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  • Question 1 - After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and...

    Correct

    • After finding elevated PSA levels, a 69-year-old man undergoes a needle biopsy and is diagnosed with prostatic cancer. What is the stage of this primary tumour?

      Your Answer: T1c

      Explanation:

      The AJCC uses a TNM system to stage prostatic cancer, with categories for the primary tumour, regional lymph nodes and distant metastases:

      TX: cannot evaluate the primary tumour T0: no evidence of tumour

      T1: tumour present, but not detectable clinically or with imaging T1a: tumour was incidentally found in less than 5% of prostate tissue resected (for other reasons)

      T1b: tumour was incidentally found in more than 5% of prostate tissue resected

      T1c: tumour was found in a needle biopsy performed due to an elevated serum prostate-specific antigen

      T2: the tumour can be felt (palpated) on examination, but has not spread outside the prostate

      T2a: the tumour is in half or less than half of one of the prostate gland’s two lobes

      T2b: the tumour is in more than half of one lobe, but not both

      T2c: the tumour is in both lobes

      T3: the tumour has spread through the prostatic capsule (if it is only part-way through, it is still T2)

      T3a: the tumour has spread through the capsule on one or both sides

      T3b: the tumour has invaded one or both seminal vesicles

      T4: the tumour has invaded other nearby structures.

      In this case, the tumour has a T1c stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of primary syphilis?

      Your Answer: Dark-field microscopy

      Explanation:

      Primary syphilis is transmitted via sexual contact. Lesions on genitalia, called a chancre occur after an asymptomatic incubation period of 10-90 days (average 21 days) after exposure. This chancre is a typically solitary (can be multiple), firm, painless, ulceration over the skin at the point of exposure to spirochete, seen on penis, vagina or rectum. It heals spontaneously after 4-6 weeks. Local lymphadenopathy can be seen.

      Diagnosis is made by microscopy of fluid from lesion using dark-field illumination, taking care to not confuse with other treponemal disease. Screening tests include rapid plasma regain (RPR) and Venereal Diseases Research Laboratory (VDRL) tests. False positives are known to occur with these tests and can be seen in viral infections like hepatitis, varicella, Epstein-Barr virus, tuberculosis, lymphoma, pregnancy and IV drug use. More specific tests should therefore be carried out in case these screening tests are positive.

      The Treponema pallidum hemagglutination assay (TPHA) and the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTAABS) test are based on monoclonal antibodies and immunofluorescence and are more specific. However, they can too show false positives with other treponemal diseases like yaws or pinta. Other confirmatory tests include those based on enzyme-linked immunoassays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year old man presented to the clinic with swelling of the penis....

    Correct

    • A 25-year old man presented to the clinic with swelling of the penis. His uncircumcised penis was erythematous and oedematous. The foreskin could not be retracted over the glans. Which of the following agents is the likely cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Inflammation of the glans penis is known as balanitis. Associated involvement of the foreskin is then known as balanoposthitis. More likely to occur in men who have a tight foreskin that is difficult to pull back, or poor hygiene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Digital rectal examination of a 75-year old gentleman who presented to the surgical...

    Correct

    • Digital rectal examination of a 75-year old gentleman who presented to the surgical clinic with urinary retention revealed an enlarged, nodular prostate. PSA was found to be elevated, favouring the diagnosis of prostatic malignancy. Which of the given options is the most common malignant lesion affecting the prostate gland?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostatic adenocarcinoma is the commonest solid malignancy and non-dermatological cancer in men above 50 years age. Increasing in incidence with age and the highest risk seen in the black population. About 75% of cases are seen in men over 65 years. Other tumours affecting the prostate include undifferentiated prostate cancer, squamous cell carcinoma, and ductal transitional carcinoma, but these occur less commonly. Sarcomas usually affect children. Hormones play a role in the aetiology of prostate adenocarcinoma unlike the other types. Intraepithelial neoplasia is considered a precursor of invasive malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is...

    Correct

    • Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is known as:

      Your Answer: Phimosis

      Explanation:

      Phimosis is the inability to fully retract the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male. It can be physiological in infancy, in which it could be referred to as ‘developmental non-retractility of the foreskin. However, it is almost always pathological in older children and men. Causes include chronic inflammation (e.g. balanoposthitis), multiple catheterisations, or forceful foreskin retraction. One of the causes is chronic balanitis xerotica obliterans. It leads to development of a ring of indurated tissue near the tip of the prepuce, which prevents retraction. Contributory factors include infections, hormonal and inflammatory factors. The recommended treatment includes circumcision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what...

    Incorrect

    • When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what is its stage?

      Your Answer: T3

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The TNM staging used for penile cancer is as follows:

      TX: primary tumour cannot be assessed

      T0: primary tumour is not evident

      Tis: carcinoma in situ is present

      Ta: non-invasive verrucous carcinoma is present

      T1: tumour is invading subepithelial connective tissue

      T2: tumour is invading the corpora spongiosum or cavernosum

      T3: tumour invading the urethra or prostate

      T4: tumour invading other adjacent structures.

      In this case, the patient has a T1 tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 22-year old man presented with a mass in his left scrotum which...

    Correct

    • A 22-year old man presented with a mass in his left scrotum which was more prominent when standing and felt like a 'bag of worms'. Examination revealed a non-tender mass along the spermatic cord. Also, the right testis was larger than the left testis. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Varicocele refers to dilatation and increased tortuosity of the pampiniform plexus – which is a network of veins found in spermatic cord that drain the testicle. Defective valves or extrinsic compression can result in outflow obstruction and cause dilatation near the testis. Normal diameter of the small vessels ranges from 0.5 – 1.5mm. A varicocele is a dilatation more than 2mm.

      The plexus travels from the posterior aspect of testis into the inguinal canal with other structures forming the spermatic cord. They then form the testicular veins out of which the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava and the left into the left renal vein.

      It affects 15-20% men, and 40% of infertile males. Usually diagnosed in 15-25 years of age, they are rarely seen after 40 years of age. Because of the vertical path taken by the left testicular vein to drain into left renal vein, 98% idiopathic varicoceles occur on the left side. It is bilateral in 70% cases. Right-sided varicoceles are rare.

      Symptoms include pain or heaviness in the testis, infertility, testicular atrophy, a palpable mass, which is non-tender and along the spermatic cord (resembling a ‘bag of worms’). The testis on the affected side might be smaller.

      Diagnosis can be made by ultrasound. Provocative measures such as Valsalva manoeuvre or making the patient stand up to increase the dilatation by increasing the intra-abdominal venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Out of the given options, which of the following is the most likely...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the given options, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 25-year old gentleman presenting with a testicular germ cell tumour?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Embryonal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Embryonal carcinoma is a non-seminomatous germ cell tumour of the testis, accounting for 25% testicular tumours. Other germ cell tumours include seminoma, teratoma and choriocarcinoma. Embryonal carcinomas are known to occur in men aged 25-35 years, and occasionally in teens. They are rarely seen in ovaries of females. It can spread to the vas deferens and also to the aortic lymph nodes. Embryonal carcinomas are known to have elements of fetal origin such as cartilage. Usually, the main tumour is about 2.5cm long, with an extension of 8-9cm along the testicular cord. Contiguous spread to the testicle is seen in less than 1% cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - If a tumour is found in both lobes of the prostate, without nodal...

    Incorrect

    • If a tumour is found in both lobes of the prostate, without nodal involvement or metastases, a histological grade of G2 and elevated PSA, what is the overall prostatic cancer stage?

      Your Answer: Stage III

      Correct Answer: Stage II

      Explanation:

      The AJCC uses the TNM, Gleason score and PSA levels to determine the overall stage of prostatic cancer. This staging is as follows:

      Stage I: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10; or T2a, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10

      Stage IIa: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7, PSA less than 20; or T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 6 or less, PSA at least 10 but less than 20; or T2a or T2b, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7 or less, PSA less than 20

      Stage IIb: T2c, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, any Gleason score PSA of 20 or more; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, Gleason score of 8 or higher, any PSA

      Stage III: T3, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA Stage IV: T4, N0, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or any T, N1, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or Any T, any N, M1, any Gleason score, any PSA.

      The patient in this case has a T2 N0 M0 G2 tumour, meaning it belongs in stage II

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that...

    Correct

    • A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that the tumour affects the tunica vaginalis. The tumour stage in this case is:

      Your Answer: T2

      Explanation:

      The primary tumour staging for testicular seminoma is as follows, according to AJCC guidelines:

      Tis: intratubular germ cell neoplasia (carcinoma in situ)

      T1: tumour limited to testis/epididymis without vascular or lymphatic invasion; the tumour can invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis

      T2: tumour limited to testis/epididymis with vascular or lymphatic invasion or tumour extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis

      T3: tumour invading the spermatic cord, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion

      T4: tumour invading the scrotum, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.

      According to these guidelines, the tumour in this case has a T2 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      6.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (7/10) 70%
Urology (7/10) 70%
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