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  • Question 1 - An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node...

    Correct

    • An old man was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma with axillary lymph node metastasis. The doctor said he will excise the tumour and remove all axillary lymph nodes lateral to the edge of the pectoralis minor muscle. One of the following axillary lymph nodes won't be removed by this procedure. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Apical

      Explanation:

      The apical lymph node group won’t be removed which include 20 to 30 lymph nodes.

      Axillary lymph nodes are grouped according to location. The lateral group, the anterior to pectoral group, the posterior or subscapular group, the central group, and the medial or apical group. The lateral, pectoral, and subscapular groups are found lateral to the pectoralis minor muscle. The central group is situated directly under that muscle. Thus, if all lymph nodes lateral to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle are removed, all the above four groups will be removed. The apical group won’t be removed which is situated medial to the medial edge of the pectoralis minor muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of...

    Correct

    • Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The popliteal fossa is located at the back of the knee. It is bounded laterally by the biceps femoris above and the plantaris and lateral head of the gastrocnemius below and medially by the semitendinosus and semimembranosus above and by the medial head of the gastrocnemius below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior column-medial lemniscus system?

      Your Answer: Fine touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior column–medial lemniscus (PCML) pathway is a sensory pathway that transmits fine touch and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. As the posterior columns are also known as dorsal columns, the pathway is also called the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system or DCML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than...

    Incorrect

    • A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than a slowly developing loud sound. This is because:

      Your Answer: The tympanic membrane becomes flaccid as a sound becomes louder

      Correct Answer: There is a latent period before the attenuation reflex can occur

      Explanation:

      On transmission of a loud sound into the central nervous system, an attenuation reflex occurs after a latent period of 40-80 ms. This reflex contracts the two muscles that pull malleus and stapes closer, developing a high degree of rigidity in the entire ossicular chain. This reduces the ossicular conduction of low frequency sounds to the cochlea by 30-40 decibels. In this way, the cochlea is protected from damage due to loud sounds (these are low frequency sounds) when they develop slowly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part...

    Correct

    • The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part of the lacrimal sac and drains into which structure?

      Your Answer: Inferior meatus

      Explanation:

      The nasolacrimal duct carries tears from the lacrimal sac of the eye into the nasal cavity. The duct begins in the eye socket between the maxillary and lacrimal bones, from where it passes downwards and backwards. The opening of the nasolacrimal duct into the inferior nasal meatus of the nasal cavity is partially covered by a mucosal fold (valve of Hasner or plica lacrimalis). Excess tears flow through the nasolacrimal duct which drains into the inferior nasal meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When...

    Correct

    • The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible towards which direction?

      Your Answer: Laterally, to the right

      Explanation:

      The lateral pterygoid or external pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible laterally and to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When exposing the right saphenofemoral junction for flush-ligation of the saphenous vein, which...

    Correct

    • When exposing the right saphenofemoral junction for flush-ligation of the saphenous vein, which of the following is the most likely to be seen passing through this opening?

      Your Answer: Superficial external pudendal artery

      Explanation:

      The saphenous opening is an oval opening in the fascia lata. It is covered by the cribriform fascia and It is so called because it is perforated by the great saphenous vein and by numerous blood and lymphatic vessels and the superficial external pudendal artery pierces it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the lateral portion of the dorsal columns at the level of the nape of the neck will most likely affect:

      Your Answer: Vibrations from the contralateral arm

      Correct Answer: Vibratory sensations from the ipsilateral arm

      Explanation:

      At the level mentioned in the question, the lateral portion of dorsal columns comprises of the fasciculus cuneatus. Axons carrying the sensations of touch, vibration and proprioception from the ipsilateral arm enter the spinal cord and ascend in the fasciculus cuneatus, synapsing in the nucleus cuneatus of the caudal medulla. Secondary neurons from this nucleus give rise to internal arcuate fibres, which decussate and ascend to the thalamus as the medial lemniscus. Tertiary neurons from there project to the ipsilateral somatosensory cortex. Thus, any damage to the fasciculus cuneatus will result in a deficit in tactile, proprioceptive and vibratory sensations in the ipsilateral arm, and not the contralateral arm.

      Fine motor control of the fingers is mainly carried by the ipsilateral lateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Motor control of the contralateral foot is carried by the ipsilateral corticospinal tract in the lateral funiculus of the cord. Lack of sweating of the face could be produced by interruption of sympathetic innervation. Proprioception from the ipsilateral leg is carried by the fasciculus gracilis in the medial part of the dorsal columns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      92.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An old woman complains of a lack of sensation halfway down the anterior...

    Incorrect

    • An old woman complains of a lack of sensation halfway down the anterior surface of the thigh. The cause of this:

      Your Answer: Would result from compression of the ventral roots of L5 to S2

      Correct Answer: Would result from damage to the nerve that innervates the pectineus muscle

      Explanation:

      The pectineus is supplied by the second, third and fourth lumbar nerves through the femoral nerve and by the third lumbar through the accessory obturator when it exists. The anterior surface of the thigh receives its innervation from the femoral nerve as well, thus this is the nerve most likely to be injured

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury. Which of the...

    Correct

    • During thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury. Which of the following muscles will not be affected in cases where the recurrent laryngeal nerve is severed?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      All muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except for the cricothyroid which is supplied by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to...

    Correct

    • A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to avoid damaging an important nerve lying around the arch of the aorta. Which nerve is the surgeon trying to preserve?

      Your Answer: Left Vagus

      Explanation:

      The left vagus nerve lies on the lateral surface of the aortic arch. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus and loops around the arch of the aorta. This nerve is at risk of injury during surgery.

      The right and left phrenic nerves, being lateral to the vagus, do not loop around the arch of the aorta.

      The sympathetic trunks, both right and left, are located in the posterior chest; not near the aortic arch.

      The right vagus: not involved with the aortic arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was scheduled for CT scan. If the CT scan revealed a tumour at the horn of the lateral ventricle, which of the following structures is most likely to be compressed by this tumour?

      Your Answer: Fibres of the corpus callosum

      Explanation:

      The ventricular system of the brain is made up of four ventricles namely; two lateral and a third and forth ventricle. The ventricles are the site of the development of the cerebrospinal fluid. The left and right lateral ventricles are located in each of the brain’s hemispheres. The roof of the lateral ventricles are made up of the fibres of the corpus callosum. This is the structure that would be compressed by the a tumour on the roof of the lateral ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a...

    Incorrect

    • A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops...

    Correct

    • A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops malignant mesothelioma and is scheduled for pleuropneumonectomy to remove the entire pleura and lung on the affected side. Which layer would provide a natural cleavage plane for surgical separation of the costal pleura from the thoracic wall?

      Your Answer: Endothoracic fascia

      Explanation:

      The endothoracic fascia is connective tissue that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner aspect of the chest wall. Removing this layer of connective tissue would make it easy to separate the costal pleura from the thoracic wall.

      Deep fascia: is not found around the lungs. It is a layer of connective tissue that invests a muscle or a group of muscles.

      Parietal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the inner surface of the chest/thoracic cavity.

      Visceral pleura: is the serous membrane that lines the surface of the lungs.

      Transversus thoracis muscle fascia is associated only with the muscle transversus thoracis.

      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. It is not associated with the thoracic wall or the costal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a large artery that runs immediately posterior to the stomach?

      Your Answer: Splenic

      Explanation:

      The splenic artery is the large artery that would be found running off the posterior wall of the stomach. It is a branch of the coeliac trunk and sends off branches to the pancreas before reaching the spleen. The gastroduodenal artery on the other hand is found inferior to the stomach, posterior to the first portion of the duodenum. The left gastroepiploic artery runs from the left to the right of the greater curvature of the stomach. The common hepatic artery runs on the superior aspect of the lesser curvature of the stomach, and is a branch of the coeliac trunk. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta just below the junction of the coeliac trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35 year old male patient sustained a traumatic head injury. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male patient sustained a traumatic head injury. The patient had loss of consciousness, woke up momentarily when he was in the emergency room but became drowsy and comatose a few hours after. CT scan of the brain showed accumulation of blood between the dura and the cranial bone on the left side of his head. What type of haemorrhage did the patient have?

      Your Answer: Epidural

      Explanation:

      Epidural hematoma, also known as epidural bleeding, is a type of traumatic brain injury (TBI) in which a build-up of blood occurs between the dura mater (the tough outer membrane of the central nervous system) and the skull. The spinal cord is also covered by a layer of dura mater, so epidural bleeds may also occur in the spinal column. Often due to trauma, the condition is potentially deadly because the build-up of blood may increase pressure in the intracranial space, compressing delicate brain tissue, and causing brain shift. The condition is present in one to three percent of head injuries. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and...

    Correct

    • A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and needles in the dorsum of the thumb and digits 1 and 2. On further examination they found that he had weakness in wrist dorsiflexion and finger extension. Which nerve do you think is injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve can be injured in multiple sites along its course in the upper limb, and each site has its own presentation. The major complaint is wrist drop which if high above the elbow, can cause numbness of the forearm and hand. It can last for several days or weeks. The most common site of compression for the radial nerve is at the proximal forearm in the area of the supinator muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      140.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has...

    Incorrect

    • Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has malignant growth involving the anus?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The lymphatics from the anus, skin of the perineum and the scrotum end in the superficial inguinal nodes. In case of a malignant growth of the anus, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes would most likely be enlarge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the...

    Incorrect

    • What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid muscle

      Explanation:

      The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The following branch of the aorta is unpaired: ...

    Correct

    • The following branch of the aorta is unpaired:

      Your Answer: Coeliac artery

      Explanation:

      Branches that stem from the abdominal aorta can be divided into three: the visceral branches, parietal branches and terminal branches. Of the visceral branches, the suprarenal, renal, testicular and ovarian arteries are paired while the coeliac artery and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are unpaired. Of the parietal branches the inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries are paired while the middle sacral artery is unpaired. The terminal branches i.e. the common iliac arteries are paired.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Temporalis

      Correct Answer: Buccinator

      Explanation:

      Buccinator is a muscle of facial expression and is therefore innervated by the facial nerve. The lateral pterygoid, masseter, anterior belly of digastric and temporalis are all muscles of mastication and therefore innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck; Neurology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation...

    Correct

    • An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation over it still being intact. What is the injured nerve in this case?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Atrophy of the thenar muscles means injury to the motor supply of these muscles. The nerve that sends innervation to it is the median nerve. But the median nerve does not provide sensory innervation to the overlying skin so sensation is spared.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle...

    Correct

    • A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle is affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Right lateral pterygoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Patients with paralysis of the right pterygoid muscle are unable to move their mandible laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy...

    Correct

    • An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy is complicated when a tear develops in a large venous structure in the posterior mediastinum that empties into the superior vena cava. Which of the following structures is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is formed by the union of the right subcostal veins and the ascending lumbar veins at the level of the 12th thoracic vertebra. It enters the thorax through the aortic hiatus to ascend in the posterior mediastinum and arching over the right main bronchus posteriorly at the root of the right lung to join the superior vena cava before it pierces the pericardium.

      The basilic vein is a vein on the medial aspect of the arm that ascends to become the axillary vein.

      The cephalic vein is also a vein of the arm.

      The external jugular and brachiocephalic vein are not in the posterior mediastinum.

      The median cubital vein is found in the cubital fossa of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery to relieve large bowel obstruction resulting from a segment of the bowel being strangulated in the hernial sac. The most likely intestinal segment involved is:

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The sigmoid colon is the most likely segment involved as it is mobile due to the presence of the sigmoid mesocolon. The descending colon, although on the left side, is a bit superior and is also retroperitoneal. The ascending colon and caecum are on the right side of the abdomen. The rectum is too inferior to enter the deep inguinal ring and the transverse colon is too superior to be involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Incorrect

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect: ...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Vision

      Correct Answer: Regulation of circadian rhythm

      Explanation:

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus is responsible for controlling endogenous circadian rhythms and destruction of the SCN leads to a loss of circadian rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in...

    Correct

    • The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?

      Your Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Incorrect

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Correct

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (19/26) 73%
Upper Limb (3/4) 75%
Lower Limb (2/3) 67%
Neurology (1/4) 25%
Physiology (1/4) 25%
Head & Neck (7/9) 78%
Thorax (3/4) 75%
Abdomen (4/4) 100%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck; Neurology (0/1) 0%
Passmed