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  • Question 1 - You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache...

    Correct

    • You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache in the Emergency Department. The patient has signs of cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure.

      You discuss the case with the on-call neurology registrar and decide to prescribe Mannitol. The nurse assisting you asks you to reconsider this management plan as she suspects the patient has a contraindication to Mannitol.

      Out of the following, what is a contraindication to mannitol?

      Your Answer: Severe cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.

      Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:
      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      127.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.

      Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: 25% of the mean arterial pressure over the first hour

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.

      Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.

      The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.
      An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      142.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart rate is 37 beats per minute, and he has a second-degree heart block, according to his rhythm strip.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in his management, according to the ALS bradycardia algorithm?

      Your Answer: Set up transcutaneous pacing

      Correct Answer: Give atropine 500 mcg

      Explanation:

      Atropine is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of atropine 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischemia
      Insufficiency of the heart

      If this does not work, give additional 500 mcg doses at 3-5 minute intervals until a maximum dose of 3 mg is reached. The heart rate can be slowed paradoxically if the dose is higher than 3 mg.

      The ALS bradycardia algorithm also suggests the following interim measures:
      Transcutaneous pacing
      Isoprenaline infusion 5 mcg/min
      Adrenaline infusion 2-10 mcg/minutes
      Alternative drugs (aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.

      At the moment, he is completely symptom-free. When it comes to this type of overdose, how long does it usually take for symptoms to appear?

      Your Answer: 12-16 hours

      Correct Answer: 1-2 hours

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      >10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem can cause serious toxicity (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules)

      In children, 1-2 tablets of verapamil or diltiazem (immediate or sustained-release)

      Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of ingestion with standard preparations. However, with slow-release preparations, significant toxicity may take 12-16 hours to manifest, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The following are the main clinical features of calcium-channel blocker overdose:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Hypotension
      Bradycardia and first-degree heart block
      Myocardial ischaemia and stroke
      Renal failure
      Pulmonary oedema
      Hyperglycaemia

      The following are some of the most important bedside investigations to conduct:
      Blood glucose
      ECG
      Arterial blood gas
      Other investigations that can be helpful include
      Urea & electrolytes
      Chest X-ray (pulmonary oedema)
      Echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      154
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology team recently discharged him. He underwent a procedure and was given several medications, including abciximab, during his stay. Which of the following statements about abciximab is correct?

      Your Answer: It is a glycoprotein IIa/IIIb receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      It’s approved for use as a supplement to heparin and aspirin in high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention to prevent ischaemic complications. Only one dose of abciximab should be given (to avoid additional risk of thrombocytopenia).

      Before using, it is recommended that baseline prothrombin time, activated clotting time, activated partial thromboplastin time, platelet count, haemoglobin, and haematocrit be measured. 12 and 24 hours after starting treatment, haemoglobin and haematocrit should be measured again, as should platelet count 2-4 hours and 24 hours after starting treatment.
      When used for high-risk patients undergoing angioplasty, the EPIC trial(link is external)found that abciximab reduced the risk of death, myocardial infarction, repeat angioplasty, bypass surgery, and balloon pump insertion.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

      The following are some of the most common abciximab side effects:
      Manifestations of bleeding
      Bradycardia
      Back ache
      Pain in the chest
      Vomiting and nausea
      Pain at the puncture site
      Thrombocytopenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      114.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding heparin?

      Your Answer: It activates antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

      There is no evidence that heparin is superior to low-molecular-weight heparins in preventing mortality from thrombosis.

      Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin but not heparin. For heparin, protamine sulphate is used to counteract its effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      316
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You review a sick patient in resus who has been prescribed mannitol as...

    Incorrect

    • You review a sick patient in resus who has been prescribed mannitol as part of his treatment protocol.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding mannitol is true?

      Your Answer: It crosses the blood-brain-barrier

      Correct Answer: It is irritant to veins and causes phlebitis

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound and is therefore freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. It, therefore, increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).
      Mannitol is primarily used to reduce the pressure and volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It decreases the volume of CSF by:
      Decreasing the rate of CSF formation,and;
      Withdrawing extracellular fluid from the brain across the BBB
      Other uses of mannitol include:
      Short-term management of glaucoma
      Treatment of rhabdomyolysis
      Preserve renal function in peri-operative jaundiced patients
      To initiate diuresis in transplanted kidneys
      Bowel preparation prior to colorectal procedures
      The recommended dose of mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema is 0.25-2g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.
      Circulatory overload and rebound increases in intracranial pressure may occur following the use of mannitol. It is irritant to tissues and veins and can cause inflammation and phlebitis.
      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:
      Anuria
      Intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      Severe cardiac failure
      Severe dehydration
      Severe pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is one of the medications she is taking.

      Which of the following statements about flecainide mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer: Blocks Na+ channels in the heart

      Explanation:

      Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug of class Ic that works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channel in the heart, prolonging the cardiac action potential and slowing cardiac impulse conduction. It has a significant impact on accessory pathway conduction, particularly retrograde conduction, and significantly reduces ventricular ectopic foci.

      Many different arrhythmias can be treated with flecainide, including:
      Pre-excitation syndromes (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White)
      Acute atrial arrhythmias
      Ventricular arrhythmias
      Chronic neuropathic pain

      The use of flecainide is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Abnormal left ventricular function
      Atrial conduction defects (unless pacing rescue available)
      Bundle branch block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Distal block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Haemodynamically significant valvular heart disease
      Heart failure
      History of myocardial infarction
      Long-standing atrial fibrillation where conversion to sinus rhythm not attempted
      Second-degree or greater AV block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Sinus node dysfunction (unless pacing rescue available)

      Flecainide should only be used in people who don’t have a structural heart problem. The CAST trial found a significant increase in sudden cardiac death and all-cause mortality in patients with an ejection fraction of less than 40% after a myocardial infarction, where it tended to be pro-arrhythmic.

      Anti-arrhythmic drugs have a limited and ineffective role in the treatment of atrial flutter. It’s important to keep in mind that flecainide shouldn’t be used by itself to treat atrial flutter. When used alone, there is a risk of inducing 1:1 atrioventricular conduction, which results in an increase in ventricular rate that is paradoxical. As a result, it should be used in conjunction with a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker with a rate-limiting effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 82-year-old woman was brought in an ambulance to the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old woman was brought in an ambulance to the Emergency Department with a 1-hour history of left-sided weakness and dysphasia.

      A CT scan is performed, and primary intracerebral haemorrhage is excluded as a possible cause. She is prepared for thrombolysis when her blood pressure is recorded at 200/115 mmHg.

      Out of the following, which step would be the most appropriate as the next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Labetalol 10 mg IV

      Explanation:

      A patient suffering from acute ischemic stroke can commonly present with hypertensive emergencies. Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in a patient with:
      1. Systolic blood pressure greater than 185 mmHg
      2. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 110 mmHg

      But delaying thrombolytic therapy is associated with increased morbidity in patients with acute ischemic stroke.

      Managing high blood pressure in acute ischemic stroke requires a slower and more controlled reduction in BP. In the presence of an ischaemic stroke, rapid reduction of MAP can compromise blood flow, causing further ischemia and worsening of the neurological deficit.

      Intravenous labetalol is the agent of choice. The dose is 10 mg IV over 1-2 minutes. This dose can be repeated, or an infusion can be set up that runs at 2-8 mg/minute. Thrombolysis can be performed once the blood pressure is brought down to less than 180/105 mmHg.

      A nitrate infusion (for example, Isoket) can be used as an alternative in patients with contraindications to the use of beta-blockers (e.g., asthma, heart block, cardiac failure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are instructed by a senior to administer Mannitol to an RTA patient...

    Correct

    • You are instructed by a senior to administer Mannitol to an RTA patient with increased intracranial pressure.

      Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound that freely filters at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed.
      Out of the following, which is a contraindication to the use of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Severe pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.

      Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:
      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      128.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is a 59-year-old man who was seen with epigastric pain that has since subsided, and he will be seen by his GP in the coming days. He's been hearing a lot about aspirin lately and wants to learn more about it.

      Which of the following statements about aspirin's mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of factor VII

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase

      Explanation:

      Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase in an irreversible manner, resulting in a decrease in prostaglandin and thromboxane production. As a result, platelet activation and aggregation are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      117.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The average BP reading on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring for a 59-year-old Caucasian...

    Incorrect

    • The average BP reading on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring for a 59-year-old Caucasian man is 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).

      The first-line drug treatment for this patient would be which of the following? Please only choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: No medication is required at this stage

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.

      A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 59-year-old Caucasian man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.

      Which of the following is a verapamil toxicity?

      Your Answer: Negative inotropy

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium-channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      The following summarises the toxicity of calcium-channel blockers:
      Cardiac effects
      Vascular smooth muscle tone affects
      Metabolic effects
      Excessive negative inotropy: myocardial depression
      Negative chronotropy: sinus bradycardia
      Negative dromotropy: atrioventricular node blockade
      Decreased afterload
      Systemic hypotension
      Coronary vasodilation
      Hypoinsulinaemia
      Calcium channel blocker-induced insulin resistance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      68.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You've been summoned to a young man in the resus area who is...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to a young man in the resus area who is experiencing an SVT. You decide to use adenosine after trying several vagal manoeuvres without success.

      Which of the following is the correct adenosine mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Slows conduction through the sino-atrial node

      Correct Answer: Opens K + channels in the heart

      Explanation:

      The purine nucleoside adenosine is used to diagnose and treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine works by stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening potassium channels that are sensitive to acetylcholine. This causes the atrioventricular (AV) node’s cell membrane to become hyperpolarized, slowing conduction by inhibiting calcium channels.
      Patients who have had a heart transplant are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

      Dipyridamole potentiates the effects of adenosine, so it should be used with caution in patients who are taking it.

      The use of adenosine is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Asthma
      COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
      Decompensated heart failure 
      Long QT syndrome
      AV block in the second or third degree
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Hypotension that is severe

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of depression presents with a deliberate...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of depression presents with a deliberate overdose of verapamil tablets, which he is prescribed for a heart condition.

      What is verapamil's mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: L-type calcium channel blockade

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      The standard ABC approach should be used to resuscitate all patients as needed. If life-threatening toxicity is expected, intubation and ventilation should be considered early on. If hypotension and shock are developing, early invasive blood pressure monitoring is recommended.

      The primary goal of specific treatments is to support the cardiovascular system. These are some of them:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Give up to 20 mL of crystalloid per kilogramme of body weight.

      2. Calcium supplementation
      This can be a good way to raise blood pressure and heart rate temporarily.
      via central venous access: 10% calcium gluconate 60 mL IV (0.6-1.0 mL/kg in children) or 10% calcium chloride 20 mL IV (0.2 mL/kg in children)
      Boluses can be given up to three times in a row.
      To keep serum calcium >2.0 mEq/L, consider a calcium infusion.

      3. Atropine: 0.6 mg every 2 minutes up to 1.8 mg is an option, but it is often ineffective.

      4. HIET (high-dose insulin-euglycemic therapy):
      The role of HIET in the step-by-step management of cardiovascular toxicity has changed.

      5. Vasoactive infusions:
      This was once thought to be a last-ditch measure, but it is now widely recommended that it be used sooner rather than later.
      Insulin with a short half-life 50 mL of 50 percent glucose IV bolus plus 1 U/kg bolus (unless marked hyperglycaemia present)
      Short-acting insulin/dextrose infusions should be continued.
      Glucose should be checked every 20 minutes for the first hour, then hourly after that.
      Regularly check potassium levels and replace if they fall below 2.5 mmol/L.
      Titrate catecholamines to effect (inotropy and chronotropy); options include dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline infusions.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Use 50-100 mEq sodium bicarbonate (0.5-1.0 mEq/kg in children) in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

      7. Cardiac pacing: It can be difficult to achieve electrical capture, and it may not improve overall perfusion.
      Bypass AV blockade with ventricular pacing, which is usually done at a rate of less than 60 beats per minute.

      8. Intralipid transport
      Calcium channel blockers are lipid-soluble agents, so they should be used in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - On ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 48-year-old Caucasian man has an average BP...

    Incorrect

    • On ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 48-year-old Caucasian man has an average BP reading of 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).

      Which of the following would be the patient's first-line drug treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.

      A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Afro-Caribbean man.

      An ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, or a low-cost angiotensin-II receptor blocker (ARB), such as losartan, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Caucasian man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is abciximab (ReoPro) mechanism of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antagonism of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide...

    Incorrect

    • You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide to contact the intensive care outreach team because she appears to be in septic shock. They decide to start a dobutamine infusion as soon as they arrive.

      Which of the following statements about dobutamine is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be infused via a peripheral line

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.

      Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.

      It is infused intravenously after being diluted to a volume of at least 50 ml in a suitable crystalloid solution. The dose is titrated to response and ranges from 0.5 to 40 g/kg/min. Extravasation-induced skin necrosis is uncommon, and dobutamine can be administered through a peripheral line.

      At doses below 10 g/kg/min, side effects are rare, but at higher doses, they can include:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension
      Headache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe chest pain. His medical record shows that he had coronary angioplasty one week ago, during which he was administered abciximab.

      Which of the following haematological diseases has a similar mechanism of action to this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

      Explanation:

      Abciximab is glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that decreases aggregation of platelets by prevent their cross-linking. In Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia there are low levels of these same receptors leading to decreased bridging of platelets as fibrinogen cannot attach. There is increased bleeding time both in this disease and when there is use of abciximab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta...

    Incorrect

    • As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta blocker. He starts having nightmares and has trouble sleeping soon after starting the beta-blocker.

      Which of the beta blockers listed below is the most likely to be in his system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The beta-adrenoceptors in the heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, and liver are blocked by beta-adrenoceptor blocking drugs (beta blockers).

      Beta blockers come in a wide range of strengths, with the choice largely determined by the disease being treated and the patient’s unique circumstances. The intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, lipid solubility, duration of action, and cardioselectivity of beta blockers all differ.

      Some beta blockers are lipid (lipophilic) soluble, while others are water soluble (hydrophilic). Drugs that are more lipid-soluble are absorbed faster from the gut, undergo more first-pass metabolism, and are eliminated faster. They’re also more likely to get into the brain and cause central effects like insomnia and nightmares. Propranolol, pindolol, labetalol, and metoprolol are examples of lipid-soluble beta blockers. Beta blockers that are water-soluble are less likely to enter the brain and are more resistant to first-pass metabolism. They are excreted by the kidneys, and in renal impairment, dosage reduction is frequently required. Atenolol, nadolol, celiprolol, and sotalol are examples of water-soluble beta blockers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 22 - A 67-year-old female is admitted under your care with the complaint of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female is admitted under your care with the complaint of shortness of breath and massive pedal oedema. There are fine crepitations up to the mid zones on both lung fields on chest auscultation. When questioned about her medication, she doesn't remember everything she takes but knows that there is a tablet to get rid of excess water.

      Out of the following medications, which one increases the osmolality of the filtrate in the glomerulus and the tubule, creating an osmotic effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mannitol

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that stops the absorption of water throughout the tubule, thus increasing the osmolality of both glomerular and tubular fluid. It is used to:
      1. decrease intraocular pressure in glaucoma
      2. decrease intracerebral pressure
      3. oliguria.

      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na/K/2Cl transported in the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle.

      Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic which inhibits the Na/Cl transporter.

      Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone receptor antagonist.

      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.

      Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction.

      Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.

      An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is transported to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which indicates that he is in VT. An amiodarone infusion is set up.

      Which of the following statements about amiodarone side effects is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can cause jaundice

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a lot of potential toxic side effects, so it’s important to get a full clinical evaluation before starting treatment with it.

      The following are some of the most common amiodarone side effects:

      Arrhythmias
      Corneal microdeposits
      Hepatic disorders
      Hyperthyroidism
      Hypothyroidism
      Hepatic disorders and jaundice
      Nausea
      Peripheral neuropathy
      Respiratory disorders (including lung fibrosis)
      Sleep disturbance
      Skin reactions
      QT prolongation

      Amiodarone can cause optic neuritis, which is a very rare side effect. If this happens, the amiodarone should be stopped right away because it poses a risk of blindness.

      Most people who take amiodarone develop corneal microdeposits, which go away once the medication is stopped and rarely cause vision problems.

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate...

    Incorrect

    • You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate an elderly gentleman who had collapsed at home. The team leader requests that you administer an adrenaline shot.

      Which of the following statements about adrenaline is FALSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The IM dose in anaphylaxis is 1 ml of 1:1000

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a sympathomimetic amine that binds to alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors and acts as an agonist. It is active at both alpha and beta receptors in roughly equal amounts.

      When taken orally, it becomes inactive. Subcutaneous absorption is slower than intramuscular absorption. In cardiac arrest, it is well absorbed from the tracheal mucosa and can be given through an endotracheal tube.

      At the adrenergic synapse, catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) metabolise it primarily. The inactive products are then passed through the kidneys and excreted in the urine.

      In adult cardiac arrest, the IV dose is 1 mg, which is equal to 10 ml of 1:10000 or 1 ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, the IM dose is 0.5 ml of 1:1000. (500 mcg).

      In open-angle glaucoma, adrenaline causes mydriasis and lowers pressure.

      Adrenaline is used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the treatment of severe croup, and the emergency management of acute allergic and anaphylactic reactions (as a nebuliser solution).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A...

    Incorrect

    • The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A CT head scan is performed, and the diagnosis of an ischaemic stroke is confirmed. Her blood pressure is currently very high, with the most recent measurement being 196/124 mmHg, according to the nurse in charge. While you wait for the stroke team to review her, she asks you to prescribe something to help lower the patient's blood pressure.

      Which of the following is the best drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the setting of a stroke syndrome (i.e., in the presence of focal neurological deficits), hypertensive emergencies usually necessitate a slower and more controlled blood pressure reduction than in other situations. Rapid reduction of MAP in the presence of an ischaemic stroke can compromise blood flow, leading to further ischaemia and worsening of the neurological deficit. In this situation, intravenous labetalol is the drug of choice for lowering blood pressure.

      Significantly elevated blood pressure (>185/110 mmHg) is a contraindication to thrombolysis, but there is some evidence for controlling blood pressure before thrombolysis in exceptional circumstances, when it is only slightly above this threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level is elevated. When you tell her about it, she tells you that her doctor recently ran some tests and discovered that she has impaired glucose tolerance.

      Which of the following medications has not been linked to a reduction in glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The following drugs have been linked to impaired glucose tolerance:
      Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide
      Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide
      Steroids, e.g. prednisolone
      Beta-blockers, e.g. atenolol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old patient presents with a chronic digoxin overdose. She has vomited several...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient presents with a chronic digoxin overdose. She has vomited several times, is extremely tired, and her vision 'appears yellow,' according to her.

      Which of the following is a reason for this patient's use of Digifab?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coexistent renal failure

      Explanation:

      An antidote for digoxin overdose is digoxin-specific antibody (Digifab). It’s a lyophilized preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments that’s sterile, purified, and lyophilized. These fragments were extracted from the blood of healthy sheep that had been immunised with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA), a digoxin analogue that contains the functionally important cyclopentaperhydrophenanthrene:lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      Digifab has a higher affinity for digoxin than digoxin does for its sodium pump receptor, which is thought to be the site of its therapeutic and toxic effects. When given to a patient who is intoxicated, Digifab binds to digoxin molecules, lowering free digoxin levels and shifting the equilibrium away from binding to receptors, reducing cardio-toxic effects. The kidney and reticuloendothelial system then clear the Fab-digoxin complexes.

      The following summarises the indications for Digifab in acute and chronic digoxin toxicity:
      Acute digoxin toxicity
      Chronic digoxin toxicity
      Cardiac arrest
      Life-threatening arrhythmia
      Potassium level > 5 mmol/l
      >10 mg digoxin ingested (adult)
      >4 mg digoxin ingested (child)
      Digoxin level > 12 ng/ml
      Cardiac arrest
      Life-threatening arrhythmia
      Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      Symptoms of digoxin toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive...

    Incorrect

    • You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive resuscitated patient. They make the decision to start a dopamine infusion.

      Dopamine primarily has which of the following effects at high doses (>15 g/kg/min)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic stimulation

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.

      Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.

      Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.

      Because clearance varies greatly in critically ill patients, plasma concentrations cannot be predicted reliably from infusion rates.
      Dopamine is given as an intravenous infusion, and because extravasation can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing, a central line is usually used (especially at higher doses >240 g/min). In an emergency, however, dopamine can be administered through a large vein (cephalic or basilic) while a central line is being prepared. Alkaline intravenous solutions inactivate it, so sodium bicarbonate should not be infused with it.

      The following are the most common dopamine side effects:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute...

    Incorrect

    • The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute myocardial infarction is revealed by his ECG. Clopidogrel is one of the medications he takes as part of his treatment.

      Clopidogrel's direct mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of platelet ADP receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel, a thienopyridine derivative, prevents platelet aggregation and cross-linking by the protein fibrin by inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet cell membranes (inhibits binding of ADP to its platelet receptor (P2Y12 ADP-receptor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (9/15) 60%
Pharmacology (9/15) 60%
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