon may need to extend the original incision laterally to ligate the artery at its origin at the external carotid artery. The external laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve courses in close proximity to the superior thyroid artery, making it at risk for injury during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has...

    Correct

    • Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has malignant growth involving the anus?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The lymphatics from the anus, skin of the perineum and the scrotum end in the superficial inguinal nodes. In case of a malignant growth of the anus, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes would most likely be enlarge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?

      Your Answer: Viral pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness....

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 40-year-old housewife suddenly complains of a headache and loses consciousness. A CT scan reveals subarachnoid haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Saccular aneurysms, also known as berry aneurysms, appear as a round outpouching and are the most common form of cerebral aneurysm. They are a congenital intracranial defect, and haemorrhage can occur at any age, but is most common between the ages of 40-65 years. A second rupture (rebleeding) sometimes occurs, most often within about 7 days of the first bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of...

    Correct

    • Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The popliteal fossa is located at the back of the knee. It is bounded laterally by the biceps femoris above and the plantaris and lateral head of the gastrocnemius below and medially by the semitendinosus and semimembranosus above and by the medial head of the gastrocnemius below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery: ...

    Correct

    • The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery:

      Your Answer: Brachial

      Explanation:

      The brachial artery gives rise to a small branch at the middle of the arm, which is the superior collateral artery. It descends accompanied by the ulnar nerve and anastomoses with the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm...

    Correct

    • During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm above the inguinal ligament. The registrar is warned to look out for the inferior epigastric vessels to avoid damage. Between which layers of the abdominal wall is the registrar likely to find these vessels?

      Your Answer: Transversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric vessels lie on the inner surface of the transversus abdominis muscle covered by the parietal peritoneum. This layer of peritoneum lies over the inferior epigastric vessels to make the lateral umbilical fold. Camper’s and Scarpa’s fascia are two layers of the superficial fascia, the fatty layer and the membranous layer respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be...

    Correct

    • Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?

      Your Answer: S3

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy....

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery...

    Correct

    • In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.

      Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.

      Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.

      Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.

      The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Quadratus femoris

      Correct Answer: Obturator externus

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies both gemellae, quadratus femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, both heads of the biceps femoris, the hamstring half of abductor magnus and obturator internus. Obturator externus is supplied by the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:

      Your Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a direct inguinal hernia on the right side. He had undergone and appendicectomy 6 months prior. The examining doctor correlated the development of the hernia to iatrogenic nerve injury that happened during the operation. Which nerve had been injured?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Direct inguinal hernias occur because of weakness in the abdominal muscles. The ilioinguinal nerve is important for innervating the muscles of the lower abdominal wall and damage during appendicectomy therefore prevents the man from being able to contract abdominal muscles to pull the falx inguinalis over the weak fascia.

      The genitofemoral nerve innervates the cremaster muscle and injury to it would cause inability to elevate the testes.

      The subcostal nerve and the ventral primary ramus of T10 innervate the muscles, skin and fascia of the upper abdominal wall.

      The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the skin over the upper part of the buttock behind the area supplied by the subcostal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest in a structure that is in close proximity to where the first rib articulates with the sternum. What is the structure that was most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Root of the lung

      Correct Answer: Sternoclavicular joint

      Explanation:

      The first rib articulates with the sternum right below the sternoclavicular joint.

      The sternal angle articulates with the costal cartilage of the second rib.

      The nipple is found between the fourth and the fifth ribs, in the fourth intercostal space.

      The xiphoid process is located right below the point of articulation of the costal cartilage of rib 7 with the sternum.

      The root of the lung is the part of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.

      Acromioclavicular joint is the point of articulation between the acromion process and the clavicle, near the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe?

      Your Answer: Middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle

      Correct Answer: Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle

      Explanation:

      The pterygomandibular raphé (pterygomandibular ligament) provides attachment on its posterior border to the superior pharyngeal constrictor and on its anterior border to the buccinator muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?

      Your Answer: Left suprarenal

      Explanation:

      The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle originates from the common flexor tendon of the forearm?

      Your Answer: Pronator quadratus

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Explanation:

      The medial epicondyle of the humerus is the site of origin of this group of muscles of the forearm. It originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus by a common tendon. Fibres from the deep fascia of the forearm, near the elbow and septa, pass from this fascia between the muscles. These muscles include the pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa?

      Your Answer: Temporal fossa

      Correct Answer: Pterygopalatine fossa

      Explanation:

      The maxillary artery supplies deep structures of the face. It branches from the external carotid artery just deep to the neck of the mandible. It is divided into three portions:

      – The first or mandibular portion (or bony portion) passes horizontally forward, between the neck of the mandible and the sphenomandibular ligament.

      – The second or pterygoid portion (or muscular portion) runs obliquely forward and upward under cover of the ramus of the mandible, on the surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle; it then passes between the two heads of origin of this muscle and enters the fossa.

      – The third portion lies in the pterygopalatine fossa in relation to the pterygopalatine ganglion. This is considered the terminal branch of the maxillary artery. Branches from the third portion includes: the sphenopalatine artery, descending palatine artery, infraorbital artery, posterior superior alveolar artery, artery of pterygoid canal, pharyngeal artery, middle superior alveolar artery and anterior superior alveolar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with...

    Correct

    • A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with swelling of the left upper limb due to poor venous return. On examination, it is found that an aneurysm of the ascending aorta is impinging on a large vein lying immediately anterosuperior to it. Which vein is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic

      Explanation:

      Among the veins listed, only the left brachiocephalic vein is anterosuperior to the ascending aorta. The right brachiocephalic vein being on the right side would not be affected by the aortic aneurysm.

      The azygos vein lies deep in the chest on the right side.

      The internal thoracic vein lies interior to the anterior wall of the chest.

      The left superior intercostal vein is close to the aortic arch, crossing it laterally. This vein drains the 2nd to 4th interspaces on the left side.

      The Right internal jugular vein joins the right brachiocephalic vein which would not be affected by the aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the...

    Correct

    • During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the duodenum, the most appropriate site to make the incision on the anterior abdominal wall to approach this ulcer would be the:

      Your Answer: Epigastric region

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided into nine regions for descriptive purposes. The epigastric region contains the first part of the duodenum, part of the stomach, part of the liver and pancreas. This would be the region that the surgeon would need to enter to access the ulcer.

      Typically, a midline incision in the epigastric region, extending from just below the xiphoid process down to the umbilicus, provides excellent access to the first part of the duodenum.

      The left inguinal region contains the sigmoid colon.

      The left lumbar region contains the descending colon and kidney.

      The right lumbar region contains the right kidney and descending colon.

      The right hypochondrial region contains part of the liver and gall bladder.

      The hypogastric region contains the urinary bladder and the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints? ...

    Correct

    • Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle, the longest muscle in the body, is one of the two jointed or biarticular muscles. It originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and part of the notch between the anterior superior iliac spine and anterior inferior iliac spine and crosses both the hip joint and the knee joint. At the hip joint the sartorius flexes and rotates the thigh at the hip joint and flexes the leg at the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply to the pancreas?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is a glandular organ in the body that produces important hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Its blood supply is from branches of the coeliac artery, superior mesenteric artery and the splenic artery. These are the arteries that if ligated, would affect blood supply to the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One...

    Correct

    • A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One day after the surgery patient complained of numbness of the skin over the right side of the neck. Injury to the cervical plexus of nerves is suspected. What is the possible nerve affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Transverse cervical

      Explanation:

      The transverse cervical nerve (superficial cervical or cutaneous cervical) arises from the second and third spinal nerves, turns around the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and, passing obliquely forward beneath the external jugular vein to the anterior border of the muscle, it perforates the deep cervical fascia, and divides beneath the platysma into the ascending and descending branches. It provides cutaneous innervation to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity...

    Incorrect

    • The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity from the bottom of the external acoustic meatus. The interior of the tympanic membrane is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: Facial

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve, known as the ninth cranial nerve (CN IX), is a mixed nerve that carries afferent sensory and efferent motor information. The glossopharyngeal nerve has five distinct general functions:

      – The branchial motor (special visceral efferent), supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle.

      – The visceral motor (general visceral efferent), provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland via the otic ganglion.

      – The visceral sensory (general visceral afferent), carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.

      – The general sensory (general somatic afferent), provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx (GVA), and the posterior one-third of the tongue.

      – The visceral afferent (special visceral afferent), provides taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, including the circumvallate papillae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Jugular foramen

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the? ...

    Correct

    • During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?

      Your Answer: Wolffian duct

      Explanation:

      The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - The pudendal nerve is derived from? ...

    Correct

    • The pudendal nerve is derived from?

      Your Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve derives it’s fibres from the ventral branches of the second, third and fourth sacral nerves (S2,3,4)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site....

    Correct

    • A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum...

    Correct

    • The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the...

    Correct

    • During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.

      The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.

      The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (42/52) 81%
Head & Neck (8/14) 57%
Neurology (7/8) 88%
Physiology (4/5) 80%
Thorax (6/7) 86%
Abdomen (16/17) 94%
Pelvis (5/5) 100%
Upper Limb (3/4) 75%
Pathology (3/3) 100%
Lower Limb (3/4) 75%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Passmed