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  • Question 1 - A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company...

    Correct

    • A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company behind this, is planning to conduct a trial and is looking for hiring around 200 individuals that are suffering from Crohn's disease. The aim would be to determine if there is any decline in the disease activity in response to the drug and compare it with a placebo.

      What phase is the trial in?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      The study is being conducted on a smaller level with only 200 participants and is determining the effectiveness of the drug in comparison to a placebo. These characteristics are in accordance with the second phase of trial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      1785
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
    After examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
      After examination and investigation, the surgical team decides to perform a laparoscopic hernia repair using the extraperitoneal approach. After making an infraumbilical incision, the surgeons perform the repair by placing a prosthetic mesh over the affected area, after shifting the inferior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle anteriorly.

      Name the structure that would like posterior to the mesh?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peritoneum

      Explanation:

      This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.

      The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.

      The bucks fascia lies within the penis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 3 - The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a...

    Incorrect

    • The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the myocardium. Which structure forms the largest tributary of the coronary sinus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Great cardiac vein

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus is large venous structure located on the posterior aspect of the left atrium, coursing within the left atrioventricular groove. The function of the coronary sinus is to drain the venous blood from the majority of the heart. It opens into the right atrium between the opening of inferior vena cava, the fossa ovalis and the right atrioventricular orifice. The coronary sinus is often guarded by a thin, semicircular endocardial fold, also known as the thebesian valve.
      Tributaries include: Great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, posterior vein of left ventricle, oblique vein of left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?...

    Incorrect

    • The main site of storage of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglobulin

      Explanation:

      The follicle is the functional unit of the thyroid gland. The follicular cells surround the follicle which is filled with colloid. Suspended within the colloid is the is a pro-hormone complex thyroglobulin.

      The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones is done by follicular cells and the thyroglobulin within the colloid.

      Iodide ions (I−) are actively transported against a concentration gradient into the follicular cell under the influence of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). It then undergoes oxidation to active iodine catalysed by thyroid peroxidase (TPO). The synthesis of thyroglobulin is in the follicular cells and it contains up to 140 tyrosine residues. The tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin and active iodine are merged to form mono- and di-iodotyrosines (MIT and DIT). The iodinated thyroglobulin is then taken up into the colloid where it is stored and dimerised. Two DIT molecules are joined to produce thyroxine (T4) while one MIT and one DIT molecule are joined to produce tri-iodotyrosine (T3) by a process catalysed by TPO.

      Thyroglobulin droplets are taken up as vesicles into follicular cells by pinocytosis. This process is stimulated by TSH. When these vesicles fuse with lysosomes, hydrolysis of the thyroglobulin molecules and subsequent release of T4 and T3 into the circulation occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presented with significant proteinuria and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presented with significant proteinuria and severe headache. On examination, the blood pressure recorded was consistently raised at 190/110. Subsequently, she was admitted to the labour ward as a case of pre-eclampsia.

      A loading dose of IV magnesium sulphate 4g is given, followed by a 1g/hour infusion.

      The most suitable parameter to access magnesium toxicity is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tendon reflexes

      Explanation:

      Magnesium is a very important cation due to its various physiological roles in the body. This includes:
      – playing the role of a cofactor in many enzymatic reactions
      – influencing hormone receptor binding
      – affecting calcium channels
      – impact on cardiac, vascular and neural cells

      Magnesium sulphate is used as first line in the treatment of eclampsia. Moreover, it has some preventive role in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. All the clinical effects of magnesium are in line with its plasma concentration.

      The first sign of magnesium toxicity in obstetric patients is the loss of patellar reflex, which is regularly monitored during treatment. The other options are all late signs of magnesium toxicity.

      Whenever there is a doubt, serum magnesium levels should always be monitored.

      The table below correlates the effects of increased levels of magnesium on the body:

      Plasma Concentration
      (mmol/L) Effect
      0.7-1.2 Normal
      4-8 Decreased deep tendon reflexes, nausea, headache, weakness, malaise, lethargy and facial flushing
      5-10 ECG changes (prolonged PR, prolonged QT, and widened QRS)
      10 Muscle weakness, loss of deep tendon reflexes, hypotension
      15 SA/AV nodal block, respiratory paralysis and depression
      20 Cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 43-year old woman, presented to the emergency department. She has suffered trauma...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year old woman, presented to the emergency department. She has suffered trauma to her right orbital floor.

      On examination, it is noted that her right eye is deviated upwards when compared to her left. She also has a deliberate tilt in her head to the left in an attempt to compensate for loss of intorsion.

      This clinical sign is caused by damage to which of the following cranial nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Explanation:

      The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the fourth and smallest cranial nerve. It’s role is to provide somatic motor innervation of the superior oblique muscle which is responsible for oculomotion.

      Injury to the trochlear nerve will result in vertical diplopia, which worsens when looking downwards or inwards. This diplopia presents as an upward deviation of the eye with a head tilt away from the site of the lesion.

      The abducens nerve (CN VI) provides somatic motor innervation for the lateral rectus muscle which functions to abduct the eye. Injury to this nerve will cause diplopia and an inability to abduct the eye, causing the patient to have to rotate their head to look sideways.

      The facial nerve (CN VII) provides sensory, motor and parasympathetic innervations. It’s motor aspect controls the muscles of facial expression. Damage will cause paralysis of facial expression.

      The oculomotor nerve (CN III) provides motor and parasympathetic innervations. Its motor component controls most of the other extraocular muscles. Damage to it will result in ptosis, dilatation of the pupil and a down and out eye position.

      The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN VI) is responsible for sensory innervation of skin, mucous membranes and sinuses of the upper face and scalp.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 7 - Of the following, which of these oxygen carrying molecules causes the greatest shift...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which of these oxygen carrying molecules causes the greatest shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve to the left?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myoglobin (Mb)

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a haemoglobin-like, iron-containing pigment that is found in muscle fibres. It has a high affinity for oxygen and it consists of a single alpha polypeptide chain. It binds only one oxygen molecule, unlike haemoglobin, which binds 4 oxygen molecules.

      The myoglobin ODC is a rectangular hyperbola. There is a very low P50 0.37 kPa (2.75 mmHg). This means that it needs a lower P50 to facilitate oxygen offloading from haemoglobin. It is low enough to be able to offload oxygen onto myoglobin where it is stored. Myoglobin releases its oxygen at the very low PO2 values found inside the mitochondria.

      P50 is defined as the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: It is the PO2 at which the haemoglobin becomes 50% saturated with oxygen. Normally, the P50 of adult haemoglobin is 3.47 kPa(26 mmHg).

      Foetal haemoglobin has 2 ? and 2 ?chains. The ODC is left shifted – this means that P50 lies between 2.34-2.67 kPa [18-20 mmHg]) compared with the adult curve and it has a higher affinity for oxygen. Foetal haemoglobin has no ? chains so this means that there is less binding of 2.3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG).

      Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin with an affinity more than 200-fold higher than that of oxygen. This therefore decreases the amount of haemoglobin that is available for oxygen transport. Carbon monoxide binding also increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, which shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left and thus impedes oxygen unloading in the tissues.

      In sickle cell disease, (HbSS) has a P50 of 4.53 kPa(34 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 8 - Which of these statements is true about spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements is true about spirometry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes

      Explanation:

      Functional residual capacity (FRC) is 1.7 to 3.5L/kg

      A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes. The total lung capacity (TLC) is total sum of the volume of gas present in all lung compartments upon maximum inspiration. It is represented mathematically as:

      Total lung capacity (TLC) = Vital capacity (VC) + Residual volume (RV)

      The residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas still present within the lung post maximum exhalation. It cannot be measured by spirometry, but can be using a body plethysmograph and also with the helium dilution technique.

      Closing capacity (CC) is the volume of gas within the lungs at which small airways close upon expiration. It increases with age and is especially important when it surpasses the FRC as it causes changes in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia.
      In the supine position, a patient with a normal body mass index and no history of lung pathology, the CC equals the FRC at approximately 44, and at approximately 66 at standing position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 9 - During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed...

    Incorrect

    • During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Randomisation

      Explanation:

      Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.

      For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. She has low serum calcium and low serum parathyroid hormone levels on investigations.

      She appears slightly confused, likely due to hypocalcaemia, and cannot give a full account of her past medical history, but can recall that she recently was admitted to the hospital.

      What is the most likely cause of her hypoparathyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is injury or removing the parathyroid glands. They can be injured accidentally during surgery to remove the thyroid as they are located posterior to the thyroid gland.

      A result of both low parathyroid hormone and low calcium is likely to mean that the parathyroid glands are not responding to hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia can cause confusion, and the stay in the hospital is likely to refer to her surgery.

      While a parathyroid adenoma is fairly common and can cause hypoparathyroidism, it much more likely causes hyperparathyroidism.

      Chronic kidney disease is likely to cause hypocalcaemia, which would increase parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to increase calcium levels, causing hyperparathyroidism. Vitamin D is activated by the kidneys and then binds to calcium to be absorbed in the terminal ileum so that a deficiency would cause hyperparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 11 - The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity

      Explanation:

      The functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration. It is determined by opposing forces of the expanding chest wall and the elastic recoil of the lung. A normal FRC = 1.7 to 3.5 L. It a marker for lung function, and, during this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.

      FRC cannot be measured by spirometry because it contains the residual volume.

      Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and vital capacity can be measured directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 12 - What is the name of the space between the vocal cords? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the space between the vocal cords?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rima glottidis

      Explanation:

      The rima glottidis is a narrow, triangle-shaped opening between the true vocal cords.

      The vocal folds (true vocal cords) control sound production. The apex of each fold projects medially into the laryngeal cavity.

      Each vocal fold includes these vocal ligaments:

      Vocalis muscle (most medial part of thyroarytenoid muscle)

      The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes and rima glottidis.

      The rima glottidis is the narrowest potential site within the larynx, as the vocal cords may be completely opposed, forming a complete barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is produced by both inducible and constitutive forms of nitric oxide synthetase

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is generated from L-arginine by nitric oxide synthase. It is produced in response to haemodynamic stress by the vascular endothelium, and it produces both smooth muscle relaxation and reduced vascular resistance.

      Nitric oxide may be inactivated through interaction with other oxygen free radicals, (e.g. oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)).

      Nitric oxide causes the production of the second messenger, cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 14 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following facts about IgE is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following facts about IgE is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.

      The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.

      IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.

      Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 16 - Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body

      Explanation:

      The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.

      Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 17 - A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to...

    Incorrect

    • A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator.

      Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectifier

      Explanation:

      There are two types of defibrillators
      AC defibrillator
      DC defibrillator

      AC defibrillator,
      consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.

      DC defibrillator,
      consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.

      Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.

      Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.

      Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.

      In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured.

      The following is a description of the clinical examination:

      Anxious
      Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
      Cool peripheries
      Pulse 120 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.

      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%

      Explanation:

      The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:

      Class I haemorrhage:
      It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.

      Class II haemorrhage:
      It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.

      Class III haemorrhage:
      There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.

      Class IV haemorrhage:
      There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had recently started gliclazide, a sulphonyl urea, as his diabetes was not controlled by metformin alone.

      Now, he presents to his physician with complaints of anxiety, sweating, and palpitations since the morning. On physical examination, he is pale and clammy and has mydriasis and increased bowel sounds.

      Which biological site primarily synthesizes the hormone responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      This patient has been shifted to a sulfonylurea drug whose most common side effect is hypoglycaemia. Similar symptoms can arise in a patient on insulin too. The signs and symptoms are consistent with a hypoglycaemic attack and include tachycardia, altered consciousness, and behaviour. This needs to be treated as an emergency with rapid correction of the blood glucose level using glucose or IV 20% dextrose.

      In a hypoglycaemic attack, the body undergoes stress and releases hormones to increase blood glucose levels. These include:
      Glucagon
      Cortisol
      Adrenaline

      Adrenaline or epinephrine is the hormone responsible for this patient’s condition and is primarily produced in the medulla of the adrenal gland. It functions primarily to raise cardiac output and raise blood glucose levels in the blood.

      Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans produce the hormone glucagon, which has opposing effects to insulin.

      Follicular cells of the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones can cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely with the patient’s medical history.

      Post-ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. Adrenaline can be made in these cells, but it is not their primary production site.

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is the main site for the production of cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old soldier is shot in the abdomen. He has multiple injuries, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old soldier is shot in the abdomen. He has multiple injuries, including a major disruption to the abdominal aorta. The bleeding is torrential and needs to be controlled by placing a vascular clamp immediately inferior to the diaphragm.

      During this manoeuvre, which vessel may be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries

      Explanation:

      The inferior phrenic nerves are at the highest risk of damage as they are the first branches of the abdominal aorta. The potential space at the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus is a potentially useful site for aortic occlusion. However, leaving the clamp applied for more than 10 -15 minutes usually leads to poor outcomes.

      The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.

      The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

      The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
      1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
      2. Coeliac artery: T12
      3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
      4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
      5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
      6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
      7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
      8. Median sacral artery: L4
      9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 21 - Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together

      Explanation:

      There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.

      The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.

      Each half of the circle is formed by:
      1. Anterior communicating artery
      2. Anterior cerebral artery
      3. Internal carotid artery
      4. Posterior communicating artery
      5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar artery

      The circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent such as Lidocaine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shortens refractory period

      Explanation:

      The action of class 1 anti-arrhythmic is sodium channel blockade. Subclasses of this action reflect effects on the action potential duration (APD) and the kinetics of sodium channel blockade.

      Drugs with class 1A prolong the APD and refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with intermediate kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1B action shorten the APD in some tissues of the heart, shorten the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with rapid kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1C action have minimal effects on the APD and the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with slow kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - A study of 1500 participants is designed to determine the normal range for...

    Incorrect

    • A study of 1500 participants is designed to determine the normal range for a number of parameters in a certain population.
      Analysis has revealed that there is a strong positive correlation between height and forced expiratory volume (FEV1).

      Which of the following statistical technique can be utilized to predict FEV1 at any given height in this cohort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linear regression

      Explanation:

      A forest plot is a graphical representation that summarizes the findings of several research, such as a meta-analysis of a series of randomized controlled trials.

      The Kaplan-Meier estimate shows survival over time, for example, plotting the number of patients still alive seven years after chemotherapy for lung cancer.

      Fisher’s exact test similarly uses contingency tables to assess statistical significance, however, it is typically used when sample sizes are small.

      Chi-square test assesses whether an association exists between two categorical variables using the observed and expected frequencies. For instance, is social class (I-V) related to body mass index (BMI) category? Using the observed and anticipated frequencies, the Chi-square test determines whether a connection exists between two categorical variables. For example, is socio-economic status related to BMI category?

      Linear regression is a technique which attempts to model the relationship between two variables by fitting a linear equation to observed data. Linear regression uses correlation between two continuous variables. As correlation only indicates the strength of an association only, it cannot be used to forecast the change in one variable when a second variable is altered.

      This equation takes the form y = mx + c, where ‘y’ is the dependent variable, ‘x’ is the independent variable, ‘m’ is the slope of the line and ‘c’ is the intercept. In this example, for a range of heights, it would be possible to map a line of best fit to a scatter plot and thus predict the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) for an individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 24 - Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
      1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
      2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the groove

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
      nerves:
      Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
      Radial groove: radial nerve.
      Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
      Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 25 - Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type CF is considered to safe for direct connection with the heart

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 26 - Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these...

    Incorrect

    • Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ALA synthetase

      Explanation:

      Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.

      There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 27 - A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs.

      He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - Regarding the information about kidney, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the information about kidney, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Each kidney contains approximately 1.2 million nephrons

      Explanation:

      Each kidney is composed of about 1.2 million uriniferous tubules. Each tubule consists of two parts that are embryologically distinct from each other. They are as follows:
      a) Excretory part, called the nephron, which elaborates urine
      b) Collecting part which begins as a junctional tubule from the distal convoluted tubule.

      There are two types of nephrons in the kidney:
      The cortical nephron comprises 80% of the total nephron and its major function is the excretion of waste products in urine whereas the juxtamedullary nephron comprises 20% of the total nephron and its major function is the concentration of urine by counter current mechanism.
      In the superficial (cortical) nephrons, peritubular capillaries branch off the efferent arterioles and deliver nutrients to epithelial cells as well as serve as a blood supply for reabsorption and secretion. In juxtamedullary nephrons, the peritubular capillaries have a specialization called the vasa recta, which are long, hairpin-shaped blood vessels that follow the same course as a loop of Henle. The vasa recta serve as osmotic exchangers for the production of concentrated urine.

      The kidney receives about 25% of cardiac output and about 20% of this is filtered at the glomeruli of the kidney. Thus, renal blood flow is 1200 ml/minute and renal plasma flow is 650 ml/minute

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in preventing eclampsia in susceptible patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilatation of cerebral circulation due to calcium channel antagonism reducing cerebral vascular spasm

      Explanation:

      Magnesium is a unique calcium antagonist as it can act on most types of calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and as such would be expected to decrease intracellular calcium. One major effect of decreased intracellular calcium would be inactivation of calmodulin-dependent myosin light chain kinase activity and decreased contraction, causing arterial relaxation that may subsequently lower peripheral and cerebral vascular resistance, relieve vasospasm, and decrease arterial blood pressure.

      The vasodilatory effect of MgSO4 has been investigated in a wide variety of vessels. For example, both in vivo and in vitro animal studies have shown that it is a vasodilator of large conduit arteries such as the aorta, as well as smaller resistance vessels including mesenteric, skeletal muscle, uterine, and cerebral arteries.

      The theory of cerebrovascular vasospasm as the aetiology of eclampsia seemed to be reinforced by transcranial Doppler (TCD) studies which suggested that MgSO4 treatment caused dilation in the cerebral circulation as well as in animal studies that used large cerebral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 30 - Which among the following is summed up by F statistic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is summed up by F statistic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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