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  • Question 1 - A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long...

    Correct

    • A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?

      Your Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that...

    Correct

    • The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that dura mater of the brain. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges.

      The middle meningeal artery is a large arterial branch of the maxillary artery which is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery. Upon originating, the middle meningeal artery passes through the foramen spinosum. In the skull, it courses in the middle cranial fossa where it provides several branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?

      Your Answer: Digastric

      Explanation:

      The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:

      – The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric

      – The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid

      – The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Incorrect

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: The adductor part of the adductor magnus muscle would be affected

      Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to the casualty after he had fallen from the 3rd floor of a building. An examination carried out revealed tenderness on the left mid-posterior axillary line and low blood pressure. Further palpation revealed a large swelling that protruded downward and medially below the left costal margin. X-rays showed that the 9th and the 10th ribs were fractured near their angles. Considering these results, which abdominal organ was likely injured by the fractured ribs.

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The spleen, left kidney, stomach, the splenic flexure of the colon and the suprarenal glands are all in the same quadrant- the left upper quadrant. However, the spleen is the most readily injured organ when there is fracture to the 10th, 11th and the 12th ribs because of its close association with these ribs. This patient exhibits a great indication of a ruptured spleen (tenderness on the left mid and posterior axillary line). The spleen is a thin capsulated organ with a spongy parenchyma, allowing it to bleed profusely in the event of injury. The liver, head of the pancreas and the duodenum are all in the right upper quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which nuclei of the posterior grey column of the spinal cord are likely...

    Correct

    • Which nuclei of the posterior grey column of the spinal cord are likely affected in a patient who has lost the sensation of pain and temperature?

      Your Answer: Substantia gelatinosa

      Explanation:

      Substantia gelatinosa is one of the nuclei in the posterior grey column along side other posterior grey column nuclei like the nucleus dorsalis, nucleus proprius, and posteromarginal nucleus. These nuclei are a collection of cells in the posterior grey area found in throughout the spinal cord. The substantia gelatinosa receives direct input from the dorsal nerve roots (sensory), especially from thermoreceptors and nociceptors (receptors for temperature and pain).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the: ...

    Correct

    • The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow area and damaging the nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. What is the most likely result from that injury?

      Your Answer: Extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints of digits 4 and 5

      Correct Answer: Flexion in the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5

      Explanation:

      The nerve injured in this situation is the ulnar nerve. It passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus before going between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle. This nerve supplies the muscles and skin of forearm and hand. At the level of medial epicondyle, the injury will led to paralysis in flexor carpi ulnaris and the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus as well as the palmar interossei and hypothenar muscles in the hand. The correct answer will be that the boy will suffer from inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      110.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Correct

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus?

      Your Answer: The medial cord continues as the musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: The posterior cord continues as the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The lateral cord continues as the musculocutaeous nerve.

      The medial cord continues as the ulnar nerve.

      The posterior cord continues as the radial nerve and the axillary nerve.

      The nerve to subclavius muscle is a branch of the C6 root.

      The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the upper trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is most likely to be irritated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal

      Explanation:

      Tracheobronchial lymph nodes are located at the bifurcation of the trachea and are in three groups i.e. the right superior, left superior and inferior. The aorta arches over the left bronchus near the point of tracheal bifurcation. Thus, the nerves that are closely associated with the aorta might be irritated if these nodes become inflamed. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is such a nerve. The phrenic nerves, both the left and the right, are lateral and thus would not be affected. The right recurrent nerve loops around the right subclavian artery and is distant from this area. The right vagus artery is not associated with the aorta and the sympathetic chain is located in the posterior chest parallel to the vertebra, also not associated with the tracheobronchial tree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of...

    Correct

    • A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. Which structure will experience decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer: The sublingual gland

      Explanation:

      The paired sublingual glands are major salivary glands in the mouth. They are the smallest, most diffuse, and the only unencapsulated major salivary glands. They provide only 3-5% of the total salivary volume. The gland receives its blood supply from the sublingual and submental arteries. The sublingual artery is a branch of the lingual artery, thus damage to the lingual artery will decrease the blood flow to the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.

      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.

      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.

      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.

      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - From which source does the lingual artery originate? ...

    Correct

    • From which source does the lingual artery originate?

      Your Answer: External carotid

      Explanation:

      The lingual artery arises from the external carotid between the superior thyroid artery and facial artery. It can be located easily on the lower surface of the tongue. The terminal branch of the lingual artery is the deep lingual artery. On its course the lingual artery gives off side branches: dorsal lingual branches that supply the dorsum of the tongue till the epiglottis; sublingual artery that supplies the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42 year old man with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) underwent an...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old man with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) underwent an abdominal aortic angiography which revealed that his inferior mesenteric artery was occluded. If this patient showed no symptoms, the most likely reason is that the area the inferior mesenteric artery supplies, must be supplied by collateral blood flow from which arteries?

      Your Answer: Left and middle colic

      Explanation:

      The arterial branches that form an anastomosis between the superior mesenteric artery and the inferior mesenteric artery are the left colic artery and the middle colic artery. The middle colic artery is the most distal branch of the superior mesenteric artery while the left colic forms the most proximal branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. These two arteries will give collateral blood flow in the case that the inferior mesenteric artery gets occluded. The superior mesenteric artery gives off the following branches; ileocolic, appendicular, ileal artery, right colic and middle colic arteries. The left colic, sigmoid and superior rectal arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery. The marginal artery branches off directly from the abdominal aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy...

    Correct

    • A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy showed the distinct cherry red spot on the retina. Which of the following arteries was occluded?

      Your Answer: Central artery of the retina

      Explanation:

      The central retinal artery supplies all the nerve fibres that form the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Thus if the central retinal artery gets occluded, there is complete loss of vision in that eye and the entire retina (with the exception of the fovea) becomes pale, swollen and opaque while the central fovea still appears reddish (this is because the choroid colour shows through). This is the basis of the famous Cherry red spot seen on examination of the retina on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      55.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries, that runs on the superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, forms the lower boundary of the epiploic foramen (also known as the foramen of Winslow)?

      Your Answer: Hepatic

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen is an important anatomical opening that allows for the communication between the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. Its boundaries are formed; superiorly by the caudate lobe of the liver, anteriorly by the hepatoduodenal ligament (containing the components of the portal triad), inferiorly by the first part of the duodenum and posteriorly by the peritoneum covering the inferior vena cava. The superior aspect of the first part of the duodenum, which forms the inferior boundary of the foramen of Winslow, forms the course of the hepatic artery before it ascends to the porta hepatis where it divides into its right and left branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?

      Your Answer: Viral pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure...

    Correct

    • During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure that lies immediately anterior to the thoracic duct. Which structure is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      In the mid-thorax, the azygos vein, thoracic duct and aorta (in this order from right to the left) are all located posterior to the oesophagus. The superior vena cava, left internal jugular vein and trachea are not found in the mid thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of Brown-Séquard syndrome due to hemisection of the spinal cord at mid-thoracic level?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral spastic paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense) and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation beginning one or two segments below the lesion

      Explanation:

      Brown–Séquard syndrome results due to lateral hemisection of the spinal cord and results in a loss of motricity (paralysis and ataxia) and sensation. The hemisection of the cord results in a lesion of each of the three main neural systems: the principal upper motor neurone pathway of the corticospinal tract, one or both dorsal columns and the spinothalamic tract. As a result of the injury to these three main brain pathways the patient will present with three lesions. The corticospinal lesion produces spastic paralysis on the same side of the body (the loss of moderation by the upper motor neurons). The lesion to fasciculus gracilis or fasciculus cuneatus results in ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense). The loss of the spinothalamic tract leads to pain and temperature sensation being lost from the contralateral side beginning one or two segments below the lesion. At the lesion site, all sensory modalities are lost on the same side, and an ipsilateral flaccid paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Correct

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the motor innervation of this muscle?

      Your Answer: A branch of a nerve that exits through the superior orbital foramen

      Correct Answer: A branch of a nerve that exits through the stylomastoid foramen

      Explanation:

      The orbicularis oculi is a muscle in the face that closes the eyelids. It is supplied by zygomatic branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), which exits through the stylomastoid foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the: ...

    Correct

    • The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the:

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      The presence or absence of the mesentery determines mobility of abdominal contents. Structures like the stomach, transverse colon and appendix have mesenteries and thus are relatively mobile. In contrast, the pancreas is a retroperitoneal (behind the peritoneum) structure and therefore is fixed. The greater omentum is a large mobile fold of omentum that hangs down from the stomach .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings:

      Your Answer: The aorta passes through the opening at T10

      Correct Answer: The thoracic duct passes through the opening at T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragmatic openings are:

      T8 – opening for the inferior vena cavaand the right phrenic nerve

      T10 – opening for the oesophagusand the left gastric artery and vein

      T12 – opening for the aorta, the thoracic duct and azygos vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from...

    Incorrect

    • Internal haemorrhoids are painless and only sensitive to stretch. They are formed from folds of the mucous membrane and the submucosa of the anal canal which contain varicose branches of the:

      Your Answer: Inferior rectal vein

      Correct Answer: Superior rectal vein

      Explanation:

      Internal haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the superior rectal vein.

      External haemorrhoids are formed by varicosities of the branches of the inferior rectal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Colorectal
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum? ...

    Correct

    • Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Gastric

      Explanation:

      The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely; gastric and pancreatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on...

    Incorrect

    • What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen?

      Your Answer: Elevation of the eyeball

      Correct Answer: Elevation of the upper eyelid

      Explanation:

      The levator palpebrae superioris is the muscle in the orbit that elevates the superior (upper) eyelid. The levator palpebrae superioris originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen and receives somatic motor input from the ipsilateral superior division of the oculomotor nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the...

    Incorrect

    • The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the postganglionic sympathetic fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Ciliary ganglion

      Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglion

      Explanation:

      The postganglionic sympathetic axons are derived from the superior cervical ganglion and innervate the eye and lacrimal gland allowing for vasoconstriction of the iris and sclera, pupillary dilation, widening of the palpebral fissure, and a reduction in tear production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with:

      Your Answer: Penile erections

      Explanation:

      Normal sleep comprises of alternate cycles between slow-wave sleep (non-REM sleep) and REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by increased metabolic brain activity and EEG desynchronization. Somnambulism (sleepwalking), enuresis (bedwetting) and night terrors all occur during slow-wave sleep or during arousal from slow-wave sleep. In comparison, REM sleep is characterized by hypotonia of major muscle groups (excluding ocular muscles), dreams, nightmares and penile erection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (18/26) 69%
Upper Limb (1/3) 33%
Head & Neck (6/9) 67%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (6/7) 86%
Neurology (5/5) 100%
Thorax (3/3) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (2/2) 100%
Colorectal (0/1) 0%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Passmed