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  • Question 1 - Which type of collagen is initially laid down in early wound healing: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of collagen is initially laid down in early wound healing:

      Your Answer: I

      Correct Answer: III

      Explanation:

      Fibroblasts migrate to the wound (about 2 – 5 days after wounding), proliferate and secrete extracellular matrix comprising mainly collagen (type III) and fibronectin to plug the gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old asthmatic patient on theophylline as part of her asthma management...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old asthmatic patient on theophylline as part of her asthma management presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition.

      Which of these drugs should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolide antibiotics (e.g. clarithromycin and erythromycin) are cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitors. They increase blood levels of theophylline leading to hypokalaemia, and potentially increasing the risk of Torsades de pointes when they are prescribed together.

      Co-prescription with theophylline should be avoided.

      Factors that enhance theophylline clearance include cigarette smoking, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, and rifampin.
      Medications that inhibit clearance include ethanol, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, verapamil, propranolol, ticlopidine, tacrine, allopurinol, and cimetidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney disease.

      Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is correct?

      Your Answer: It reduces oxygen carrying capacity

      Correct Answer: It protects red blood cell progenitors from apoptosis

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the formation of red blood cells (red cell production). It is mostly produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney, which are located near the PCT. It is also produced in the liver’s perisinusoidal cells, however this is more common during the foetal and perinatal periods.

      The kidneys produce and secrete erythropoietin in response to hypoxia. On red blood cells, erythropoietin has two main effects:
      – It encourages stem cells in the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.
      – It protects red blood cell progenitors and precursors from apoptosis by targeting them in the bone marrow.
      As a result of the increased red cell mass, the oxygen-carrying capacity and oxygen delivery increase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the frontal lobe:

      Your Answer: Hemispatial neglect

      Correct Answer: Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is seen in damage to the frontal eye field of the frontal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is typically a result of damage to the occipital lobe (or of the optic radiation passing through the parietal and temporal lobes). Auditory agnosia may been seen in a lesion of the temporal lobe. Hemispatial neglect may be seen in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Receptive dysphasia is seen in damage to Wernicke’s area, in the temporal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It...

    Correct

    • The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of lymphocyte clonal proliferation. Which of the following statements about CLL is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It is most commonly discovered as an incidental finding

      Explanation:

      CLL (chronic lymphocytic leukaemia) is the most common type of chronic lymphoid leukaemia, with a peak incidence between the ages of 60 and 80. It is the most common type of leukaemia in Europe and the United States, but it is less common elsewhere.

      The CLL tumour cell is a mature B-cell with low immunoglobulin surface expression (IgM or IgD). The average age at diagnosis is 72 years, with only 15% of cases occurring before the age of 50.

      The male-to-female ratio is about 2:1. Over 80% of cases are identified by the results of a routine blood test, which is usually performed for another reason.

      Lymphocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and normochromic normocytic anaemia are common laboratory findings. Aspiration of bone marrow reveals up to 95% lymphocytic replacement of normal marrow elements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent...

    Incorrect

    • A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester.

      The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.

      She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:
      1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance
      2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility
      – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available
      – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possible

      The first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute

      The second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
      1. Amoxicillin
      500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)
      2. Cefalexin
      500 mg BD for seven days
      Alternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.

      Explanation:

      Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In the treatment of bradyarrhythmias with adverse characteristics or risk of asystole, what...

    Correct

    • In the treatment of bradyarrhythmias with adverse characteristics or risk of asystole, what is the initial suggested dose of atropine?

      Your Answer: 500 micrograms

      Explanation:

      Atropine 500 mcg IV bolus should be administered if there are any adverse features or risk of asystole. If the reaction is not adequate, repeat the steps every 3 to 5 minutes up to a maximum dose of 3 mg. In the case of acute myocardial ischemia or myocardial infarction, atropine should be taken with caution since the increased heart rate may aggravate the ischemia or increase the size of the infarct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and limited range of motion in the right elbow for the past two days. On examination, the right elbow is extremely tender with erythema and warmth of the overlying skin due to acute inflammation.

      Which ONE of the following statements is true with regards to acute inflammation?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils are activated and adhere to the endothelium as a result of interaction with endothelial cell adhesion molecules

      Explanation:

      Acute inflammation is defined as inflammation occurring within minutes to hours in response to an injury lasting for less than two weeks.

      Acute inflammation
      Rapid onset (minutes to hours)
      Quick resolution (usually days)

      Chronic inflammation
      May last weeks, months, or years

      There are five cardinal signs of inflammation:
      1) Pain
      2) Redness
      3) Warmth
      4) Oedema
      5) Loss of function

      During acute inflammation, neutrophils are activated and attracted to the site of inflammation in response to various interleukins and cytokines. This process takes place via the following mechanism:
      1) Margination
      Neutrophils flow nearer the vessel wall rather than in the axial stream, which is referred to as margination
      2) Rolling along the surface of vascular endothelium
      3) Adhesion to the endothelium by interaction with adhesion molecules (ICAMS and VCAMS)
      4) Diapedesis is the movement of neutrophils from the endothelial cells into the interstitial space by squeezing through the gaps between adjacent endothelial cells

      Bradykinin and histamine are both responsible for vasodilation which causes oedema and decreases intravascular osmotic pressure.

      Neutrophils dominate early (<2 days)
      – Many in the bloodstream
      – Attach firmly to adhesion molecules
      – Apoptosis after 24-48hrs
      Monocytes/macrophages dominate late (>2 days)
      – Live longer
      – Replicate in tissues

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      704.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons originate in which of the following locations: ...

    Incorrect

    • Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons originate in which of the following locations:

      Your Answer: CN III, VIII and X

      Correct Answer: Brainstem and pelvic splanchnic nerves

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic preganglionic neurones originate in the brainstem from which they run in cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X and also from the second and third sacral segments of the spinal cord. Parasympathetic preganglionic neurones release acetylcholine into the synapse, which acts on cholinergic nicotinic receptors on the postganglionic fibre. Parasympathetic peripheral ganglia are generally found close to or within their target, whereas sympathetic peripheral ganglia are located largely in two sympathetic chains on either side of the vertebral column (paravertebral ganglia), or in diffuse prevertebral ganglia of the visceral plexuses of the abdomen and pelvis. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurones release acetylcholine, which acts on cholinergic muscarinic receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The risk of renal impairment in a patient on ACE inhibitor therapy is...

    Correct

    • The risk of renal impairment in a patient on ACE inhibitor therapy is increased by concomitant treatment with which of the following drug classes:

      Your Answer: NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Concomitant treatment with NSAIDs increases the risk of renal damage, and with potassium-sparing diuretics (or potassium-containing salt substitutes) increases the risk of hyperkalaemia. Hyperkalaemia and other side effects of ACE inhibitors are more common in the elderly and in those with impaired renal function and the dose may need to be reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding autoregulation of local blood flow, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Correct

    • Regarding autoregulation of local blood flow, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: An increase in blood flow dilutes locally produced vasodilating factors causing vasoconstriction.

      Explanation:

      Autoregulation is the ability to maintain a constant blood flow despite variations in blood pressure (between 50 – 170 mmHg). It is particularly important in the brain, kidney and heart. There are two main methods contributing to autoregulation:
      The myogenic mechanism involves arterial constriction in response to stretching of the vessel wall, probably due to activation of smooth muscle stretch-activated Ca2+channels and Ca2+entry. A reduction in pressure and stretch closes these channels, causing vasodilation.
      The second mechanism of autoregulation is due to locally produced vasodilating factors; an increase in blood flow dilutes these factors causing vasoconstriction, whereas decreased blood flow has the opposite effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      87.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one these is an example of a cause of an exudate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one these is an example of a cause of an exudate?

      Your Answer: Subphrenic abscess

      Explanation:

      An exudate is an inflammatory fluid emanating from the intravascular space due to changes in the permeability of the surrounding microcirculation.

      Some common causes of exudates are: pneumonia, empyema, lung cancer, breast cancer, cancer of the pleura, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, pericarditis, subphrenic abscess, chylothorax.

      Myxoedema, nephrotic syndrome, congestive cardiac failure, and liver cirrhosis all cause TRANSUDATE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she had done for non-specific malaise, lethargy, and weight loss.

      The only abnormality discovered during the blood tests was a 580 x 10 9 /l increase in platelets. Her platelets were also elevated on a blood test taken 6 months earlier, according to her previous results. You're aware of the recent emergence of elevated platelet levels as a cancer risk marker and decide to look into it.

      Which of the following cancers is most likely to cause isolated thrombocytosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Raised platelet levels have emerged as a cancer risk marker, according to a large population-based study published in 2017(link is external). According to the study, 12 percent of men and 6% of women with thrombocytosis were diagnosed with cancer within a year. These figures increased to 18% in men and 10% in women if a second platelet count was taken within 6 months of the first and showed an increased or stable elevated platelet count.

      The researchers discovered that thrombocytosis linked to cancer is most common in colorectal and lung cancers, and it is linked to a worse prognosis. Furthermore, one-third of the cancer patients in the study had no other symptoms that would have prompted an immediate cancer referral.

      The exact mechanism by which these cancers cause thrombocytosis is unknown, but one theory proposes the existence of pathogenic feedback loops between malignant cells and platelets, with a reciprocal interaction between tumour growth and metastasis, as well as thrombocytosis and platelet activation. Another hypothesis is that thrombocytosis occurs independently of cancer but aids in its spread and progression.

      The findings show that routinely testing for thrombocytosis could cut the time it takes to diagnose colorectal and lung cancer by at least two months. In the UK, this could result in around 5500 earlier cancer diagnoses per year.

      Because the positive predictive value of thrombocytosis in middle age for cancer (10%) is higher than the positive predictive value for a woman in her 50s presenting with a new breast lump (8.5%), this is clearly an important research paper that should be used to adjust future clinical practise. The current NICE guidelines predate these new research findings, so we’ll have to wait and see how they affect cancer referral guidelines in the UK.

      Because there are so many possible cancers associated with thrombocytosis, the treating clinician should take a thorough history and perform a thorough clinical examination if a patient is diagnosed with it. Further investigation and the most appropriate referral route should be aided by this information.

      It’s worth noting that the patients in the study had their blood tests done for a medical reason rather than as a random screening test.

      If there are no other symptoms to guide investigation and referral (one-third of the patients in the study had no other symptoms), keep in mind that the two most common cancers encountered were colorectal and lung cancer, so a chest X-ray and a faecal immunochemical test (FIT) for faecal blood may be reasonable initial investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      916.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A man working as a waiter cuts his arm on a glass while...

    Incorrect

    • A man working as a waiter cuts his arm on a glass while he was working. The palmaris longus muscle was damaged as a consequence of his injury.

      Which of the following statements regarding the palmaris longus muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer: It is innervated by the radial nerve

      Correct Answer: It receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery

      Explanation:

      The palmaris longus is a small, fusiform-shaped muscle located on the anterior forearm of the human upper extremity. The palmaris longus muscle is commonly present but may be absent in a small percentage of the population, ranging from 2.5% to 26% of individuals, depending on the studied population.

      The palmaris longus belongs to the anterior forearm flexor group in the human upper extremity. The muscle attaches proximally to the medial humeral epicondyle and distally to the palmar aponeurosis and flexor retinaculum. The blood supply to the palmaris longus muscle is via the ulnar artery, a branch of the brachial artery in the human upper extremity.

      The palmaris longus muscle receives its innervation via branches of the median nerve containing nerve roots C5-T1. Median nerve injury at or above the elbow joint (including brachial plexus and nerve root injury) can lead to deficits in the palmaris longus and other forearm flexor muscles, leading to weakened elbow flexion, wrist flexion, radial deviation, finger flexion, thumb opposition, flexion, and abduction, in addition to the loss of sensory function in the distribution of the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old with type I diabetes mellitus has an episode of hypoglycaemia following...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old with type I diabetes mellitus has an episode of hypoglycaemia following inadvertent administration of too much insulin.

      The mechanism by which insulin causes glucose to be transported into cells is?

      Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      The only mechanism by which insulin facilitates uptake of glucose into cells is by facilitated diffusion through a family of hexose transporters.

      The major transporter used for glucose uptake is GLUT4. GLUT4 is made available in the plasma membrane by the action of insulin.
      When insulin concentrations are low, GLUT4 transporters are present in cytoplasmic vesicles, where they are cannot be used for transporting glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain pointing to angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) was administered, rapidly resolving her symptoms. Unfortunately, she develops a side-effect of the drug.

      Which one of the following is the side effect she is most likely to have developed?

      Your Answer: Flushing

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Glyceryl trinitrate
      2. Isosorbide dinitrate

      Side effects to nitrate therapy are common especially
      The most common side effects are:
      1. Headaches
      2. Feeling dizzy, weak, or tired
      3. Nausea
      4. Flushing

      The serious but less likely to occur side effects are:
      1. Methemoglobinemia (rare)
      2. Syncope
      3. Prolonged bleeding time
      4. Exfoliative dermatitis
      5. Unstable angina
      6. Rebound hypertension
      7. Thrombocytopenia

      Dry eyes, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the primary route of transmission of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary route of transmission of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae?

      Your Answer: Sexually transmitted

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is primarily spread by sexual contact or through transmission during childbirth. It causes gonorrhoea which is a purulent infection of the mucous membrane surfaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic...

    Correct

    • The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic acidosis.

      What is the most likely cause of her lactic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is a common finding in critically ill patients and commonly associated with other serious underlying pathologies. It occurs when pH is <7.35 and lactate is >5 mmol/L. Anion gap is increased in lactic acidosis.

      Acquired lactic acidosis is classified into two subtypes:
      Type A: lactic acidosis due to tissue hypoxia and
      Type B: due to non-hypoxic processes affecting the production and elimination of lactate

      Some causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:
      Type A lactic acidosis
      Left ventricular failure
      Severe anaemia
      Shock (including septic shock)
      Asphyxia
      Cardiac arrest
      CO poisoning
      Respiratory failure
      Severe asthma and COPD

      Type B lactic acidosis:
      Regional hypoperfusion
      Renal failure
      Liver failure
      Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
      Thiamine deficiency
      Alcoholic ketoacidosis
      Diabetic ketoacidosis
      Cyanide poisoning
      Methanol poisoning
      Biguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - At rest, the left dome of the diaphragm normally reaches as high as...

    Incorrect

    • At rest, the left dome of the diaphragm normally reaches as high as which of the following:

      Your Answer: Third intercostal space

      Correct Answer: Fifth intercostal space

      Explanation:

      At rest the right dome of the diaphragm lies slightly higher than the left; this is thought to be due to the position of the liver. In normal expiration, the normal upper limits of the superior margins are the fifth rib for the right dome, the fifth intercostal space for the left dome and the xiphoid process for the central tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - All of the following statement are correct regarding endothelium derived nitric oxide except:...

    Correct

    • All of the following statement are correct regarding endothelium derived nitric oxide except:

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide production is inhibited by local mediators such as bradykinin, histamine and serotonin.

      Explanation:

      Factors that elevate intracellular Ca2+ increase nitric oxide (NO) production by the endothelium included local mediators such as histamine and serotonin, bradykinin, and some neurotransmitters like substance P. NO production is also stimulated by increased flow (shear stress) and additionally activates prostacyclin synthesis. As a result of basal production of NO, there is continuous modulation of vascular resistance and as a result, there is increased production of nitric oxide acts which causes vasodilation. Platelet activation and thrombosis are inhibited by nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What type of visual field defect are you likely to see in a...

    Correct

    • What type of visual field defect are you likely to see in a lesion of the visual cortex:

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Explanation:

      A lesion of the visual cortex will result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You review a 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse who...

    Correct

    • You review a 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug abuse who admits to sharing needles in the past. He has a flu-like illness and a rash. Concerned he may be experiencing an HIV seroconversion illness, you order a test.

      Which of these tests is most reliably used to diagnose HIV at this stage?

      Your Answer: p24 antigen test

      Explanation:

      Serum concentrations of the p24 antigen are usually high in the first few weeks after human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and testing for p24 antigen is therefore a useful way of diagnosing very early infection. P24 is the viral protein that makes up most of the core of the HIV.

      ELISA and other antibody tests, though a very sensitive way of detecting the presence of HIV, cannot be used in the early stages of the disease. This is because of the window period of 6-12 weeks before antibodies are produced. These tests will be negative during a seroconversion illness.

      The ‘rapid HIV test’ is an HIV antibody test. It will also be negative during the ‘window period’ since it takes time for antibodies to be produced. It is called the ‘rapid test’ as it can detect antibodies in blood or saliva much quicker than the other antibody tests and results are often back within 20 minutes.

      CD4 and CD8 counts are usually normal in the early stages of the HIV infection and cannot be used in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      70.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true about anterior cord syndrome?

      Your Answer: There is preservation of proprioception

      Explanation:

      Anterior cord syndrome is an incomplete cord syndrome that predominantly affects the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord, characteristically resulting in motor paralysis below the level of the lesion as well as the loss of pain and temperature at and below the level of the lesion. The patient presentation typically includes these two findings; however, there is variability depending on the portion of the spinal cord affected. Other findings include back pain, or autonomic dysfunction such as hypotension, neurogenic bowel or bladder, and sexual dysfunction. The severity of motor dysfunction can vary, typically resulting in paraplegia or quadriplegia.

      Proprioception, vibratory sense, two-point discrimination, and fine touch are not affected in anterior cord syndrome. These sensations are under the control of the dorsal column of the spinal cord, which is supplied by two posterior spinal arteries running in the posterior lateral sulci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      223.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The second generation antihistamine, cetirizine is a less-sedating antihistamine than the older antihistamine,...

    Correct

    • The second generation antihistamine, cetirizine is a less-sedating antihistamine than the older antihistamine, chlorphenamine because:

      Your Answer: It is less lipid-soluble so less able to cross the blood brain barrier.

      Explanation:

      All older antihistamines such as chlorphenamine cause sedation. The newer antihistamines e.g. cetirizine cause less sedation and psychomotor impairment than the older antihistamines because they are much less lipid soluble and penetrate the blood brain barrier only to a slight extent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade fever, and malaise. His partner has infectious mononucleosis, which was recently diagnosed. In this situation, which of the following cells is the most proliferative:

      Your Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Histologic findings in EBV infectious mononucleosis: Oropharyngeal epithelium demonstrates an intense lymphoproliferative response in the cells of the oropharynx. The lymph nodes and spleen show lymphocytic infiltration primarily in the periphery of a lymph node.
      Relative lymphocytosis (≥ 60%) plus atypical lymphocytosis (≥ 10%) are the characteristic findings of Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infectious mononucleosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A GP is considering prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for pain relief for...

    Correct

    • A GP is considering prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) for pain relief for a patient with a knee injury

      Which of these statements about NSAIDs is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Side effects are less commonly seen with indomethacin than naproxen

      Explanation:

      Most NSAIDs act as non-selective inhibitors of the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase (COX). They inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 isoenzymes.

      Only about 60% of patients will respond to any given NSAID.

      It can take 21 days of treatment for a clinically appreciable reduction in inflammation to be apparent. If no improvement is seen after 21 days, the NSAID should be changed.

      The use of NSAIDs in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy is associated with the following risks: delayed onset of labour, premature closure of ductus arteriosus and foetal kernicterus.

      Side effects are lowest in Ibuprofen and highest in indomethacin. so side effects are more commonly seen with indomethacin than naproxen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent...

    Incorrect

    • A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.

      She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Fosfomycin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for women with lower UTIs who are not pregnant are:
      1. Consider prescribing a different antibiotic if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time
      2. If the urine culture and susceptibility test results are available, review the choice of antibiotic according to the results and change the antibiotic accordingly if symptoms are not improving or bacteria is resistant to the prescribed antibiotic

      The first choice of antibiotics for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and over is:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute
      2. Trimethoprim
      200 mg PO BD for three days

      The second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for three days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute
      2. Pivmecillinam
      400 mg PO initial dose, then 200 mg PO TDS for three days
      3. Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 6-year-old female is brought to the Ophthalmology Clinic by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old female is brought to the Ophthalmology Clinic by her mother with the complaint of itching, redness, and a watery discharge of the right eye. Past medical history revealed an upper respiratory tract infection one week ago.

      On examination of the right eye, there is mild erythema of the palpebral conjunctiva and visible follicles seen on eversion of the eyelid, lid oedema, and subconjunctival petechial haemorrhages. The discharge is watery and not purulent.

      You diagnose her with viral conjunctivitis. According to the current NICE guidelines, which ONE of the following management options would NOT be included for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cool compresses can be applied gently around the eye area

      Correct Answer: The child should be excluded from school until the infection has resolved

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines do NOT recommend isolating a patient with viral conjunctivitis from others or skipping school or work. The disease is contagious, but the spread of the disease can be controlled by maintaining good hygiene practices such as:
      1. frequent hand washing
      2. use of separate flannels and towels
      3. Avoid close contact with others

      Antibiotic prescriptions are not part of the NICE guidelines for viral conjunctivitis as they will not affect the course of the disease. Most cases of viral conjunctivitis are self-limiting and resolve within one to two weeks.

      The NICE guidelines recommend that symptoms may be eased with self-care measures such as:
      1. Bathing/cleaning the eyelids with cotton wool soaked in sterile saline or boiled and cooled water to remove any discharge
      2. Cool compresses applied gently around the eye area
      3. Use of lubricating drops or artificial tears

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - For which of the following infections is phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) primarily used? ...

    Correct

    • For which of the following infections is phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) primarily used?

      Your Answer: Streptococcal tonsillitis

      Explanation:

      Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) is less active than benzylpenicillin but both have similar antibacterial spectrum. Because penicillin V is gastric-acid stable, it is suitable for oral administration, but should not be used for serious infections as absorption can be unpredictable and plasma concentrations can be variable.
      Its uses are:
      1. mainly for respiratory tract infections in children
      2. for streptococcal tonsillitis
      3. for continuing treatment after one or more injections of benzylpenicillin when clinical response has begun.
      4. for prophylaxis against streptococcal infections following rheumatic fever and against pneumococcal infections following splenectomy or in sickle-cell disease.

      It should not be used for meningococcal or gonococcal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - You have been called to review a patient and his management in the...

    Correct

    • You have been called to review a patient and his management in the resuscitation room. A very sick patient has been started on mannitol in his treatment protocol.

      Out of the following, what is NOT an FDA-recognized indication for the use of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Congestive cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      Mannitol has four FDA approved uses clinically:
      1. Reduction of intracranial pressure and brain mass
      2. reduce intraocular pressure if this is not achievable by other means
      3. promote diuresis for acute renal failure to prevent or treat the oliguric phase before irreversible damage
      4. promote diuresis to promote the excretion of toxic substances, materials, and metabolites

      It can be used in rhabdomyolysis-induced renal failure, especially in crush injuries. Mannitol reduces osmotic swelling and oedema in the injured muscle cells and helps restore skeletal muscle function.

      It is a low molecular weight compound and can be freely filtered at the glomerulus and not reabsorbed. This way increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).

      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:

      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be transmitted by invasion of...

    Correct

    • Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be transmitted by invasion of intact skin?

      Your Answer: Leptospira spp.

      Explanation:

      Rodents and domestic animals are the primary reservoirs for the Leptospira spp, although other animals, including cows, horses, mongooses, and frogs, can also harbour the leptospires. Humans may be directly infected from animal urine or indirectly by contact with soil or water that is contaminated with urine from infected animals. Infected humans can shed leptospires in urine for up to 11 months, infected cows for 3.5 months, infected dogs for 4 years, and infected rodents possibly for their entire lifetime.

      The organisms enter the host through mucous membranes or abraded skin. The incubation period ranges from 5 to 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the...

    Correct

    • A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the epigastric area when you examine the abdomen. Upon further interrogation, the patient reveals that she had a subtotal gastrectomy for recurring stomach ulcers several years ago. The stomach mucosa secretes a variety of vital compounds, and her ability to secrete some of these molecules has been harmed as a result of his surgery.

      The gastric ECL cells secrete which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Histamine

      Explanation:

      Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) are a type of neuroendocrine cell located beneath the epithelium in the stomach glands. They’re most typically located near the parietal cells of the stomach. The ECL cells’ primary role is to produce histamine, which stimulates the formation of stomach acid by the parietal cells.

      The table below summarizes the many cell types found in the stomach, as well as the substances secreted by each cell type and the function of the secretion:

      Cell type/ Substance secreted/ Function of secretion
      Parietal cells/ Hydrochloric acid/ Kills microbes and activates pepsinogen
      Parietal cells/ Intrinsic factor/Binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorption
      Chief cells/ Pepsinogen/ Protein digestion
      Chief cells/ Gastric lipase/ Fat digestion
      G-cells/ Gastrin/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
      Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) /Histamine/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
      Mucous-neck cells/ Mucous and bicarbonate/ Protects stomach epithelium from acid
      D-cells/ Somatostatin/ Inhibits gastric acid secretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level is elevated. When you tell her about it, she tells you that her doctor recently ran some tests and discovered that she has impaired glucose tolerance.

      Which of the following medications has not been linked to a reduction in glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The following drugs have been linked to impaired glucose tolerance:
      Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide
      Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide
      Steroids, e.g. prednisolone
      Beta-blockers, e.g. atenolol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following statements is INCORRECT. Fick's law tells us that the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is INCORRECT. Fick's law tells us that the rate of diffusion of a gas across a membrane increases as:

      Your Answer: the partial pressure gradient decreases.

      Explanation:

      Fick’s law tells us that the rate of diffusion of a gas increases:
      the larger the surface area involved in gas exchange
      the greater the partial pressure gradient across the membrane
      the thinner the membrane
      the more soluble the gas in the membrane
      the lower the molecular weight of the gas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following local anaesthetics has the longest duration of action: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following local anaesthetics has the longest duration of action:

      Your Answer: Bupivacaine

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than the other local anaesthetics, up to 8 hours when used for nerve blocks. It has a slow onset, taking up to 30 minutes for full effect. It is often used in lumbar epidural blockade and is particularly suitable for continuous epidural analgesia in labour, or for postoperative pain relief. It is the principal drug used for spinal anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You come across a 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic pancreatitis. Today...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic pancreatitis. Today she is complaining of epigastric pain. She has blood tests done especially to review her cholecystokinin levels.

      Which of the following is a cholecystokinin (CCK) releasing site?

      Your Answer: D-cells in the pancreas

      Correct Answer: I-cells in the upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      The I-cells in the duodenum generate and release cholecystokinin (CCK), a peptide hormone. It has a crucial role in the digestion process as a hormonal regulator.

      CCK cells are concentrated in the proximal small intestine, and when food is consumed, the hormone is produced into the bloodstream. The presence of partly digested lipids and proteins in the duodenum is one of the most powerful stimulus for CCK synthesis.

      CCK’s key physiological effects include:

      Encourages the pancreas to release digesting enzymes into the small intestine.
      Stimulates gallbladder contraction and sphincter of Oddi relaxation, resulting in bile delivery into the duodenum.
      Gastric emptying is inhibited, and gastric acid output is reduced.
      Satiety induction is a process that involves inducing a feeling of fullness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency Department after taking 30 of her 200 mcg levothyroxine tablets. She tells you she's 'tired of life' and 'can't take it any longer.' She is currently asymptomatic, and her findings are all within normal limits.

      What is the minimum amount of levothyroxine that must be taken before thyrotoxicosis symptoms appear?

      Your Answer: >10 mg

      Explanation:

      An overdose of levothyroxine can happen by accident or on purpose. Intentional overdosing is sometimes done to lose weight, but it can also happen in patients who are suicidal. The development of thyrotoxicosis, which can lead to excited sympathetic activity and high metabolism syndrome, is the main source of concern. The time between ingestion and the emergence of clinical features associated with an overdose is often quite long.

      After a levothyroxine overdose, the majority of patients are asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are usually only seen in patients who have taken more than 10 mg of levothyroxine in total.

      The following are the most commonly seen clinical features in patients developing clinical features:
      Tremor
      Agitation
      Sweating
      Insomnia
      Headache
      Increased body temperature
      Increased blood pressure
      Diarrhoea and vomiting
      Less common clinical features associated with levothyroxine overdose include:
      Seizures
      Acute psychosis
      Thyroid storm
      Tachycardia
      Arrhythmias
      Coma

      The continued absorption of the ingested levothyroxine causes a progressive rise in both total serum T4 and total serum T3 levels in the first 24 hours after an overdose. However, in some cases, the biochemical picture is completely normal. Thyroid function tests are not always recommended after a thyroxine overdose. Although elevated thyroxine levels are common, they have little clinical significance and have no impact on treatment. Following a levothyroxine overdose, the following biochemical features are common:
      T4 and T3 levels in the blood are elevated.
      Free T4 and Free T3 levels are higher.
      TSH levels in the blood are low.
      If the patient is cooperative and more than 10 mg of levothyroxine has been consumed, activated charcoal can be given (i.e., likely to become symptomatic)
      Within an hour of ingestion, the patient presents.

      The treatment is mostly supportive and aimed at managing the sympathomimetic symptoms that come with levothyroxine overdose. If beta blockers aren’t an option, try propranolol 10-40 mg PO 6 hours or diltiazem 60-180 mg 8 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 20-year-old male who is a known patient of sickle cell disease presents...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male who is a known patient of sickle cell disease presents to the Emergency Room with a sustained erection that is extremely painful.

      Out of the following clinical syndromes, which one does this patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Priapism

      Explanation:

      Sickling of red blood cells can lead to several different clinical syndromes. If the sickling occurs in the corpora cavernosa, it can lead to a sustained, painful erection of the penis, referred to as priapism. One of the complications is long-term impotence. It is important to seek a urological opinion immediately in this case, but in the interim, treat with perineal ice packs and walk up and down the stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency department. You notice weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination during your assessment. Which of these nerves has been affected:

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve is relatively protected in the axilla, hence injury to it is uncommon. A stab wound in the axilla is the most prevalent source of damage. Because of the activities of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis, and the supinator muscles, arm flexion and forearm flexion and supination are diminished but not completely lost. Over the lateral part of the forearm, there is a lack of sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Alpha cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones: ...

    Correct

    • Alpha cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      87.7
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed and declares that everything 'looks yellow.' Her potassium level is 6.8 mmol/l, according to a blood test.

      Which of the drugs listed below is most likely to be the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, it can cause toxicity both during long-term therapy and after an overdose. Even when the serum digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range, it can happen.

      Acute digoxin toxicity usually manifests itself within 2-4 hours of an overdose, with serum levels peaking around 6 hours after ingestion and life-threatening cardiovascular complications following 8-12 hours.

      Chronic digoxin toxicity is most common in the elderly or those with impaired renal function, and it is often caused by a coexisting illness. The clinical signs and symptoms usually appear gradually over days to weeks.

      The following are characteristics of digoxin toxicity:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea
      Abdominal pain
      Confusion
      Tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias
      Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision)
      Hyperkalaemia (early sign of significant toxicity)

      Some precipitating factors are as follows:
      Elderly patients
      Renal failure
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Hypokalaemia
      Hypomagnesaemia
      Hypercalcaemia
      Hypernatraemia
      Acidosis
      Hypothyroidism
      Spironolactone
      Amiodarone
      Quinidine
      Verapamil
      Diltiazem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      120.9
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - You see a 30-year-old man who has come to the department with a...

    Correct

    • You see a 30-year-old man who has come to the department with a very tender right elbow. On examination, the elbow is very hot and red, and appears to be acutely inflamed.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding acute inflammation is FALSE?

      Your Answer: Reduced extravascular osmotic pressure leads to oedema

      Explanation:

      Inflammation can be divided intoacute inflammation, which occurs over seconds, minutes, hours, and days, andchronic inflammation, which occurs over longer periods.
      Acute inflammationcommences within seconds or minutes following the injury of tissues. There are numerous potential stimuli for an acute inflammatory response including infections (bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic), tissue necrosis, foreign bodies, and Immune reactions (hypersensitivity reactions). The chief cell type of acute inflammation is the neutrophil.
      There are three main processesthat occur in the acute inflammatory response:
      Increased blood flow
      Increased capillary permeability
      Neutrophil migration
      1. Increased blood flow:
      Vasoactive mediators are released, such as nitric oxide, histamine, bradykinins, and prostaglandin E2. These mediators cause vasodilatation and increased blood flow to the area (causing redness and heat).
      2. Increased capillary permeability:
      The vasoactive mediators also cause increased capillary permeability by causing endothelial cell contraction that widens the intercellular gaps of venules. This allows an outpouring of protein-rich fluid (exudate) into the extracellular tissues that results in a reduction of intravascular osmotic pressure and an increase in extravascular/interstitial pressure. The increased interstitial osmotic pressure leads to oedema.
      3. Neutrophil migration:
      Neutrophils leave the vasculature through the following sequence of events:
      Margination and rolling: neutrophils flow nearer the vessel wall, rather than in the axial stream, which is referred to as margination. Following margination the neutrophils begin rolling along the surface of the vascular endothelium.
      Activation and adhesion: then as a result of interaction with endothelial cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) that is mediated by selectins, the neutrophils are activated and adhere to the endothelium.
      Transmigration: once bound to the endothelium, neutrophils squeeze through gaps between adjacent endothelial cells into the interstitial fluid, in a process calleddiapedesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - You see a patient in the ED with photophobia, petechial rash, headache and...

    Correct

    • You see a patient in the ED with photophobia, petechial rash, headache and neck stiffness, and suspect a diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.

      What is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Give ceftriaxone 2 g IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment should be commenced with antibiotics immediately before laboratory confirmation due to the potentially life-threatening nature of the disease.

      In a hospital setting, 2g of IV ceftriaxone (80 mg/kg for a child) or IV cefotaxime (2 g adult; 80 mg/kg child) are the drugs of choice.
      In the prehospital setting, IM benzylpenicillin can be given as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following is an action of glucagon: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an action of glucagon:

      Your Answer: Stimulates glycogenolysis

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation. A CT scan is done which is suggestive of Meckel's diverticulum. Where does the blood supply of the Meckel's diverticulum originate?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum has certain classic characteristics.
      1. It lies on the antimesenteric border of the middle-to-distal ileum
      2. It is approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction
      3. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel
      4. It is about 2 inches long,
      5. It occurs in about 2% of the population,
      6. It may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic).
      7. The diverticulum is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
      8. Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk)
      9. Distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery).
      10. The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following best describes pathogenicity: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes pathogenicity:

      Your Answer: The ability to infect the body's own immune cells

      Correct Answer: The ability to cause disease

      Explanation:

      Pathogenicity is the ability to cause disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The anterior three-quarters of the hard palate is formed by the palatine bones.

      Correct Answer: Lymphatic vessels from the palate usually drain into deep cervical lymph nodes.

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the pharynx and palate drain into the deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of the following acts to inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following acts to inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the posterior pituitary:

      Your Answer: Atrial natriuretic peptide

      Explanation:

      ADH release is inhibited by low plasma osmolality, alcohol, caffeine, glucocorticoids and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

      ADH release is stimulated primarily by raised plasma osmolality detected by osmoreceptors in the anterior hypothalamus. Other factors that increase ADH release include: extracellular fluid volume depletion, angiotensin II, nausea, pain, stress, exercise, emotion, hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You investigated a patient with a chest infection and want to start antibiotics right...

    Incorrect

    • You investigated a patient with a chest infection and want to start antibiotics right away. The patient says they she can't take cephalosporins when you ask about allergies.

      Choose the 'second-generation' cephalosporin from the following choices?

      Your Answer: Cefotaxime

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporins of the first generation  include cephalexin, cefradine, and cefadroxil. Urinary tract infections, respiratory tract infections, otitis media, and skin and soft-tissue infections are all treated with them.

      Second-generation cephalosporins include cefuroxime, cefaclor, and cefoxitin. These cephalosporins are less vulnerable to beta-lactamase inactivation than the ‘first-generation’ cephalosporins. As a result, they’re effective against germs that are resistant to other antibiotics, and they’re especially effective against Haemophilus influenzae.

      Cephalosporins of the third generation include cefotaxime, ceftazidime, and ceftriaxone. They are more effective against Gram-negative bacteria than second generation’ cephalosporins. They are, however, less effective against Gram-positive bacteria such Staphylococcus aureus than second-generation cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      28.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (6/8) 75%
Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (11/16) 69%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (8/11) 73%
Renal Physiology (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (5/9) 56%
Central Nervous System (2/3) 67%
Haematology (2/3) 67%
Infections (1/4) 25%
Abdomen (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
General Pathology (3/3) 100%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Microbiology (4/6) 67%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Principles Of Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (1/2) 50%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (3/3) 100%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Passmed