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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?

      Your Answer: Raised Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      80.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet gun. He hides the injury for over a week before he is taken to his doctor. CT scan shows that the pellet is lodged in his liver's left lobe. His abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination and he seems well. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks later

      Explanation:

      Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks laterAir weapon injuries in children should be managed in the same way as any low velocity gun shot injury. Subcutaneous pellets are best removed. Urgent specialist referral is indicated for cranial, ocular, chest, abdominal, or vascular injuries as they may require emergency surgery. Cardiac injuries may be rapidly fatal. Penetrating abdominal injuries involving hollow viscera or major blood vessels need prompt exploration and repair. Intracranial air weapon pellets should be removed if possible. A pellet in lung parenchyma or muscle may be safely left in situ but there is a risk of infection. A pellet that has penetrated a joint or is associated with a fracture requires skilled orthopaedic management. A pellet lodged near a major blood vessel or nerve should ideally be removed. The possibility of intravascular embolism must be considered if the pellet is absent from a suspected entry site and there is no exit wound| numerous examples of arterial and venous embolism of an air weapon pellet in children have been described.In this case, the child seems well so there is no need to operate. He should be reviewed several weeks later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen. Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?

      Your Answer: Raltegravir

      Correct Answer: Zidovudine

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.Other options:- Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.- Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea. – Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 12-year-old girl is recovering from bilateral parotitis. She complains of a continuous...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl is recovering from bilateral parotitis. She complains of a continuous headache and drowsiness. A CT brain is done which is normal. What is the best definitive investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      This patient might have viral meningitis as he recently suffered viral parotitis(Mumps). Microscopy and culture of the CSF would show a CSF lymphocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      71.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk...

    Incorrect

    • According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?

      Your Answer: Jaundice within 48 hours

      Correct Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice

      Explanation:

      Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and stiffness in her joints. On examination, she has +1 oedema, slightly swollen metacarpophalangeal joints and ulceration of her buccal mucosa. Her BP is 145/95. Serum creatinine is 92 x 10^12/l. Urinalysis is significant for blood and protein, both +3. High titres of anti-dsDNA are detected in her serum. Which of the following histological changes would be observed in the renal tissue?

      Your Answer: Pauci-immune diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with deposits of IgG, IgM and C3

      Explanation:

      Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is a term used to describe a distinct histologic form of glomerulonephritis common to various types of systemic inflammatory diseases, including autoimmune disorders (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus [SLE]), vasculitis syndromes (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis), and infectious processes. In DPGN, more than 50% of the glomeruli (diffuse) show an increase in mesangial, epithelial, endothelial (proliferative), and inflammatory cells (i.e., glomerulonephritis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      91.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour?

      Your Answer: Abdominal mass

      Explanation:

      The most common manifestation of Wilms tumour is an asymptomatic abdominal mass| an abdominal mass occurs in 80% of children at presentation. Abdominal pain or haematuria occurs in 25%. Urinary tract infection and varicocele are less common findings than these. Hypertension, gross haematuria, and fever are observed in 5-30% of patients. A few patients with haemorrhage into their tumour may present with hypotension, anaemia, and fever. Rarely, patients with advanced disease may present with respiratory symptoms related to lung metastases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest infections. The mother says she has a productive cough with greenish sputum. Chest x-ray shows multiple ringed shadows and thickening of the bronchial walls at both bases. The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      The x-ray is suggestive of bronchiectasis. The most probable aetiology especially considering recurrent chest infections at such a young age is cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: It usually occurs distal to the ileocecal valve

      Correct Answer: It is associated with Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is one of the common causes of intestinal obstruction in children, resulting from the invagination or telescoping of one segment of the bowel into the other distal segment. It may induce bowel ischemia and necrosis, as well. It can occur as a complication of Meckel’s diverticulum. It usually occurs proximal to the ileocecal valve, and the most common presentation is ileocecal. Early signs and symptoms include cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and pulling legs up to chest area. First line treatment includes resuscitation with IV fluids and nasogastric tube. It responds well to air-enema, which is also diagnostic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back....

    Correct

    • A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back. His mother noticed the mark that same morning and she is concerned about its severity. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mongolian spot

      Explanation:

      Mongolian spots, otherwise called congenital dermal melanocytosis, are pigmented birthmarks. They are usually located on the buttocks or back and although they’re usually present at birth, they may appear soon after. They are flat and have a blue-grey colour (bruise-like). They are benign and present no health risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation....

    Correct

    • A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation. The father, one boy and one girl present with a short stature, large heads, short digits, and trident hands. Genetic evaluation reveals they are all heterozygotes for a specific mutation. The rest of the family, the mother and the other daughter, do not carry this mutation. What is the pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance

      Explanation:

      In this case, the affected individuals are all heterozygotes. Therefore, the mutation is autosomal dominant. Also, the mother does not carry the mutation, further confirming the autosomal dominant nature of the disease, which is most probably achondroplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His mucous membranes seem dry and his skin turgor is low. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Fluid replacement

      Explanation:

      Fluid replacement therapy should be initiated immediately because the patient is suffering from severe dehydration as shown by the low urine output, the dry mucous membranes and the low skin turgor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with erythema of the palms and soles and maculopapular rash. His eyes and tongue were red. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki Disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile illness of early childhood characterized by vasculitis of the medium-sized arteries. Diagnostic criteria include fever of at least 5 days duration along with 4 or 5 of the principal clinical features – extremity changes, polymorphous rash, oropharyngeal changes, conjunctival injection and unilateral nonpurulent cervical lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal...

    Incorrect

    • A systolic murmur is heard in an asymptomatic, pink, term baby with normal pulses and otherwise normal examination. There are no dysmorphic features on the routine first-day neonatal check. What is the MOST appropriate action to be taken immediately?

      Your Answer: Four limb blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Pre-and post-ductal saturations

      Explanation:

      Certain CHDs may present with a differential cyanosis, in which the preductal part of the body (upper part of the body) is pinkish but the post ductal part of the body (lower part of the body) is cyanotic, or vice versa (reverse differential cyanosis). The prerequisite for this unique situation is the presence of a right-to-left shunt through the PDA and severe coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption or severe pulmonary hypertension. In patients with severe coarctation of the aorta or interruption of the aortic arch with normally related great arteries, the preductal part of the body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA and LV, whereas the post ductal part is supplied by deoxygenated systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, main pulmonary artery (MPA) and the PDA. In the new-born with structurally normal heart, a differential cyanosis may be associated with persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. In the cases of TGA with coarctation of the aorta or aortic arch interruption, the upper body is mostly supplied by systemic venous blood via the RA, RV, and ascending aorta, whereas the lower body is supplied by highly oxygenated pulmonary venous blood via the LA, LV, MPA, and then the PDA. For accurate detection of differential cyanosis, oxygen saturation should be measured in both preductal (right finger) and post ductal (feet) parts of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome?

      Your Answer: It is caused by defects in collagen

      Explanation:

      Alport syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities. Alport syndrome can have different inheritance patterns. About 80 percent of cases are caused by mutations in type IV collagen genes (COL4A5) and are inherited in an X-linked autosomal recessive pattern, although other inheritance patterns exist. Alport syndrome has autosomal dominant inheritance in about 5 percent of cases.

      People with Alport syndrome experience progressive loss of kidney function. Almost all affected individuals have blood in their urine (haematuria), which indicates abnormal functioning of the kidneys. Many people with Alport syndrome also develop high levels of protein in their urine (proteinuria). The kidneys become less able to function as this condition progresses, resulting in end-stage renal disease (ESRD).

      People with Alport syndrome frequently develop sensorineural hearing loss, which is caused by abnormalities of the inner ear, during late childhood or early adolescence. Affected individuals may also have misshapen lenses in the eyes (anterior lenticonus) and abnormal coloration of the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (retina). These eye abnormalities seldom lead to vision loss.

      Significant hearing loss, eye abnormalities, and progressive kidney disease are more common in males with Alport syndrome than in affected females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      92
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full term by normal vaginal delivery weighing 3.48kg and has been breastfed since birth. She has now lost 11% of her birth weight and bilirubin is above the phototherapy line. On examination, her fontanelle is soft, CRT<2 seconds, she is active and alert. U&Es have been sent, and the sodium on a blood gas is 144. You have started phototherapy, but still, need to make a plan about fluids and feeding. Mother wants to continue breastfeeding but is also happy to introduce some formula milk. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Continue to exclusively breastfeed and monitor sodium

      Correct Answer: Offer NG or cup feeds alongside breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D resistant rickets

      Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta?

      Your Answer: 70% of patients have bicuspid aortic valves

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases Occurring in about 1 in 2,500 births. It is characterized by a congenitally narrowed proximal thoracic aorta. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve in 70% of the cases and berry aneurysms in 10% of the cases. Coarctation of the aorta is commonly found in association with Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, and Patau syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which among the following neurological signs is likely to be present on examination...

    Correct

    • Which among the following neurological signs is likely to be present on examination following the successful administration of a median nerve block?

      Your Answer: Inability to abduct the thumb

      Explanation:

      Successful administration of median nerve block can be confirmed by the inability to abduct the thumb. The median nerve supplies all the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, apart from the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the outer two fingers: so these two fingers can still be flexed. There is a sensory loss to the thumb, index, middle and half of the ring fingers. Absence of thumb abduction due to paralysis of abductor pollicis brevis is a good test for median nerve paralysis.Other options:- The radial nerve supplies the extensors – hence wrist drop does not occur in this scenario. – The ulnar nerve supplies the skin of the ulnar side of the hand. Hence anaesthesia will not affect this area. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the interossei muscles of the hand, which affect abduction and adduction of the fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      53.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
HIV (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (3/3) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (0/2) 0%
Nephro-urology (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Passmed