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  • Question 1 - A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver cirrhosis that has led to portal hypertension. Which of the following plexuses of veins is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoidal plexus

      Explanation:

      The haemorrhoidal plexus or also known as the rectal plexus is a venous plexus that surrounds the rectum. This venous plexus in males communicates anteriorly with the vesical plexus and uterovaginal plexus in females. This venous plexus forms a site of free communication between the portal and systemic venous systems. In the case of portal hypertension this plexus would most likely dilate due to the increased pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?

      Your Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.

      Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.

      Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.

      Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.

      Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      124.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of...

    Correct

    • The following joint has an anastomotic circulation that is provided by branches of the brachial artery:

      Your Answer: Elbow joint

      Explanation:

      The arterial anastomoses of the elbow joint is contributed by branches of the brachial artery and the Profunda brachii artery. The brachial artery gives off the superior ulnar collateral artery and the inferior collateral artery. On the other hand, the Profunda brachii gives off the radial and medial recurrent arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      79
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Correct

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      61.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long...

    Correct

    • A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?

      Your Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Correct

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of these infectious agents tends to affect people under 20 and over...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these infectious agents tends to affect people under 20 and over 40 years old, can cause acute encephalitis with cerebral oedema and petechial haemorrhages, along with haemorrhagic lesions of the temporal lobe. A lumbar puncture will reveal clear cerebrospinal fluid with an elevated lymphocyte count?

      Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhagic lesions of the temporal lobe are typical of Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE). It tends to affect patients aged under 20 or over 40 years, and is often fatal if left untreated. In acute encephalitis, cerebral oedema and petechial haemorrhages occur and direct viral invasion of the brain usually damages neurones. The majority of cases of herpes encephalitis are caused by herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1), and about 10% of cases of herpes encephalitis are due to HSV-2, which is typically spread through sexual contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Correct

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      74
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Correct

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the? ...

    Incorrect

    • During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?

      Your Answer: Appendix of epididymis

      Correct Answer: Wolffian duct

      Explanation:

      The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In relation to the muscles of facial expression, It is true to say:...

    Correct

    • In relation to the muscles of facial expression, It is true to say:

      Your Answer: They are in the same subcutaneous plane as the platysma muscle

      Explanation:

      The facial muscles generally originate from the facial bones and attach to the skin, in the same plane as the platysma muscle. They are all innervated by cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve). The occipitofrontalis muscle consists of two parts: The occipital belly, near the occipital bone, and the frontal belly, near the frontal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for the last 5 days. A CT scan reveals an oedematous mass with ring enhancement in the left temporal region. It is biopsied, revealing glial cells, necrosis, neutrophils and lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. It is most frequent in the third decade of life, and when it occurs in children, it is usually associated with congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When...

    Incorrect

    • The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible towards which direction?

      Your Answer: Laterally, to the left

      Correct Answer: Laterally, to the right

      Explanation:

      The lateral pterygoid or external pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible laterally and to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be...

    Incorrect

    • Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be seen in:

      Your Answer: Parkinsonism

      Correct Answer: Cerebellar disease

      Explanation:

      The given symptoms are seen in diseases affecting the cerebellum. A cerebellar tremor is a slow tremor that occurs at the end of a purposeful movement. It is seen in cerebellar disease, such as multiple sclerosis or some inherited degenerative disorders and chronic alcoholism. Classically, tremors are produced in the same side of the body as a one-sided lesion. Cerebellar disease can also result in a wing-beating’ type of tremor called rubral or Holmes’ tremor – a combination of rest, action and postural tremors. Other signs of cerebellar disease include dysarthria (speech problems), nystagmus (rapid, involuntary rolling of the eyes), gait problems and postural tremor of the trunk and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A correct statement about the RECTUM: ...

    Correct

    • A correct statement about the RECTUM:

      Your Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems

      Explanation:

      The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 20 year old is brought to the A&E after he fell from...

    Correct

    • A 20 year old is brought to the A&E after he fell from a moving cart. The boy has sustained blunt abdominal injury, and the there is a possibility of internal bleeding as the boy is in shock. An urgent exploratory laparotomy is done in the A&E theatre. On opening the peritoneal cavity, the operating surgeon notices a torn gastrosplenic ligament with a large clot around the spleen. Which artery is most likely to have been injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Short gastric

      Explanation:

      The short gastric arteries branch from the splenic artery near the splenic hilum to travel back in the gastrosplenic ligament to supply the fundus of the stomach. Therefore, these may be injured in this case.

      The splenic artery courses deep to the stomach to reach the hilum of the spleen. It doesn’t travel in the gastrosplenic ligament although it does give off branches that do.

      The middle colic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the transverse colon.

      Gastroepiploic artery is the largest branch of the splenic artery that courses between the layers of the greater omentum to anastomose with the right gastroepiploic.

      Left gastric artery, a branch of the coeliac trunk. It supplies the left half of the lesser curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed...

    Correct

    • During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:

      Your Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.

      An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.

      Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.

      Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said...

    Correct

    • A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said to have been involved in a mall explosion. Chest imaging reveals metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. He also has a pericardial effusion suggestive of a pericardial tear. An emergency thoracotomy is done which revealed a tear of the pericardium inferiorly. The surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac with his hand from below the apex. He slips his fingers upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. His finger tips were now in the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this sinus.

      Coronary sinus: large vein that drains the heart into the right atrium. Located on the surface of the heart.

      Coronary sulcus: groove on the heart demarcating the atria from the ventricles.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has...

    Correct

    • Which lymph nodes are likely to be enlarged in a patient who has malignant growth involving the anus?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The lymphatics from the anus, skin of the perineum and the scrotum end in the superficial inguinal nodes. In case of a malignant growth of the anus, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes would most likely be enlarge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      12.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (15/17) 88%
Pelvis (2/2) 100%
Abdomen (5/5) 100%
Upper Limb (3/3) 100%
Head & Neck (3/4) 75%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Pathology (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed