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Question 1
Correct
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A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes a water deprivation test. Previous urine dipstick results were negative for blood, glucose, or protein. The test is started and once the girl loses 3% of her body weight, her serum osmolarity is more than 300 whereas her urine osmolarity is less than 300. Doctors administer desmopressin but osmolarity levels do not change. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Explanation:Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is an acquired or hereditary condition that affects the water balance. It presents with polyuria and polydipsia, leading commonly to dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate nutritional input?
Your Answer: 15g/kg/day
Explanation:The general target of weight gain in the neonatal intensive care unit is to replicate the intrauterine growth in the third trimester, which equates to the daily weight gain of nearly 15 g/kg/day with infants receiving 120 kcal/kg/day
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 3
Correct
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Georgie is a bright 3 year old girl whose development seems to be ahead of her preschool classmates. Which of the following should a typical 3 year old be able to do?
Your Answer: Match 2 colours
Explanation:A 3 year old should be able to match two colours, copy a circle, walk up and down the stairs, and jump up and down. By the time they are 4 they can copy a cross, draw a person with three parts, count to 10, stand on one foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?
Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 2
Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome
Explanation:Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A healthy male who has a brother with cystic fibrosis. His wife, who has no family history of cystic fibrosis, wants to know their chance of having a child affected by cystic fibrosis.What is the best estimate of the risk if the population carrier rate of cystic fibrosis is 1 in 25?
Your Answer: 1 in 75
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.This means that to have CF, a person must have a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene in each cell. People with CF inherit one mutated copy of the gene from each parent, who is referred to as a carrier.CF carriers can pass their copy of the CFTR gene mutation to their children. Each time two CF carriers have a child together, the chances are: 25 percent (1 in 4) the child will have CF50 percent (1 in 2) the child will be a carrier but will not have CF25 percent (1 in 4) the child will not be a carrier of the gene and will not have CFThis male’s parents are obligate carrier because he has a sibling with CFSo the chances he is a carrier too are 2 in 3The risk of having an affected child is the chance of both himself and his partner being carriers: (2/3 × 1/25 = 2/75) × 1/4 = 1/150.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 6
Correct
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At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?
Your Answer: 600ml
Explanation:In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new brother. What are the chances that his brother develops the same disease after birth?
Your Answer: 0.5
Explanation:Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Since the first son is affected by the disease, it means that the mother is a carrier. The male children will inherit the Y chromosome from their father and the X chromosome from their mother, having 50% chances of inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 8
Correct
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Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer: Periventricular cerebral calcifications are an associated feature
Explanation:One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. The infection is even commoner than the other widely known diseases like down’s syndrome and spina bifida. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5 and is diagnosed using PCR of saliva. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is diagnosed at birth with marked neurological disability, resulting from microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, and cerebral atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty?
Your Answer: It is treated with LHRH agonists
Explanation:Precocious puberty refers to the appearance of physical and hormonal signs of pubertal development at an earlier age than is considered normal.Most patients, particularly girls suspected of having central precocious puberty, are otherwise healthy children whose pubertal maturation begins at the early end of the normal distribution curveIn a series of more than 200 patients evaluated at a single medical centre, central precocious puberty occurred 5 times more often in girls than boys.GnRH-dependent precocious puberty is treated with GnRH agonists or Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone (LHRH). Follow up every 4-6 months to ensure that progression of puberty has been arrestedFavourable signs include normalization of accelerated growth, reduction (or at least no increase) in size of breasts, and suppression of gonadotropin levels after a challenge of GnRHThe ideal testing frequency has not been established. Monitor bone age yearly to confirm that the rapid advancement seen in the untreated state has slowed, typically to a half year of bone age per year or less
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer: New-born girls
Explanation:Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl is counselled about the changes that will occur in her body with puberty.In what order do these pubertal changes occur?
Your Answer: Breast buds, growth of pubic hair, growth of axillary hair
Explanation:Three physical changes – breast budding, pubic hair growth, and axillary hair growth in the order mentioned precede menarche. These changes are due to oestrogen, a hormone essential for pubertal development.The various pubertal changes in males include:-Testicular growth: It is the first sign of puberty occurring at around 12 years of age (Range = 10 – 15 years).- Testicular volume: An increase in the volume of testicles to 4 ml indicates the onset of pubertyThe various pubertal changes in females include:- The first sign is breast development at around 11.5 years of age (range = 9-13 years)- Followed by the onset of height spurt reaching the maximum in puberty (at 12 years of age)- The final change that occurs is termed menarche at 13 (11-15) years of age.Some of the other pubertal changes include:- Gynecomastia may develop in boys- Asymmetrical breast growth may occur in girls- Diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?
Your Answer: Goldenhar’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 13
Correct
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According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?
Your Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice
Explanation:Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful, swollen joints. Physical examination revealed petechiae on his legs. Blood investigations were found to be normal.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alport’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6 years old and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients.Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing. Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?
Your Answer: Decrease rate
Correct Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume
Explanation:Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4–6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neuroblastoma
Correct Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma
Explanation:Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 1-week history of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain which becomes worse upon leaning forward. Assuming that she's suffering from sinusitis, which sinus is most commonly the site of infection?
Your Answer: Sphenoidal
Correct Answer: Maxillary
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is maxillary sinusitis.The maxillary sinus drains from its superior aspect, leaving it prone to infections. It is the most commonly affected sinus in sinusitis.Common symptoms of maxillary sinusitis include postnasal discharge, pain, headache and toothache.Radiological imaging may show a fluid level in the antrum.Common organisms causing maxillary sinusitis include Haemophilus influenzae or Streptococcus pneumoniae.Treatment with antral lavage may facilitate diagnosis and relieve symptoms. Antimicrobial therapy has to be continued for long periods. Antrostomy may be needed.Other options:- Frontal sinusitis more commonly causes intracranial complications, but it is still less frequent than maxillary sinusitis.- The petrosal sinus is not a cavity within bone| rather, it is a venous structure located beneath the brain.- Frontoethmoidal sinusitis: It usually presents with frontal headache, nasal obstruction and altered sense of smell. Inflammation may progress to involve periorbital tissues. Ocular symptoms may occur, and secondary CNS involvement brought about by infection entering via emissary veins. CT scanning is the imaging modality of choice. Early cases may be managed with antibiotics. More severe cases usually require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 8 year old boy is admitted to the ward with renal colic. Family history is significant for similar renal calculi in his mother. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this recurrent colic in both mother and child?
Your Answer: Hyperoxaluria
Correct Answer: Idiopathic hypercalciuria
Explanation:Idiopathic hypercalciuria (IH) is the commonest metabolic abnormality in patients with calcium kidney stones. It is characterized by normocalcemia, absence of diseases that cause increased urine calcium, and calcium excretion that is above 250 mg/day in women and 300 mg/day in men. Subjects with IH have a generalized increase in calcium turnover, which includes increased gut calcium absorption, decreased renal calcium reabsorption, and a tendency to lose calcium from bone. Despite the increase in intestinal calcium absorption, negative calcium balance is commonly seen in balance studies, especially on a low calcium diet. The mediator of decreased renal calcium reabsorption is not clear| it is not associated with either an increase in filtered load of calcium or altered PTH levels. There is an increased incidence of hypercalciuria in first-degree relatives of those with IH, but IH appears to be a complex polygenic trait with a large contribution from diet to expression of increased calcium excretion. Increased tissue vitamin D response may be responsible for the manifestations of IH in at least some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Following a urinary tract infection, which imaging modality is the best in the assessment of renal scars?
Your Answer: MAG3 scan
Correct Answer: Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan
Explanation:Renal scaring resulting from urinary tract infections can best be determined using Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scintigraphy. The scan utilises technetium-99 mixed with the DMSA which is injected into the bloodstream. The radiological dye is taken up by the kidney where it binds to the proximal convoluted tubules. It therefore detects the size, shape and position of the kidney and any scars but is not as useful in assessing dynamic renal excretion. Ultrasound scans are better suited to assess hydronephrosis and dilated ureters. MAG3 scans and MCUG are able to determine the function of kidneys and detect obstructions such as posterior urethral valves and reflux.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following IV blood products is most likely to cause an urticarial reaction?
Your Answer: Factor VIII concentrate
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma
Explanation:Transfusion with blood products carries a risk of acute and more chronic adverse reactions. These reactions can either be immune mediated due to a component mismatch, or non immune, underpinned by bacterial or viral contamination. Reactions range from very mild such as urticaria, to life threatening in the case of transfusion-related acute lung injury. In transfusion with packed red blood cells, the most common adverse event is pyrexia, while urticaria is the most common adverse event that follows infusion with FFP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the dermatologist due to an appearance of an odd patch of skin on her left thigh which has developed over a period of two weeks. Physical examination reveals a firm, slightly indurated pale area of skin with an erythematous border on the upper thigh. the lesion has a glazed appearance and is rather atrophic. From the options provided below, which one is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis vesicular
Correct Answer: Morphoea
Explanation:Morphea, also known as localized scleroderma, is a disorder characterized by excessive collagen deposition leading to thickening of the dermis, subcutaneous tissues, or both. Morphea is classified into circumscribed, generalized, linear, and pansclerotic subtypes according to the clinical presentation and depth of tissue involvement. Unlike systemic sclerosis, morphea lacks features such as sclerodactyly, Raynaud phenomenon, nailfold capillary changes, telangiectasias, and progressive internal organ involvement. Morphea can present with extracutaneous manifestations, including fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, fatigue, central nervous system involvement, as well as laboratory abnormalities, including eosinophilia, polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia, and positive antinuclear antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?
Your Answer: Treat with intravenous antibiotics
Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks
Explanation:The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus pneumonia?
Your Answer: Cyclosporine
Correct Answer: Ganciclovir
Explanation:One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?
Your Answer: Absence of, or few, blisters
Correct Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted
Explanation:Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin graftedThird-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?
Your Answer: Gastric
Explanation:The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely| gastric and pancreatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Admit for infection screening
Correct Answer: Admit for infection screen and start IV antibiotic
Explanation:This temperature is considered to be a mild fever and is most often caused by a minor infection in children of this age. Therefore, an infection screen should be conducted and an IV antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen. Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Ganciclovir
Correct Answer: Zidovudine
Explanation:Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.Other options:- Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.- Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea. – Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?
Your Answer: Surgical correction usually resolves the hypertension
Correct Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: OM with effusion
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is recovering from bilateral parotitis. She complains of a continuous headache and drowsiness. A CT brain is done which is normal. What is the best definitive investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Fundoscopy
Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:This patient might have viral meningitis as he recently suffered viral parotitis(Mumps). Microscopy and culture of the CSF would show a CSF lymphocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?
Your Answer: Height spurt
Correct Answer: Breast-bud development
Explanation:The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12–18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9–14 years, and is complete at 12–16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11–15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10–13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following:Na+ 142 mmol/lK+ 4.8 mmol/lBicarbonate 22 mmol/lUrea 10.1 mmol/lCreatinine 176 µmol/lHb 10.4 g/dlMCV 90 flPlt 91 * 109/lWBC 14.4 * 109/lGiven the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Salmonella
Correct Answer: E. coli
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer: Orbital bone fracture
Correct Answer: Basilar skull fracture
Explanation:Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?
Your Answer: Occipital branch of the trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve
Explanation:The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 8 year old boy presented with acute onset of nasal obstruction. His parents gave a recent history of nasal trauma. On examination he was febrile and his nasal bones were straight. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nasal polyp
Correct Answer: Septal abscess
Explanation:History of fever is suggestive of an infective focus. A straight nasal bones excludes a nasal bone fracture. A nasal septal abscess is defined as a collection of pus between the cartilage or bony septum and it is an uncommon disease which should be suspected in a patient with acute onset of nasal obstruction and recent history of nasal trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 39
Correct
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A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?
Your Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 4 year old girl presents to the clinic with sore throat and a small painful ulcer in her mouth since yesterday and small painful ulcers on palms and soles that are not itchy. She is febrile (38.5 degree Celsius) and is refusing to eat for the past two days. Which of the following will be the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Correct Answer: Coxsackie virus
Explanation:Coxsackie viruses are a group of RNA viruses with over 20 serotypes| depending on specific viral characteristics, these serotypes are further divided into groups A and B. Infection is associated with a wide range of symptoms, which are dependent on the exact serotype. Hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD) and herpangina are commonly caused by group A coxsackie viruses, while pleurodynia and myocarditis are caused by group B coxsackie viruses. Both groups may cause viral meningitis, conjunctivitis, or flu‑like symptoms. Diagnostic procedures and treatment should be tailored to the specific disease manifestation. Coxsackie A :HerpanginaHand, foot, and mouth diseaseCharacteristics: highly contagiousClinical presentationGeneral symptoms: fever, reduced general conditionSkin/mucosaMaculopapular and partially vesicular rash on the hands and feetOral ulcersDiagnosis: clinicalTreatment: symptomaticPrognosis: almost always self‑limiting
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 41
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination, the maximum tenderness was at the McBurney's point. What is the surface landmark of McBurney's point?
Your Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine
Explanation:McBurney’s point is found 2/3rds of the way along an imaginary line that runs from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right-hand side. On examination, features of generalised peritonitis can be observed if the appendix has perforated.Retrocecal appendicitis may have relatively fewer signs.Digital rectal examination may reveal boggy sensation if a pelvic abscess is present.Diagnosis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers coupled with compatible history, and examination findings.Ultrasound is useful in females where pelvic organ pathology can be a close differential diagnosis. Although it is not always possible to visualise the appendix on ultrasound, the presence of free fluid (always pathological in males) should raise suspicion. Ultrasound examination can also show evidence of luminal obstruction and thickening of the appendix.Management: Definitive management of appendicitis and appendicular perforation is appendicectomy which can be performed via either an open or laparoscopic approach.Simultaneous administration of metronidazole reduces wound infection rates. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage. Patients without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer: Centor score
Correct Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She anxiously explained that he was not responding to loud sounds. He was vocalizing at the presentation and he had normal motor milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Assess Developmental Milestones
Correct Answer: Arrange Hearing test
Explanation:History is suggestive of a possible hearing impairment. As the baby is vocalizing and has normal motor development, an isolated hearing problem is possible. A hearing test will confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 44
Correct
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An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He finds it harder to climb stairs or stand from a sitting position. Medical history reveals he received all his vaccinations and had chickenpox 5 years ago. Family history reveals that the father of his mother had a similar condition but died from an accident at 32 years of age. Clinical examination reveals normal cranial nerve function as well as cognitive and mental functions. He also has a normal height. However, although he has normal tone and reflexes in all his limbs, he experiences proximal weakness in his legs and arms. No muscle wasting is identified. Sensory functions are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy
Explanation:Becker’s muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive weakness and wasting of the skeletal and cardiac muscles. It is inherited and primarily affects males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum?
Your Answer: The nodules nearly always ulcerate, often causing scarring
Correct Answer: The typical eruption is symmetrical, tender, and with bruise like lesions to the shins, ankles, and knees
Explanation:Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis or ulceration. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides, and malignancies like some leukemias and lymphomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 46
Correct
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In a double blind trial of a new diabetes medication, 25% more in the treated group responded positively than those in the control group (95% CI 10% to 50%| P=0.004)
Your Answer: The therapy benefits an additional 1 in 4 (95% CI 2 to 10), patients who receive it
Explanation:In the final result of this double blind study, 25% or one in four of patients who received the treatment responded positively. Though the difference is significant at P<0.05, it is better to present this as a significant difference at 0.4%. The number needed to treat (NNT) is defined as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. Taking this as 0.25 (25%), the NNT is 1/0.25 = 4. However given the 95% confidence interval is between 10-50% for absolute risk reduction, the NNT with 95% CI is between 2 and 10. Therefore we cannot say with certainty that the NNT is at least 4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 47
Correct
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A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a history of bloody diarrhoea starting 7 days previously. On investigation, her serum urea and creatinine were raised and proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most suitable diagnosis for her?
Your Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:HUS syndrome occurs mostly in children after some days of bloody diarrhoea. Damaged red blood cells also damage the kidney filtering unit and lead to sudden renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 48
Correct
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A 17-year-old teenage girl presents with a systolic blood pressure of 170 mmHg in all four limbs. Femoral pulses are palpable. Physical examination revealed several large café-au-lait patches and axillary freckling. The girl’s father died of intracerebral haemorrhage associated with hypertension at the age of 50. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of hypertension in this patient?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:The patient shows features of neurofibromatosis. The most likely cause for hypertension in this patient would be renal artery stenosis.Note:Neurofibromatosis is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder which could have affected this girl’s father, and she appears to have the classic skin lesions. A renal bruit might be heard in these patients. Polycystic kidney disease can occur in association with tuberous sclerosis, which also has skin lesions associated (different from those described in this patient). Most causes of hypertension in childhood have underlying renal causes, and a renal ultrasound with doppler is the first-line investigation of choice. Even if this is normal, further imaging would be indicated here, for example, isotope renal scans and angiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old visibly anxious female, known to have HIV, presents to the clinic with blurring of vision and blind spots in her field of vision. Her last CD4 count was reported to be 45 cells/mL. Which of the following complications of HIV has most likely occurred that has resulted in her ocular damage?
Your Answer: Gonococcal conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:The most common etiological agent for retinitis in HIV infected patients is cytomegalovirus (88.63% of retinitis in HIV/AIDS patients). Most patients have a CD4 lymphocyte count less than 50/μL, which can represent the susceptibility to this type of retinitis when lymphocyte count falls below this threshold. The treatment consists of systemic intravenous administration of Ganciclovir or Foscarnet at a first stage of induction, followed by the maintenance treatment with oral administration of Ganciclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has not responded to over a year of medical management.A colonoscopy-guided biopsy has ruled out Hirschsprung's disease.Which of the following procedures would be appropriate in the surgical management of this child?
Your Answer: Left hemi-colectomy to increase transit time
Correct Answer: Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas
Explanation:The most appropriate procedure in the surgical management of this child would be to perform an appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas (Malone procedure).Idiopathic constipation leading to faecal incontinence is managed in a stepwise progression, first with laxatives such as movicol, enemas and stronger laxatives and in younger children inter-sphincteric injection of botox may be performed. Following this either anal irrigation or antegrade continence enemas are performed. Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas allow colonic washouts and thereby rapid achievement of continence.Other options:- Defunctioning Ileostomy: Although an option in extreme cases, an ACE stoma would be more appropriate in this child.- Laparotomy for resection of the megarectum is performed if ACE stoma fails due to megarectum.- Left hemicolectomy is a procedure reserved for slow-transit colons to increase transit time.- Bishop-Koop stoma: It is a procedure of historical significance. It is a way of washing out and managing meconium ileus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born to a mother who had not booked at the hospital. Her notes are not available and she does not speak English. However, her partner has managed to communicate that Zika virus had been confirmed in pregnancy. The midwife wants to know if it is safe for the mother to breastfeed the baby in the meantime.What is the MOST appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Obtain donor breastmilk and feed the baby
Correct Answer: Encourage breastfeeding
Explanation:Possible Zika virus infections have been identified in breastfeeding babies, but Zika virus transmission through breast milk has not been confirmed. Additionally, we do not yet know the long-term effects of Zika virus on young infants infected after birth. Because current evidence suggests that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of Zika virus spreading through breast milk, CDC continues to encourage mothers to breastfeed, even if they were infected or lived in or travelled to an area with risk of Zika.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through spontaneous, vaginal delivery. She had rupture of membranes 30 hours before birth, however looked healthy and did not receive antibiotics. On admission, doctors obtained a vaginal swab. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the baby?
Your Answer: Await result of vaginal swab and treat the baby according to this
Correct Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results
Explanation:Doctors must perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results to prevent neonatal sepsis. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of the membranes. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of membranes greater than 12–24 hours, intrapartum maternal pyrexia (> 38°C), fetal tachycardia, chorioamnionitis, pre-term birth and maternal colonisation with group B Streptococcus. In this case there are two risk factors: prolonged rupture of membranes, and pre-term birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 53
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: von Willebrand disease type II
Explanation:Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances| Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital with a history of atrial septal defect and duplex kidneys and has had a successful repair of her cleft lip and palate. A cranial ultrasound scan revealed multiple choroid plexus cysts. On examination, you find a small child with micrognathia, low-set ears, and a prominent forehead and occiput. She has hypoplastic nails with an overlapping index and middle finger. Her rocker-bottom feet show no evidence of lymphoedema. Cardiovascular examination reveals a short sternum with a 2/6 pan-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge radiating to the apex. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Treacher Collins syndrome
Correct Answer: Edward syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Edward syndrome.Edward syndrome results from trisomy 18. It is the second most common syndrome after Down syndrome. 60% of cases die within 48 hours, and 90% within the first year due to apnoeas. Cardiovascular abnormalities include atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect and a persistent ductus arteriosus. There is no association with exophthalmos, but it may occur. Right choroid plexus cysts are found on coronal imaging, and 40–70% at post mortem are shown to have multiple large bilateral choroid plexus cysts (>10 mm). These may not become pathological but usually trigger an anomaly scan. Around 1% of cases may present with only a cyst, but 4% may present with other abnormalities.Other options:- Children with the velocardiofacial syndrome have a classic facial appearance with hypertelorism, a tubular nose, a cleft lip/palate abnormality and cardiac anomalies. – Children with Patau syndrome usually present with midline defects and are less likely to have rocker-bottom feet. – Children with Treacher Collins syndrome present with abnormalities of the branchial arches and pharyngeal pouches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below. Oxygen Saturation Levels:
- Superior vena cava: 73%
- Right atrium: 71%
- Right ventricle: 72%
- Pulmonary artery: 86%
- Left ventricle: 97%
- Aorta: 96%
- Right atrium: 6 mmHg
- Pulmonary artery: 53/13 mmHg
- PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure): 15 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 111/10 mmHg
- Aorta: 128/61 mmHg
Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:Key observations in the results:
- Oxygen Saturation Step-Up:
- There is a significant step-up in oxygen saturation from the right ventricle (72%) to the pulmonary artery (86%). This suggests the presence of left-to-right shunting of blood.
- Pressure Differences:
- The pressure in the pulmonary artery is elevated (53/13 mmHg), indicating pulmonary hypertension.
Differential Diagnosis:
- Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA):
- PDA can cause increased pulmonary blood flow, leading to a step-up in oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery. The pulmonary artery pressures can also be elevated due to increased blood flow.
- Primary Pulmonary Hypertension:
- Typically presents with elevated pulmonary pressures but does not usually show a step-up in oxygen saturation.
- Pulmonary Stenosis:
- Would result in elevated right ventricular pressure but would not explain the step-up in oxygen saturation.
- Septum Primum Atrial Septal Defect (ASD):
- Would result in a step-up in oxygen saturation from the right atrium to the right ventricle, not between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
- Tetralogy of Fallot:
- Characterized by right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. Oxygen saturation levels would typically be lower in the systemic circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer: Observation
Correct Answer: Facial X ray
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 57
Correct
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?
Your Answer: Alpha cells
Correct Answer: Delta cells
Explanation:The normal human pancreas contains about 1,000,000 islets. The islets consist of four distinct cell types, of which three (alpha, beta, and delta cells) produce important hormones| the fourth component (C cells) has no known function.The most common islet cell, the beta cell, produces insulin.The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce an opposing hormone, glucagon.The delta cells produce somatostatin, a strong inhibitor of somatotropin, insulin, and glucagon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually appear in the evening. The episodes started 6 months ago and the pain presents on both sides of the head. He perceives it as a “tight” feeling. His overall health is normal and he admits to be able to continue his daily activities regardless of the pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Tension headache presents with pain that is pressing or tightening in quality, mild or moderate, and located bilaterally. It usually does not get worse with activities and may last from minutes to weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in an otherwise well child?
Your Answer: No repetitive babble by 8 months of age
Correct Answer: A family history of hereditary deafness
Explanation:In the first few years of life the developing sensory inputs are important. Hearing is essential for speech and language development and may be delayed when a child cannot hear. Therefore any child with a family history of hereditary deafness should be screened. From about 4-6months babies are able to laugh and babble when excited or unhappy. By the age of 9 months the child should be able to bring together groups of same sound syllables and be able to say one or two words by the 1st birthday. If a child is unable to babble by 10-12 years, it may indicate hearing impairment. By the age of 2 a child should be able to speak in 1 or 2 word phrases and often repeats phrases used by others, known as Echolalia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child whose head circumference is on the 3rd centile? Note that his height and weight are in the 75th centile.
Your Answer: Noonan syndrome
Correct Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome
Explanation:The most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child is congenital rubella syndrome.Microcephaly is defined as head circumference > two standard deviations below the mean.The causes of microcephaly include:- Genetic disorders: Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, Williams syndrome, Angelman syndrome, and Rett syndrome.- Infective: Meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, rubella, varicella, HIVand Zika.- Acquired causes: Severe brain malformations, neurodegenerative diseases, hypoxic-ischemic injury, infarction, antenatal exposure to drugs, alcohol, and other toxins. Severe malnutrition and uncontrolled phenylketonuria in the mother are other causes of microcephaly in children.- Craniosynostosis- Neurometabolic disorders- Early non-accidental trauma- Fanconi anaemia- Other causes include: Familial and nonfamilial nonsyndromic microcephalyMost children with microcephaly have one or several associated symptoms:- Developmental delay- Seizures- Visual abnormalities- Short stature
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Correct Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis can have different inheritance patterns.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the APC gene, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person has one parent with the condition.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the MUTYH gene, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Most often, the parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he has been irritable and feeding poorly for the last 24 hours. His CXR shows cardiomegaly but with clear lung fields while his ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with difficulty identifying the P wave. The boy is conscious but has cold extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Unilateral carotid sinus massage
Correct Answer: Synchronized DC cardio-version
Explanation:The most possible diagnosis is SVT. The boy is suffering from hemodynamic instability, as indicated by his cold extremities. DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 64
Incorrect
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Bone age would be delayed in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Obesity in a 14 year old boy
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21 in a 10 year old boy
Explanation:Bone age is used to determine the maturation of a child’s bones’ and is used to detect pathological growth. This is done using the X-ray of the wrist. Several conditions can either advance or delay the bone age such that they may not match the child’s chronological age. Bone age is advanced in conditions where there are prolonged or elevated sex hormone levels such as precocious puberty, or in genetic overgrowth conditions such as Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. Bone age is delayed in constitutional growth delay, chronic ill health, endocrine disorders such as growth hormone deficiencies or hypothyroidism, genetic disorders such as Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and Turner’s syndrome. Obesity is unlikely to cause growth delay.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old boy is referred to you following his seventh course of antibiotics in the last six years for lower respiratory tract infections. He also has a history of eczema for which he is currently on a topical steroid cream. His full blood count (FBC) report shows:Hb: 13.9 g/dLPlts: 65 x 10^9/LWCC: 12.3 x 10^9/LWhich of the following genes should you expect an abnormality in?
Your Answer: PKD1
Correct Answer: WASP
Explanation:The combination of frequent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopaenia are characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, which is due to an abnormality in the WASP gene. It is an X-linked recessive disorder that causes primary immunodeficiency owing to a combined B- and T-cell dysfunction.The other listed options are:1. PKD1: polycystic kidney disease2. CFTR: cystic fibrosis3. HFE1: haemochromatosis4. RET: multiple endocrine neoplasia, Hirschsprung’s disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A new-born child is not moving his left arm properly. He had shoulder dystocia during childbirth. His arm is hanging down with the shoulder internally rotated, elbow extended, forearm pronated and wrist flexed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Radial nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Erb palsy
Explanation:Erb’s palsy is a paralysis of the arm caused by injury to the brachial plexus, specifically the severing of the upper trunk C5–C6 nerves.The infant with an upper plexus palsy (C5-C7) keeps the arm adducted and internally rotated, with the elbow extended, the forearm pronated, the wrist flexed, and the hand in a fist. In the first hours of life, the hand also may appear flaccid, but strength returns over days to months.The right side is injured in 51% of cases. Left side occurs in 45% of patients and bilateral injuries, in 4%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?
Your Answer: Side effect of antibiotics administered for infection
Correct Answer: Sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A neonate of Asian parents presents with jaundice appearing less than 24 hours after birth. You are concerned about glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. What is the mode of inheritance of this condition?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: X-linked
Explanation:Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is the most common enzyme deficiency in humans.It has a high prevalence in persons of African, Asian, and Mediterranean descent. It is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder.G6PD deficiency is polymorphic, with more than 300 variantsG6PD deficiency can present as neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. Besides, persons with this disorder can experience episodes of brisk haemolysis after ingesting fava beans or being exposed to certain infections or drugs. Less commonly, they may have chronic haemolysis. However, many individuals with G6PD deficiency are asymptomatic.Most individuals with G6PD deficiency do not need treatment. However, they should be taught to avoid drugs and chemicals that can cause oxidant stress. Infants with prolonged neonatal jaundice as a result of G6PD deficiency should receive phototherapy with a bili light.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: It contains an area known as white pulp
Correct Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus
Explanation:The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?
Your Answer: 0.5
Correct Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 71
Correct
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The neurological examination is unremarkable except for seven brown macules on the skin that vary in diameter from 1 to 2 cm. Clinical examination reveals several freckles in the axilla and the inguinal region. What is the most probably underlying condition?
Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma
Explanation:Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma is a benign slow-growing tumour. The clinical picture of the child suggests neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), with cafe-au-lait spots and axillary and inguinal freckling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a large green vomit. The baby was born by forceps delivery following non-reassuring CTG trace. There was meconium-stained liquor just before delivery. Respiratory rate is 60/min, heart rate is 180/min and oxygen saturations are 94% in room air. On examination baby appears quiet with mild nasal flaring. There are no other signs of increased work of breathing. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally. CRT is <2 seconds centrally and baby feels warm peripherally. Abdomen is slightly distended and baby desaturates to 80% on abdominal palpation. What is the most important diagnostic test?
Your Answer: Meckel's scan
Correct Answer: Upper GI contrast study
Explanation:Bilious (green) gastric aspirate or emesis indicates that the intestines are obstructed below the ampulla of Vater.Gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is actually considered an essential diagnostic and therapeutic technique. Upper GI endoscopy in neonatal age allows for exploration of the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum| instead lower GI endoscopy easily reaches the sigmoid-colon junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy was admitted in the A&E with a history of a 38.4°C fever and 15 minute tonic clonic seizure episode at home. However, he is conscious now, his temperature is normal and the fit has stopped. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Grandmal Epilepsy
Correct Answer: Febrile convulsion
Explanation:Febrile seizures are convulsions that can happen when a child, most often between the ages of six months and three years, has a fever. They usually last for less than five minutes and although the child may lose consciousness, they are relatively harmless. However, sometimes they can last for up to 15 minutes and when they are termed complex febrile seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 74
Correct
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A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?
Your Answer: Urethral valves
Explanation:The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 6 year old male presented in the OPD with the complaint of nasal bleeding which started 3 days before. Now on examination, there is no bleeding and only slight redness of the anterior mucosa is present. Which of the following steps is the most suitable now?
Your Answer: Neomycin cream
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Epistaxis is common in younger children usually due to nose picking. After the episode is over no active management is required and reassurance should be given to the patient and his attendants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?
Your Answer: Right-shift of the white blood cells
Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts?
Your Answer: The mortality rate in oligohydramnios is lower than polyhydramnios
Correct Answer: There is a higher incidence of chorioamnionitis
Explanation:An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. It also leads to multiple complications, out of which the incidence of chorioamnionitis is very high. Other complications include fetal growth retardation, limb contractures, GI atresia, and even fetal death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 78
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is struck on the left eye by a tennis ball. Following the event, he immediately complains of eye discomfort and dimming of vision in the affected eye. Three hours later, in the emergency department, the assessment of his visual acuity revealed that he can see 6/24 on a Snellen chart.Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of this boy?
Your Answer: Hyphaema
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be hyphaema.The acuity has varied because the blood has been settling in the anterior chamber of the eye, thus allowing a reasonable level of visual acuity. The size of the tennis ball (which is not as harmful as a squash ball in the eye) and the fact that it was struck from a distance would cause a moderately significant injury due to pressure to the globe. Other options:- The absence of severe pain makes a large corneal abrasion less likely. – Vitreous haemorrhage would lead to very poor acuity, more likely ‘hand movements only’. – A retinal detachment or traumatic cataract would not produce such immediate symptoms, and if they did occur it would probably be in the presence of more extensive eye trauma and pain, with additional signs of both hyphaema and vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 79
Correct
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A 5 month old boy presents with pallor but otherwise appears well and healthy. The clinical examination was normal and his mother reported a good appetite. His blood results showed: Hb: 9.0 g/dl (11 – 16 g/dl)MCV: 66fl (76 – 96 fl)WBC : 5x109/L (4 – 11x109/L)Ferritin : 9ug/L (12 – 200ug/L)Serum iron : 7umol/l (14 – 31umol/l)What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:Iron deficiency anaemia has the following laboratory characteristics: low haemoglobin, a low serum iron, a low serum ferritin, a low transferrin saturation, and a high total iron-binding capacity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits she often has to repeat herself to be heard. History reveals that the girl often watches television in high volume. Weber test reveals that the sounds are louder on the left side. What can you conclude from these findings?
Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss of right ear.
Correct Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.
Explanation:To get more information regarding hearing loss, a physician should perform both Rinne and Weber tests. Weber test alone cannot tell which side is affected.Rinne test – a vibrating tuning fork (typically 512 Hz) is placed initially on the mastoid process behind each ear until sound is no longer heard. Then, without re-striking the fork, the fork is then quickly placed just outside the ear with the patient asked to report when the sound caused by the vibration is no longer heard. A normal or positive Rinne test is when sound is still heard when the tuning fork is moved to air near the ear (air conduction or AC), indicating that AC is equal or greater than (bone conduction or BC).Weber’s test – tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears. The patient is then asked which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localised to the unaffected side however in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localised to the affected side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 82
Correct
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Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder?
Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:Among the given options, pituitary adenoma is an acquired anterior pituitary disorder which represent between 10 and 25% of all intracranial neoplasms.Other options:- Agenesis of the corpus callosum is characterised by the partial or complete absence of the corpus callosum. This condition is associated with pituitary hormone deficiencies.- Congenital disorders such as hydrocephalus or arachnoid cysts may be a cause of precocious puberty.- Pituitary hypoplasia and septo-optic dysplasia are congenital disorders of the pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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An infant presents with the following constellation of symptoms:- Cleft palate- Tetralogy of Fallot- HypocalcaemiaBased on the clinical scenario, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Treacher-Collins syndrome
Correct Answer: Di George syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the patient would be DiGeorge syndrome due to 22q11 deletion. It causes embryonic defects of the third and fourth branchial arches. It is sporadic in 90% of cases and 10 % inherited from parents as autosomal dominant.Characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?
Your Answer: Immediate Laparotomy
Correct Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation
Explanation:A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 85
Correct
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Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the following commands would he be able to follow?
Your Answer: Point to three body parts
Explanation:A 2 year old child who is developing normally should be able to point to three body parts, identify familiar objects in his environment such as a crayon or a toy and follow simple instructions.At 3 years old he should be able to copy a circle, jump up and down and name three colours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 86
Correct
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A 7 day old baby weighed 3.5kg when born. His weight is now 3kg. Choose the most appropriate next step for this child.
Your Answer: Continue regular child care
Explanation:In the first week after birth, it is normal for the baby to lose weight and then gain it again. Therefore, regular child care should be maintained.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures. Cranial CT reveals various circular lesions and renal ultrasound shows discrete cysts. Family history reveals that his father has had a renal transplant and has profound acne-like spots on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis presents with the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. They may appear in the brain, kidneys, skin or various other organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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An 11-month old infant was brought by the parents with complaints of poor feeding, failure to thrive, and developmental delay. He was reluctant to play and was unable to sit independently at ten months. Examination revealed blond hair and pale skin with small hands and feet and a squint. He also has poor central muscle tone and unilaterally undescended testes. What is the probable diagnosis of this infant?
Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Explanation:The physical features and developmental delay are the key aspects in the given scenario. The child in question shows features of gross motor and social developmental delay and has physical features indicative of Prader-Willi syndrome (hypopigmentation, esotropia, disproportionately small hands and feet, loss of central muscle tone and undescended testes). Children with Prader-Willi syndrome can present with failure to thrive until ,12-18 months, at which point, hyperphagia and obesity become more prominent. Other options:- Although Klinefelter syndrome can present with delayed development, undescended/small testes and reduced muscle power, the presence of small hands/feet, hypopigmentation and failure to thrive are not characteristic features. – Marfan syndrome presents with different physical features (arachnodactyly, cardio-respiratory complications and skin changes, amongst others) than those associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. – DiGeorge can manifest with developmental delay, hypotonia and feeding difficulties. However, this clinical scenario does not report any of the typical facial features, hearing abnormalities or cardiac abnormalities that are typically caused by DiGeorge syndrome. – Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental abnormalities, poor muscle tone and power (poor head control and muscle function), feeding difficulties and poor growth during the post-natal period and infancy. However, characteristic facial (small, triangular face, blue sclerae) and skeletal abnormalities (limb asymmetry, finger abnormalities) are not present. Therefore, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.Note:Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of genetic imprinting where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father: In Prader-Willi syndrome, it is the paternal gene that is deleted from the long arm of chromosome 15, while in Angelman syndrome the maternal gene is deleted. Prader-Willi syndrome can occur due to the microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 (70% of cases) maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?
Your Answer: Vagus
Correct Answer: Lingual nerve
Explanation:The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 90
Incorrect
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Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: It always presents as a febrile illness
Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele
Explanation:The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 91
Incorrect
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Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?
Your Answer: L1
Correct Answer: L3
Explanation:The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 92
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to void a full volume bladder. An ultrasound scan shows bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Duplex kidney with ectopic ureter
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be a duplex kidney with an ectopic ureter inserting below the bladder neck. Rationale: The Weigert-Myer law states that the upper moiety ureter inserts inferior and medial to the lower moiety ureter. Other options:- Horseshoe kidney would display as a single pelvic kidney on an ultrasound scan.- Ureterocele would be a cystic lesion within the bladder or may prolapse at birth. – Continence should not be affected by polycystic kidney disease. – The overactive bladder would cause frequency and urgency, neither of which is mentioned in the history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment requires how much energy to maintain essential body functions?
Your Answer: 120kcal/kg/day
Correct Answer: 50kcal/kg/day
Explanation:The average amount of energy required by a well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment is 50/kcal/kg to maintain essential body functions while it takes about 70 kcal/kg/day for optimal growth. It is important to ensure that enough proteins are given per calorie to limit catabolism and promote cell building. Caloric need usually increases when the baby is ill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are concerned that he is shorter than the other boys at school, despite having attained puberty. His father is 1.70 m tall, and his mother is 1.50 m tall. Given his parents height, what is his adult height potential?
Your Answer: 1.53 m
Correct Answer: 1.67 m
Explanation:The adult height potential may be calculated for a male child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then add 7 cm.In the scenario provided: (170 + 150)/2 + 7 = 167 cm = 1.67 m.For a female child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then minus 7 cm.This can then be plotted on a height centile chart to find the mid-parental centile.Causes of short stature include:- Normal variant (often familial)- Constitutional delay of growth and puberty- Chronic illness, e.g. cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease- Endocrine: growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, steroid excess syndromes: Turner’s, Down’s, Prader-Willi- Skeletal dysplasias, e.g. achondroplasia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?
Your Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion?
Your Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Correct Answer: Cystinosis
Explanation:Cystinosis is a condition characterized by accumulation of the amino acid cystine (a building block of proteins) within cells. This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.Excess cystine damages cells and often forms crystals that can build up and cause problems in many organs and tissues. The kidneys and eyes are especially vulnerable to damage| the muscles, thyroid, pancreas, and testes may also be affected.There are three distinct types of cystinosis. In order of decreasing severity, they are nephropathic cystinosis, intermediate cystinosis, and non-nephropathic or ocular cystinosis.Nephropathic cystinosis begins in infancy, causing poor growth and a particular type of kidney damage (renal Fanconi syndrome) in which certain molecules that should be reabsorbed into the bloodstream are instead eliminated in the urine. The kidney problems lead to the loss of important minerals, salts, fluids, and many other nutrients. The loss of nutrients impairs growth and may result in soft, bowed bones (hypophosphatemic rickets), especially in the legs. The nutrient imbalances in the body lead to increased urination, thirst, dehydration, and abnormally acidic blood (acidosis). By about the age of 2, cystine crystals may be present in the clear covering of the eye (cornea). The build-up of these crystals in the eye causes pain and an increased sensitivity to light (photophobia). Untreated children will experience complete kidney failure by about the age of 10. Other signs and symptoms that may occur in untreated people, especially after adolescence, include muscle deterioration, blindness, inability to swallow, diabetes, thyroid and nervous system problems, and an inability to father children (infertility) in affected men.The signs and symptoms of intermediate cystinosis are the same as nephropathic cystinosis, but they occur at a later age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost a month. Physical examination revealed a heart murmur, which however was not present at discharge. What is the most probable cause of this murmur?
Your Answer: Aorto-pulmonary septal defect
Correct Answer: PDA
Explanation:PDA is particularly common in premature babies and it is managed by indomethacin administration. However, if PDA is not the only defect, prostaglandin E1 can be administered in order to keep the ductus open until the surgery takes place.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant?
Your Answer: Type 1 pneumocytes
Correct Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes
Explanation:Pulmonary surfactant is a lipoprotein complex that is responsible for preventing the collapse of alveoli and increasing lung compliance.It is produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and secreted from the lamellar bodies of type 2 pneumocytes.Surfactant is essential for reducing surface tension at the air-water interface in the alveoli, thus preventing the collapse of alveoli during expiration. It is composed of dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC), which is a phospholipid.In fetal development, production of surfactant begins around 26 weeks of gestation and reaches mature levels by 35 weeks.The deficiency of surfactant can result in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome or hyaline membrane disease, particularly in premature new-born babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Moro reflex is absent
Explanation:Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 100
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician after a sexual encounter with his new girlfriend during which they had sexual intercourse around ten days ago. The girlfriend's HIV status is unknown, and the patient is concerned that he might have acquired HIV. He has a blood test for a 4th generation assay, testing for HIV antibody and a p24 antigen. The results come out negative, however, HIV infection cannot be ruled out as he may be presenting in the window period. Which of the following most likely explains the pathology of the window period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies to HIV undetectable
Explanation:Any blood test used to detect HIV infection must have a high degree of sensitivity (the probability that the test will be positive if the patient is infected) and specificity (the probability that the test will be negative if the patient is uninfected). Unfortunately, no antibody test is ever 100 % sensitive and specific. Therefore, if available, all positive test results should be confirmed by retesting, preferably by a different test method. HIV antibody tests usually become positive within 3 months of the individual being infected with the virus (the window period). In some individuals, the test may not be positive until 6 months or longer (considered unusual). In some countries, home testing kits are available. These tests are not very reliable, and support such as pre and post test counselling is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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