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Question 1
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The mother of 6 months old girl tests positive for HIV. Doctors test her daughter as well and the results turn out to be positive for HIV, both by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and serology. The girl is clinically healthy and seems to attain normal developmental milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately and plan to start antiretrovirals once further work-up is complete
Explanation:Infants exposed to maternal HIV and with positive results require immediate management with co-trimoxazole prophylaxis, regardless of their CD4 levels. Antiretroviral treatment is necessary as well but it could wait until further work-up is complete.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?
Your Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection
Explanation:To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 3
Correct
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A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh and a hyperpigmented, rhabdoid whorl rash. She has a history of seizures since she was three years old and warts similar to the one she has now. Family history reveals the mother had two in utero stillbirths. The doctor observes small vesicles on the anterior surface of her left wrist. Other findings include mild scoliosis, thin wiry hair, and peg-shaped teeth. Her gait is normal and she is otherwise healthy. Ruth Griffiths score reveals a reduced sub quotient in terms of social skills, performance, and language and hearing skills. The doctor takes a biopsy sample which shows many intradermal eosinophils in the absence of inflammatory cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Incontinentia pigmenti
Explanation:Incontinentia pigmenti is a genetic condition that affects females more than males. It usually manifests in the skin but can affect other parts of the body as well. It presents with a blistering rash that may evolve into wart-like growths. Hyperpigmentation and hair loss are also present, as well as eye and teeth abnormalities. Clinically there are three phases: 1- the bullous phase – crops of vesicles appear in the first 2 weeks of life|2- the papular phase – warty papules that flatten out over the skin| and 3- the hyperpigmented phase – pigmentary changes in the form of whorls and streaks that are hypo- and hyperpigmented in nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He couldn't recall any trauma to groin. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: USG of the scrotum
Explanation:USG of the scrotum is important to exclude any abnormality with testicles, epididymis and scrotum. This presentation can be acute epididymo-orchitis or testicular torsion. USG of the scrotum will help to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Infectious mastitis and breast abscesses are predominantly caused by bacteria that colonize the skin. S. aureus is the most common causative agent, followed by coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The majority of S. aureus isolated are now methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)Some breast infections (and up to 40% of breast abscesses) may be polymicrobial, with the isolation of aerobes (Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Corynebacterium, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas) as well as anaerobes (Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Bacteroides, Lactobacillus, Eubacterium, Clostridium, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella). A study of primary and recurrent breast abscesses showed that smokers were more likely to have anaerobes recovered (isolated in 15% of patients).Unusual breast infections may be the initial presentation of HIV infection. Typhoid is a well-recognized cause of breast abscesses in countries where this disease is prevalent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents to the clinic with a month-long history of headaches, which are worse in the morning and when lying down. There is no significant past medical history and he is not currently taking any medications. Eye examination reveals left sided homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. A lesion is most likely suspected in which of the following sites?
Your Answer: Superior right optic radiation
Correct Answer: Right sided optic tract
Explanation:Homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a visual field defect involving either two right or the two left halves of the visual field of both eye. It results from the damage of the visual pathway in its suprachiasmatic part. The causes of HH include stroke, brain tumours, head injuries, neurosurgical procedures, multiple sclerosis and miscellaneous conditions. HH result in a severe visual impairment and affect a variety of cognitive visual functions. Patients with HH frequently have difficulties with reading and scanning scenes in sufficiently rapid fashion to make sense of things as a whole. They stumble, fall or knock objects in their surroundings, since they cannot see them and they are frequent surprised that somebody or something suddenly appeared in their visual field. The prognosis of visual field deficit recovery is highly variable and depends on the cause and severity of brain nd optic pathway injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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You have been called to see a 5 hour old infant exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. The baby was born premature, and the mothers membranes had ruptured more than 24 hours before delivery. You are concerned that the infant is at risk of sepsis.The following statement best describes sepsis:
Your Answer: Dysregulated inflammatory response to infection
Explanation:Sepsis can be described as a condition in which there is a dysregulated inflammatory response to an infection. In the case of neonates, sepsis can be life threatening and may present with respiratory distress more than 4 hours after birth, shock, seizures, and multi organ failure. Risk factors that further point to sepsis include prolonged rupture of maternal membranes for more than 24 hours before birth, a history of a maternal fever during labour, or parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the mother for a suspected or confirmed bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 8
Correct
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Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?
Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a high likelihood of cystic fibrosis. This diagnosis is associated with a higher risk of developing which of the following?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a life-threatening disorder that causes the build up of thick mucus in the lungs, digestive tract, and other areas of the body. It is a hereditary autosomal-recessive disease caused by mutations of the CFTR gene. Cystic fibrosis eventually results in bronchiectasis which is defined as a permanent dilatation and obstruction of bronchi or bronchioles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Correct
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Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?
Your Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer: Basilar skull fracture
Explanation:Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?
Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Trendelenburg gait is an abnormal gait resulting from a defective hip abductor mechanism. The primary musculature involved is the gluteal musculature, including the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The weakness of these muscles causes drooping of the pelvis to the contralateral side while walking.Any pathology of the fulcrum, load, effort or the lever which binds all three will lead to a positive Trendelenburg gait.Failure of the fulcrum presents in the following conditions:Osteonecrosis of hipLegg-Calve-Perthes diseaseDevelopmental dysplasia of the hipChronically dislocated hips secondary to traumaChronically dislocated hips secondary to infections like tuberculosis of the hipFailure of the lever is a feature in the following conditions:Greater trochanteric avulsionNon-union of the neck of the femurCoxa VaraFailure of effort presents in the following conditions:PoliomyelitisL5 radiculopathySuperior gluteal nerve damageGluteus medius and minimus tendinitisGluteus medius and minimus abscessPost total hip arthroplastyThe gait of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis patients can be explained as a crouch-like gait with hyperflexion in hip and knee joints and less plantar flexion in the ankle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of following statements with regards to the developmental problems found in Fragile X syndrome is the most accurate?
Your Answer: Around one third of children with FXS meet diagnostic criteria for autistic spectrum disorder
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic syndrome associated with neuro-developmental problems such as learning disabilities and cognitive impairment, with many affected children having mild to moderate intellectual disability. About a third of children have features of autism spectrum disorder and ADHD which affects their communication skills and social interactions. As such, affected individuals usually have delayed speech development and poor nonverbal skills such as gaze aversion. Symptoms tend to worsen with age into adolescence as the demands on their intellect becomes greater. Pre-mutation carriers, who posses smaller genetic repeat expansions, have been found to be associated with some neurodevelopment and other medical problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 15
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?
Your Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth
Explanation:6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 17
Correct
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An 18-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with a pigmented lesion on her back. A melanoma is suspected. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?
Your Answer: Excisional biopsy of the lesion
Explanation:Melanoma, a highly malignant tumour arising from melanocytes, is the most common life-threatening dermatological disease. Risk factors include UV radiation exposure, particularly in light-skinned individuals that are easily sunburned, increasing age, family history, and immunosuppression. Lesions that are suspicious for melanoma should be excised with complete margins. Radical excision is not routinely undertaken for diagnostic purposes and therefore if subsequent histopathological assessment determines that the lesion is a melanoma a re-excision of margins may be required.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cm
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A patient was diagnosed with a fast-growing pituitary adenoma. Magnetic resonance image (MRI) scanning reveals a suprasellar extension. Which structure is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:Cranial nerve II (CN II or optic nerve) runs along the midline of the ventral surface of the brain and conveys visual information from the retina of each eye to the corresponding region of the primary visual cortex. The right half of the visual field of both eyes is processed by the left half of the retina, while the right half of the retina processes the left half of the visual field. These retinal ganglion cells project myelinated axons, carrying CN II sensory afferent fibres, through the optic chiasm, where optic nerve fibres from the nasal half of each retina decussate to the contralateral side of the brain for processing. After passing through the optic chiasm, the optic nerve becomes the optic tract that synapses to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus and subsequently projects optic radiations to the primary visual cortex (V1) of the occipital lobe. The optic tract also projects to the superior colliculus, pretectal nuclei, and suprachiasmatic nuclei. This part of the optic pathway serves the important light reflex.Due to the anatomical location of the optic chiasm superior to the pituitary gland, a suprasellar extension of a pituitary macroadenoma will lead to compression of the optic nerve fibres decussating at the optic chiasm. Impingement of these nerves prevents visual information from the temporal visual fields of each eye from reaching the processing centres in the brain, leading to peripheral vision loss
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the community clinic with constipation. During the examination, she goes into a seizure. The physician carries her to the treatment room and administers oxygen. After 5 minutes, the fits continue, and there is lack of buccal midazolam. Which of the following would be the best strategy in this case?
Your Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam
Explanation:Diazepam given rectally may be helpful in treating prolonged convulsions outside and within hospital when intravenous injection is not possible. A rectal dose of 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 10 mg) of injectable diazepam, undiluted or diluted with a 50% propylene glycol solution, can stop seizures in up to 80% of children. There are few adverse reactions. Seizures in children usually cease spontaneously within 5-10 minutes and are rarely associated with significant sequelae. The chance of a seizure stopping spontaneously decreases significantly after 10-15 minutes. Similarly, the efficacy of anticonvulsant medication decreases after 10-15 minutes of fitting and the risk of adverse effects increases. Convulsive seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes constitute status epilepticus and may be complicated by cardio respiratory depression and brain injury. Diazepam or clonazepam, given intravenously, is generally the drug of choice for the emergency treatment of convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous diazepam may be difficult to administer to the young convulsing child and, because of the need for intravenous access, is not ideal for rapid treatment in the community by non-medical carers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?
Your Answer: Neurogenic
Explanation:Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 23
Correct
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A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?
Your Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Correct
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A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?
Your Answer: Absent distal pulses
Explanation:The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?
Your Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference
Explanation:The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A child with a history of developmental delay presents with plaque-like lesions in the retina. The doctor suspects they are probably hamartomas. Which of the following is the most probable association?
Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 2
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis, an autosomal dominant disorder, may present with a variety of symptoms, including seizures, developmental delay, behavioural problems, skin abnormalities, and lung and kidney disease. Hamartomas are often associated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum?
Your Answer: The typical eruption is symmetrical, tender, and with bruise like lesions to the shins, ankles, and knees
Explanation:Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis or ulceration. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides, and malignancies like some leukemias and lymphomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 29
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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