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Question 1
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension complaints. She is a known case of diabetes mellitus type 2 and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². On investigations, the liver function tests (LFTs) show raised alanine transaminase (ALT).
Liver ultrasound is performed next to visualize the blood flow into and out of the liver.
Which blood vessel supplies approximately one-third of the blood supply to the liver?
Your Answer: Hepatic artery proper
Explanation:The liver receives blood supply from two sources.
1. Hepatic artery proper
It arises from the celiac trunk via the common hepatic artery and brings oxygenated blood to the liver.
It contributes to approximately 30% of the blood supply of the liver.
2. Hepatic portal vein – supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. It gets tributaries from the inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, and superior mesenteric veinThe inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
The superior mesenteric artery supplies the pancreas and intestine up to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.
The inferior phrenic artery supplies the inferior surface of the diaphragm and oesophagus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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A current flows through a simple electric circuit.
Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?Your Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 3
Correct
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All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:
Your Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.
What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?Your Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using ryanodine
Correct Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine
Explanation:Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.
It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.
The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.
Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.
In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.
Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?Your Answer: Two thirds of the way between the ASIS and the pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.
The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.
However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine in CNS?
Your Answer: Most of the administered dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)
Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.
Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.
Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 42 seconds
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma proteins.
In acute starvation, which of these plasma proteins is the most sensitive indicator?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinol binding globulin
Explanation:The half life of Retinol binding protein (RBP) is 10-12 hours and therefore reflects more acute changes in protein metabolism than any of these proteins. Therefore it is not commonly used as a parameter for nutritional assessment.
The half life of Transthyretin (thyroxine binding pre-albumin) is only one to two days and so levels are less sensitive and this protein is not an albumin precursor. 15 mg/dL represents early malnutrition and a need for nutritional support.
Albumin levels have been frequently as a marker of nutrition but this is not a very sensitive marker. It’s half life more than 30 days and significant change takes some time to be noticed. Also, synthesis of albumin is decreased with the onset of the stress response after burns. Unrelated to nutritional status, the synthesis of acute phase proteins increases and that of albumin decreases.
A more accurate indicator of protein stores is transferrin. It’s response to acute changes in protein status is much faster. The half life of serum transferrin is shorter (8-10 days) and there are smaller body stores than albumin. A low serum transferrin level is below 200 mg/dL and below 100 mg/dL is considered severe. Serum transferrin levels can also affect serum transferrin level.
Fibronectin is used a nutritional marker but levels decrease after seven days of starvation. It is a glycoprotein which plays a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of foreign particles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum calcium accounts for 10% of total body calcium stores
Explanation:Calcium is a very important ion and is involved in:
-cell homeostasis
-coagulation
-muscle contraction
-neuronal impulse transmission/membrane stabilization
-bone formation and skeletal strength
-secretion processes99% is found in bone and 1% in the plasma. Of the 1% that is in the plasma
-45% is free ionized calcium
-45% is bound to proteins, mainly Albumin
-10% is present as an anion complexReduced levels of IONIZED calcium give rise to features of hypocalcaemia , resulting in increased excitability of membranes. This results when the total calcium concentration goes below 2 mmol/L.
Features of mild to moderate hypocalcaemia are:
-paraesthesia (peri-oral, fingers)
-tetany
-spasm
-muscle cramps
-ECG changes (prolonged QT)
-Trousseau’s sign (inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm)
-Chvostek’s sign (tapping the facial nerve – cranial nerve VII – causes facial muscle twitch/spasm)Features of severe hypocalcaemia are:
-cardiogenic shock and congestive cardiac failure due to reduced myocardial contractility
respiratory distress due to bronchospasm, agitation, confusion, seizuresFeatures of hypercalcaemia (remember ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’):
-Abdominal pain
-Vomiting
-Constipation
-Polyuria
-Polydipsia
-Depression
-Lethargy
-Anorexia
-Weight loss
-Hypertension
-Confusion
-Pyrexia
-Calcification in the cornea
-Renal stones
-Renal failure
-Decreased Q-T interval
-Cardiac shock/collapse -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 40 year old female is planned for an critical appendicectomy. A rapid sequence induction is organised. The patient has had a preoperative respiratory tract evaluation and there are no adverse features. The patient is optimally positioned and preoxygenated. The anaesthetic assistant applies 10 N of cricoid pressure. Induction of anaesthesia is then carried out with 250 mg thiopentone and 100 mg suxamethonium with 30 N of cricoid pressure. Initial laryngoscopy reveals a grade 4 view. Three attempts are made at placing a size 7 mm ID tracheal tube two with a standard laryngoscope and one with a McCoy blade and bougie and one further attempt is made using a videolaryngoscope. At this point the suxamethonium is begins to "wear off". Oxygen saturation is 95%. Which one of the following options is the next most appropriate plan of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintain oxygenation and anaesthesia and declare a failed intubation
Explanation:Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.
Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.
No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.
An alternative strategy can then be planned.
The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.
Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.
Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A pulmonary function tests results are:
Measurement Predicted result Test result
Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) 3.85 2.36
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) 3.34 0.97
FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) 85.1 39.9
Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) 7.33 2.11
Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) 116 44.4
What does this indicate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture
Explanation:Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:
Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure, the ileocolic artery is ligated. Which vessel does this artery originate from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. It supplies:
1. terminal ileum
2. proximal right colon
3. cecum
4. appendix (via its branch of the appendicular artery)As veins accompany arteries in the mesentery and are lined by lymphatics, high ligation is the norm in cancer resections—the ileocolic artery branches off the SMA near the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.
Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.
Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:
Dental patients undergoing procedures
Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.
To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
previous valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease
past history of IE, or
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.
Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple exposure
Explanation:Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.
Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which structure passes through the foramen magnum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal roots of the accessory nerve
Explanation:The structures that pass through the foramen magnum are:
Meningeal lymphatics
Spinal cord
Spinal meninges
Sympathetic plexus of vertebral arteries
Vertebral arteries
Vertebral artery spinal branches
The spinal roots of the accessory nerve.The jugular foramen contains the vagus nerve, the accessory nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve.
The vertebral veins does not pass into the skull.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Following an uneventful laparoscopic right hemicolectomy, a previously fit and well 75-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit.
You've been summoned to examine the patient because he's become oliguric.
Which of the following is most likely to indicate that acute kidney injury is caused by a prerenal cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum urea: creatinine ratio 200
Explanation:Prerenal failure has a serum urea: creatinine ratio of >100, while acute kidney injury has a ratio of 40.
In prerenal failure, ADH levels are typically high, resulting in water, urea, and sodium resorption. The fractional sodium excretion is less than 1%, but it is greater than 2% in acute tubular necrosis.
Prerenal azotaemia has higher serum urea nitrogen/serum creatinine ratios (>20), whereas acute tubular necrosis has lower ratios (10-15). The normal range is between 12 and 20.
Urinary sodium is less than 20 in prerenal failure and greater than 40 in acute tubular necrosis.
Prerenal failure has a urine osmolality of >500, while acute tubular necrosis has an osmolality of 350.
Prerenal failure has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of >40, while acute tubular necrosis has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of 20.The concentrations of serum urea or creatinine change in inverse proportion to glomerular filtration. Changes in serum creatinine concentrations are more reliable than changes in serum urea concentrations in predicting GFR. Creatinine is produced at a constant rate from creatine, and blood concentrations are almost entirely determined by GFR.
A number of factors influence urea formation, including liver function, protein intake, and protein catabolism rate. Urea excretion is also influenced by hydration status, the amount of water reabsorption, and GFR.
A high serum creatinine level, as well as a urine output of less than 10 mL/hour and the production of concentrated looking urine, do not necessarily indicate a specific cause of oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed into the emergency department. She has an increased heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/65. She has a history of taking Naproxen for her Achilles tendinopathy. On urgent endoscopy, she is diagnosed with a bleeding peptic ulcer.
The immediate treatment is to permanently stop the bleeding by performing embolization of the left gastric artery via an angiogram.
What level of the vertebra will be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery that supplies the left gastric artery during the angiogram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk—the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.
The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.
The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas analysed.
Which set of results is most likely her own?
Option - pH - PaCO2 - HCO3 - PaO2
A - 7.35 - 28 mmHg (3.73 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
B - 7.43 - 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
C - 7.44 - 36 mmHg (4.8 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
D - 7.45 - 40 mmHg (5.33 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
E - 7.46 - 44 mmHg (5.87kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Due to an increased tidal volume with little change or slight increase in respiratory rate, Minute ventilation at term is increased by about 50%. Hypothalamic function are thought to influence by Progesterone, oestradiol and prostaglandins. This causes a mild compensated respiratory alkalosis.
Maternal PaCO2 is usually decreased to about 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) as a result of this increased alveolar ventilation at term . A compensatory decrease in serum bicarbonate from 27 to 21 mmol/L by renal excretion lessens the impact of maternal alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.
There are no contraindications to regional anaesthesia so a peribulbar block was performed. 8mls of 2% lidocaine was injected using an infratemporal approach. However, there is still movement of the globe after 5 mins.
The least likely extraocular muscle to develop akinesia is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior oblique
Explanation:The fibrotendinous ring formed by the congregation of the rectus muscles at the apex of the orbit does not include superior oblique. This muscle is completely outside the ring and so it is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely. A good grasp of the anatomy of the area being anaesthetised is important with all regional anaesthetic techniques so that potential problems and complications with a block can be anticipated.
The borders of this pyramid whose apex points upwards and outwards of the bony orbit are as follows:
Floor – Zygoma and Maxilla
Roof – frontal bone
Medial wall – maxilla, ethmoid, sphenoid and lacrimal bones.
Lateral wall – greater wing of the sphenoid and the zygoma.The four recti muscles (superior, medial, lateral and inferior) originate from a tendinous ring (the annulus of Zinn) and extend anteriorly to insert beyond the equator of the globe. Bands of connective tissue are present between the rectus muscles forming a conical structure and hinder the passage of local anaesthetic.
The superior oblique muscle is situated outside this ring and is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely, particularly with a single inferotemporal peribulbar injection. An additional medial injection may help to prevent this.
The cranial nerve supply to the extraocular muscles are:
3rd (inferior oblique, inferior recti, medial and superior)
4th (superior oblique), and
6th (lateral rectus).The long and short ciliary nerves provide the sensory supply to the globe and these are branches of the nasociliary nerve, (which is itself a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve).
To achieve anaesthesia for the eye, these nerves which enter the fibrotendinous ring need to be fully blocked to anaesthetise the eye for surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:
Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
2 / 400
6 / 100
10 / 25
14 / 6.25
Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 hours
Explanation:Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.
Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:
Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis.
Clinical examination is as follows:
Airway: Patent
Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added
Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries
Pulse: 125 beats per minute
BP: 125/96 mmHg
Disability:
Glasgow coma score 15
Anxious and in pain.
Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left cephalic vein
Explanation:The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
Minimal systolic pressure changes
Anxiety, fright or hostility
Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale
Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).
Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive of ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs.
Since Olanzapine is a potential cause of NMS it is not a treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.
Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)
The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.
What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S (silent)
Explanation:Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.
Other BChE phenotypes are the following:
Usual (U)
Atypical (A)
Fluoride-resistant (F) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following bias is more prone to case-control studies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall bias
Explanation:Omitted variable bias occurs when a statistician passes over one or more relevant variables from the study.
Publication bias occurs in publish academic research. it occurs when the results of the study effect the decision whether to publish or not.
Expectation bias occurs when the expectation of a researcher about the results effect the behaviour of the participants. Expectations may come from communication and experiences.
Work up bias occurs in the study of diagnostic test validity, whether a gold standard procedure has been used. work up bias can seriously affect the specificity of the test.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status. Recall bias is more potential for Case-control studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs.
How the data would be analysed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set
Explanation:Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.
ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.
In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
Explanation:Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.
Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.
The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.
Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.
Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Randomisation
Explanation:Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.
For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how this occurs, and that blood pressure is determined by multiple factors which include action by the heart, nervous system and the diameter of the blood vessels. This lady's cardiac output (CO) is 4L/min. Her exam today revealed a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 140 mmHg.
Using these values, her systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is which of these?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 35mmHg⋅min⋅mL-1
Explanation:Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.
Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.
Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.
Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume
Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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