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  • Question 1 - A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other drugs. What is the mechanism of action of tazobactam?

      Your Answer: Inhibits translocase

      Correct Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase

      Explanation:

      Tazobactam is a compound which inhibits the action of bacterial beta-lactamases. It is added to the extended-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic piperacillin to broaden the spectrum of piperacillin by making it effective against organisms that express beta-lactamase and would normally degrade piperacillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?

      Your Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.

      Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:

      The motor and pre-motor areas

      The somato-sensory

      Auditory areas

      Motor speech

      Sensory speech

      Pre-frontal area

      Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:

      i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face

      ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      104.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must...

    Correct

    • When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must identify the second costal cartilage by palpating which landmark?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is the site for identification of the second rib as the second rib is attached to the sternum at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A Monospot test in a 17-year old boy presenting with fever, multiple palpable...

    Correct

    • A Monospot test in a 17-year old boy presenting with fever, multiple palpable lymph nodes and mild icterus was positive. His blood investigation is likely to show which of the following?

      Your Answer: Atypical lymphocytosis

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus is the causative agent for infectious mononucleosis leading to presence of atypical lymphocytes in blood. Usually symptomatic in older children and adults, the incubation period is 30-50 days. Symptoms include fatigue, followed by fever, adenopathy and pharyngitis. Fatigue can last for months and is maximum in first few weeks. Fever spikes in the afternoon or early evening, with temperature around 39.5 – 40.5 °C. The ‘typhoidal’ form where fatigue and fever predominate has a low onset and resolution. Pharyngitis resemble that due to streptococcus and can be severe and painful. Lymphadenopathy is bilaterally symmetrical and can involve any nodes, specially the cervical ones. Mild splenomegaly is seen in 50% cases, usually in 2-3rd week. Mild tender hepatomegaly can occur. Less common manifestations include maculopapular eruptions, jaundice, periorbital oedema and palatal enanthema. Diagnostic tests include full blood count and a heterophil antibody test. Morphologically abnormal lymphocytes account for 80% cells and are heterogenous, unlike leukaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of...

    Incorrect

    • Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of plasma. Which microbial product is responsible for this activity?

      Your Answer: Plasmin

      Correct Answer: Coagulase

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most pathogenic species and is implicated in a variety of infections.  S. aureus can be identified due to its production of coagulase. The staphylococcal enzyme coagulase will cause inoculated citrated rabbit plasma to gel or coagulate. The coagulase converts soluble fibrinogen in the plasma into insoluble fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?

      Your Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with...

    Correct

    • A 60 year-old patient being treated for hypertension presents to the ED with swelling of the left upper limb due to poor venous return. On examination, it is found that an aneurysm of the ascending aorta is impinging on a large vein lying immediately anterosuperior to it. Which vein is it likely to be?

      Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic

      Explanation:

      Among the veins listed, only the left brachiocephalic vein is anterosuperior to the ascending aorta. The right brachiocephalic vein being on the right side would not be affected by the aortic aneurysm.

      The azygos vein lies deep in the chest on the right side.

      The internal thoracic vein lies interior to the anterior wall of the chest.

      The left superior intercostal vein is close to the aortic arch, crossing it laterally. This vein drains the 2nd to 4th interspaces on the left side.

      The Right internal jugular vein joins the right brachiocephalic vein which would not be affected by the aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with vasculitis and the histopathological sample revealed giant-cell arteritis. What is the most probable diagnose?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA), also known as temporal arteritis, is the most common systemic inflammatory vasculitis that occurs in adults. It is of unknown aetiology and affects arteries large to small however the involvement of the superficial temporal arteries is almost always present. Other commonly affected arteries include the ophthalmic, occipital and vertebral arteries, therefore GCA can result in systemic, neurologic, and ophthalmologic complications. GCA usually is found in patients older than 50 years of age and should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache accompanied by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Diagnosis depends on the results of artery biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides?

      Your Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Created by the small intestinal cells, chylomicrons are large lipoprotein molecules which transport lipids to the liver, adipose, cardiac and skeletal tissue. Chylomicrons are mainly composed of triglycerides (,85%) along with some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. Apo B-48 is the main apolipoprotein content.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Correct

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in her shoulders and hips for 4 months, which is worst in the mornings. She has also been suffering from fatigue, weight loss and depression. There were no abnormal findings on physical examination. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 110 mm/hour, and serum rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody assays were negative. Mild normochromic normocytic anaemia was also found. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) affects older adults, with an acute or subacute onset. Symptoms include severe pain and stiffness of the neck and pectoral or pelvic girdles, which is worse in the morning or after a period of inactivity and is usually bilateral. Other symptoms can include fatigue, weight loss, depression and fever. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated, and normochromic normocytic anaemia can occur. Other tests are usually normal in this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      72.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man complains of headaches, weakness, cramps, and confusion; blood tests reveal...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man complains of headaches, weakness, cramps, and confusion; blood tests reveal he has severe hyponatremia. The most likely cause is:

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea or vomiting

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia occurs when the sodium level in the plasma falls below 135 mmol/l. Hyponatraemia is an abnormality that can occur in isolation or, more commonly as a complication of other medical illnesses. Severe hyponatraemia may cause osmotic shift of water from the plasma into the brain cells. Typical symptoms include nausea, vomiting, headache and malaise. As the hyponatraemia worsens, confusion, diminished reflexes, convulsions, stupor or coma may occur. The cause of hyponatremia is typically classified by a person’s fluid status into low volume, normal volume, and high volume. Low volume hyponatremia can occur from diarrhoea, vomiting, diuretics, and sweating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      87.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does...

    Correct

    • Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does medulloblastoma commonly originate from?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Medulloblastoma is the most common malignant brain tumour in children, accounting for 10-20% of primary CNS neoplasms. Most of the tumours originate in the cerebellar vermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and...

    Correct

    • A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and needles in the dorsum of the thumb and digits 1 and 2. On further examination they found that he had weakness in wrist dorsiflexion and finger extension. Which nerve do you think is injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve can be injured in multiple sites along its course in the upper limb, and each site has its own presentation. The major complaint is wrist drop which if high above the elbow, can cause numbness of the forearm and hand. It can last for several days or weeks. The most common site of compression for the radial nerve is at the proximal forearm in the area of the supinator muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - From which fascia of the pelvic wall muscle does the levator ani muscle...

    Correct

    • From which fascia of the pelvic wall muscle does the levator ani muscle arise?

      Your Answer: Obturator internus

      Explanation:

      The levator ani muscle arises from the posterior surface of the superior ramus of the pubis lateral to the symphysis, behind the inner surface of the spine of the ischium and between these points from the obturator internus fascia. It is attached to the inner surface of the side of the lesser pelvic cavity, supports the viscera in the cavity and surrounds the various structures that pass through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient is diagnosed with Brucellosis. What is the mode of transmission of...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with Brucellosis. What is the mode of transmission of this disease?

      Your Answer: Unpasteurised milk

      Explanation:

      Brucellosis is a highly contagious zoonosis caused by ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals, or close contact with their secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?...

    Correct

    • Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?

      Your Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm...

    Correct

    • During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm above the inguinal ligament. The registrar is warned to look out for the inferior epigastric vessels to avoid damage. Between which layers of the abdominal wall is the registrar likely to find these vessels?

      Your Answer: Transversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric vessels lie on the inner surface of the transversus abdominis muscle covered by the parietal peritoneum. This layer of peritoneum lies over the inferior epigastric vessels to make the lateral umbilical fold. Camper’s and Scarpa’s fascia are two layers of the superficial fascia, the fatty layer and the membranous layer respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport...

    Correct

    • Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport of glucose in the renal tubular cells occurs via:

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport with sodium

      Explanation:

      In 1960, Robert K. Crane presented for the first time his discovery of the sodium-glucose cotransport as the mechanism for glucose absorption. Glucose transport through biological membranes requires specific transport proteins. Transport of glucose through the apical membrane of renal tubular as well as intestinal epithelial cells depends on the presence of secondary active Na+–glucose symporters, SGLT-1 and SGLT-2, which concentrate glucose inside the cells, using the energy provided by co-transport of Na+ ions down their electrochemical gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back, along with increased serum amylase levels,...

    Correct

    • Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back, along with increased serum amylase levels, is seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The primary test for diagnosis and monitoring of pancreatitis is amylase. Increased plasma levels of amylase can be found in: salivary trauma (including anaesthetic intubation), mumps, pancreatitis and renal failure. However, a rise in the total amylase levels over 10 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) is suggestive of pancreatitis; 5–10 times the ULN may indicate ileus or duodenal disease or renal failure. Lower levels are commonly found in salivary gland disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30 year old lawyer presented with a history of pleural effusions, pericarditis,...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old lawyer presented with a history of pleural effusions, pericarditis, arthralgia without joint deformity and episodes of myalgia for the past 12 months. Blood tests reveal a normocytic anaemia. Which of the following tests should be performed to investigate this condition further?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear antibody test

      Explanation:

      These non specific findings are suggestive of autoimmune disease. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) is the first test that should be performed when autoimmune diseases are suspected and later on more specific tests should be performed. This tests aids in the diagnosis of SLE, scleroderma, Sjogren’s syndrome, Raynaud’s disease, juvenile chronic arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis and antiphospholipid antibody syndrome etc. To confirm the disease a history, physical examination along with specific tests are required.

      CPK is more specific for acute conditions.

      ESR is a non specific test for inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      107.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      69.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old woman known with Von Willebrand disease (vWD) has to undergo surgery....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman known with Von Willebrand disease (vWD) has to undergo surgery. Which of these complications is most unlikely in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hemarthrosis

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is an inherited haemorrhagic disorder characterised by the impairment of primary haemostasis. It is caused by the deficiency or dysfunction of a protein named von Willebrand factor. The most common manifestation due to the condition is abnormal bleeding. Complications include easy bruising, hematomas, epistaxis, menorrhagia, prolonged bleeding and severe haemorrhage. Hemarthrosis is a complication that is more commonly found in haemophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following nerves has its terminal branch at the supratrochlear nerve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves has its terminal branch at the supratrochlear nerve?

      Your Answer: Ophthalmic

      Correct Answer: Frontal

      Explanation:

      The supratrochlear nerve is a branch of the frontal nerve which comes from the ophthalmic division of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). It passes above the superior oblique nerve and its descending filaments join the infratrochlear branch of the nasociliary nerve. From the orbit, it exits between the supraorbital foramen and the pulley of the superior oblique. It then curves up to the forehead beneath the corrugator supercilli and frontalis muscle. It further divides into branches that supply sensory innervation to the bridge of the nose, medial part of the upper eyelid and medial forehead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen that causes hospital-acquired infections. It is...

    Correct

    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen that causes hospital-acquired infections. It is usually treated with piperacillin or another antibiotic. Which of the following is the other antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Azlocillin

      Explanation:

      Azlocillin, like piperacillin, is an acylampicillin antibiotic with an extended spectrum of activity and greater in vitro potency than the carboxypenicillins. Azlocillin is similar to mezlocillin and piperacillin. It demonstrates antibacterial activity against a broad spectrum of bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following proteins acts as cofactor in the thrombin-induced activation of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following proteins acts as cofactor in the thrombin-induced activation of anticoagulant protein C?

      Your Answer: Thrombomodulin

      Explanation:

      Thrombomodulin is a protein cofactor expressed on the surface of endothelial cells. Thrombomodulin binds with thrombin forming a complex which activates protein C, initiating the anticoagulant pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured...

    Correct

    • During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured his pelvis and shattered his coccyx following a motorbike accident. It is mentioned that he is likely to have lacerated his middle sacral artery from this kind of injury. Where does the middle sacral artery branch from?

      Your Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      The middle sacral artery arises from behind the aorta a little above the point of its bifurcation to descend down in front of L4,5, the sacrum and coccyx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal...

    Correct

    • What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal cord?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx and sensory innervation to the subglottis is by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (9/11) 82%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (11/14) 79%
Head & Neck (3/5) 60%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (5/5) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (2/2) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed