00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following organelles form lysosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organelles form lysosomes?

      Your Answer: The ribosomes

      Correct Answer: The Golgi apparatus

      Explanation:

      Lysosomes are formed by the Golgi apparatus or the endoplasmic reticulum. Lysosome releases its enzymes and digests the cell when the cell dies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It causes gastric irritation.

      Correct Answer: It has anti-pyretic action.

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic, similar in efficacy to aspirin, with antipyretic properties but no anti-inflammatory properties. It is well absorbed orally and does not cause gastric irritation. Paracetamol is a suitable first-line choice for most people with mild-to-moderate pain, and for combination therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman has an anaphylactic reaction following accidental ingestion peanuts at a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has an anaphylactic reaction following accidental ingestion peanuts at a restaurant. She is a known hypertensive on atenolol 50 mg daily and BP is well controlled. She is also on amlodipine 5 mg daily. Two doses of IM adrenaline has been given without improvement.

      Which medication may prove helpful in this patient?

      Your Answer: IM Insulin

      Correct Answer: IM Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Resistant to the effects of adrenaline in anaphylaxis is seen in patients taking beta-blockers.

      Glucagon can be used to overcome the effects of the beta-blockade if initial doses of adrenaline are unsuccessful in patients taking beta-blockers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, very much like skeletal myocytes. On the...

    Incorrect

    • Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, very much like skeletal myocytes. On the other hand, calcium-induced calcium release (CICR) is a mechanism that is unique to Cardiac myocytes. The influx of calcium ions (Ca 2+) into the cell causes a 'calcium spark,' which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm.

      In CICR, which membrane protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum is involved?

      Your Answer: Ligand-gated calcium channel

      Correct Answer: Ryanodine receptor

      Explanation:

      Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, just like skeletal myocytes. Heart myocytes, on the other hand, utilise a calcium-induced calcium release mechanism that is unique to cardiac muscle (CICR). The influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cell causes a ‘calcium spark,’ which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm.

      An influx of sodium ions induces an initial depolarisation, much as it does in skeletal muscle; however, in cardiac muscle, the inflow of Ca2+ sustains the depolarisation, allowing it to remain longer. Due to potassium ion (K+) inflow, CICR causes a plateau phase in which the cells remain depolarized for a short time before repolarizing. Skeletal muscle, on the other hand, repolarizes almost instantly.

      The release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is required for calcium-induced calcium release (CICR). This is mostly accomplished by ryanodine receptors (RyR) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane; Ca2+ binds to RyR, causing additional Ca2+ to be released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is the correct sequential order of the phases of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the correct sequential order of the phases of healing:

      Your Answer: Haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, remodelling

      Explanation:

      Acute wound healing has four main stages: haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation and remodelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You examine a 34-year-old lady with symptoms that are consistent with acute sinusitis. You're...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 34-year-old lady with symptoms that are consistent with acute sinusitis. You're thinking about giving her doxycycline for treatment.

      What is doxycycline's mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline and other tetracycline antibiotics attach to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, preventing aminoacyl-tRNA binding and so protein synthesis beginning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man is dehydrated as he presents with severe vomiting and diarrhoea....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is dehydrated as he presents with severe vomiting and diarrhoea. He urgently requires resuscitation with intravenous fluid administration. He is also administered metoclopramide.

      Which of the following is the true mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

      Your Answer: Anti-histamine action

      Correct Answer: Dopamine receptor antagonism

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by blocking the central and peripheral D2 (dopamine 2) receptors in the medullary chemoreceptor trigger zone in the vomiting centre (area postrema). It decreases the sensitivity of the visceral sensory nerves that transmit from the GI system to the vomiting centre. Blockade of inhibitory dopamine receptors in the GI tract may allow stimulatory actions of ACh at muscarinic synapses to predominate.

      At high doses, metoclopramide also blocks type-2 serotonin receptors though the effect is much weaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through the nephron?

      Your Answer: Afferent arteriole→Glomerular capillary→Efferent arteriole→Peritubular capillary→Vasa recta

      Explanation:

      The nephron’s blood flow is as follows:
      Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta – Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta

      The kidney is the only vascular network in the body with two capillary beds. With arterioles supplying and draining the glomerular capillaries, higher hydrostatic pressures at the glomerulus are maintained, allowing for better filtration. A second capillary network at the tubules enables for secretion and absorption in the tubules, as well as concentrating urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a terrible...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a terrible fall during a photoshoot. The patient reported falling on his right forearm. There is evident swelling and tenderness on the affected area, with notable weakness of the flexor pollicis longus muscle. Radiographic imaging showed a fracture on the midshaft of the right radius.

      Which of the following nerves is most likely injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: The radial nerve

      Correct Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexor pollicis longus receives nervous supply from the anterior interosseous branch of median nerve, derived from spinal roots C7 and C8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is most likely affected in De Quervain's tenosynovitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely affected in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?

      Your Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      De Quervain tenosynovitis is named after the Swiss surgeon, Fritz de Quervain, who first described it in 1895. It is a condition which involves tendon entrapment affecting the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. With this condition thickening of the tendon sheaths around the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis develops where the tendons pass in through the fibro-osseous tunnel located along the radial styloid at the distal wrist. Pain is exacerbated by thumb movement and radial and ulnar deviation of the wrist.

      The estimated prevalence of de Quervain tenosynovitis is about 0.5% in men and 1.3% in women with peak prevalence among those in their forties and fifties. It may be seen more commonly in individuals with a history of medial or lateral epicondylitis. Bilateral involvement is often reported in new mothers or child care providers in whom spontaneous resolution typically occurs once lifting of the child is less frequent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A newborn baby is rushed to the neonatal ICU 4 hours after birth...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn baby is rushed to the neonatal ICU 4 hours after birth due to sudden onset severe jaundice and generalised oedema. Family history reveals that this is the second baby, while blood testing shows that the mother has an Rh-negative blood group while the baby is Rh-positive. A diagnosis of haemolytic disease of the newborn is established.

      Which one of the following hypersensitivity reactions have occurred in this case?

      Your Answer: Type V hypersensitivity reaction

      Correct Answer: Type II hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A usually doesn’t pose a special risk to a pregnant woman or her baby. Maternal infection doesn’t result in birth defects, and a mother typically doesn’t transmit the infection to her baby. HAV is almost always transmitted by the faecal-oral route and is usually acquired through close personal contact or via contaminated food.

      When a woman has chickenpox in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, there is a 1 in 50 chance for the baby to develop a set of birth defects. This is called the congenital varicella syndrome. It includes scars, defects of muscle and bone, malformed and paralyzed limbs, small head size, blindness, seizures, and intellectual disability.

      TORCH Syndrome refers to infection of a developing foetus or newborn by any of a group of infectious agents. “TORCH” is an acronym meaning (T)oxoplasmosis, (O)ther Agents, (R)ubella (also known as German Measles), (C)ytomegalovirus, and (H)erpes Simplex.
      Infection with any of these agents may cause a constellation of similar symptoms in affected newborns. These may include fever; difficulties feeding; small areas of bleeding under the skin, causing the appearance of small reddish or purplish spots; enlargement of the liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly); yellowish discoloration of the skin, whites of the eyes, and mucous membranes (jaundice); hearing impairment; abnormalities of the eyes; and other symptoms and findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Airway resistance is primarily determined by the airway radius according to Poiseuille's law.

      Correct Answer: In the lower respiratory tract, airway resistance is mostly determined by the smallest bronchioles.

      Explanation:

      Airway resistance is primarily determined by the airway radius according to Poiseuille’s law, and whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. The major site of airway resistance is the medium-sized bronchi. The smallest airways would seem to offer the highest resistance, but they do not because of their branching parallel arrangement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella?

      Your Answer: Thigh adductors

      Correct Answer: The quadriceps femoris complex

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps femoris muscle translates to “four-headed muscle” from Latin. It bears this name because it consists of four individual muscles; rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius. Out of all four muscles, only the rectus femoris crosses both the hip and knee joints. The others cross only the knee joint. These muscles differ in their origin, but share a common quadriceps femoris tendon which inserts into the patella. The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to extend the leg at the knee joint and to flex the thigh at the hip joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are giving a presentation on the immune system as part of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are giving a presentation on the immune system as part of your peer-to-peer teaching sessions. Yu are currently discussing phagocytes. Macrophages are derived from which of the following cells:

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes spend only a short time in the marrow and, after circulating for 20-40 hours, leave the blood to enter the tissues where they become macrophages. Macrophages form the reticuloendothelial system in the liver, spleen and lymph nodes. The lifespan of macrophages may be as long as several months or even years. In tissues the macrophages become self-replicating without replenishment from the blood. They assume specific functions in different tissues e.g. dendritic cells which are involved in antigen presentation to T-cells. Macrophages may be activated by cytokines such as IFN-gamma, contact with complement or direct contact with the target cell through leucocyte adhesion molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32 year old man is brought to ED having been thrown off...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man is brought to ED having been thrown off his motorbike. Following initial resuscitation and ruling out life-threatening injuries, you establish the patient has weakness of hip flexion. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured:

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the hip is produced by the iliacus, the psoas major, the sartorius, rectus femoris and the pectineus muscles. The femoral nerve innervates the iliacus, pectineus, sartorius and quadriceps femoris muscles, and supplies skin on the anterior thigh, anteromedial knee and medial leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following leukaemias is most common in children in the UK:

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. There is a secondary rise after the age of 40 years. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage and have an equal sex incidence; there is a male predominance for the 15% of T-cell lineage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is NOT an indication for a H1 receptor antihistamine:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an indication for a H1 receptor antihistamine:

      Your Answer: Insomnia

      Correct Answer: Gastroesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines are competitive inhibitors at the H1-receptor (in contrast to H2 receptor antagonists used to decrease gastric acid secretion in gastroesophageal reflux disease).
      Indications:
      Allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis
      Urticarial rashes, pruritus, insect bites and stings
      Angioedema
      Anaphylaxis (second line adjunct to adrenaline)
      Nausea/vomiting and prevention of motion sickness
      Insomnia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The role of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The role of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is:

      Your Answer: Detection of tubular NaCl concentration

      Correct Answer: Production of renin

      Explanation:

      Juxtaglomerular cells synthesise renin. These cells are specialised smooth muscle cells that are located in the walls of the afferent arterioles, and there are some in the efferent arterioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient presents with a gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following microbes attaches...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following microbes attaches to gut mucosa via a specialised sucking disc:

      Your Answer: Helicobacter pylori

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      Giardia lambliainfection occurs through the ingestion of dormant microbial cysts in contaminated water, food or via faceo-oral transmission via poor hygiene.
      Following ingestion of the cysts, the trophozoite emerges to an active state of feeding and motility. After the feeding stage they undergo asexual replication through longitudinal binary fission.
      They attach to the intestinal wall via a specialised sucking disc. The mechanism for diarrhoea in giardiasis remains unknown but could possibly be due to direct cytotoxicity.
      Giardial trophozoites and cysts pass through the digestive system in the faeces and are excreted. While the trophozoites may be found in the faeces, only the cysts are adapted for long-term survival outside the host.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen:

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV mainly infects CD4+ T helper cells. Viral replication results in progressive T-cell depletion and impaired cell-mediated immunity with subsequent secondary opportunistic infections and increased risk of malignancy. B-cell function is also reduced as a result of lack of T-cell stimulation.
      HIV is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following nerves innervates the gastrocnemius muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves innervates the gastrocnemius muscle?

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The gastrocnemius is innervated by the anterior rami of S1 and S2 spinal nerves, carried by the tibial nerve into the posterior compartment of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following risk ratios indicates no difference in risk between two groups:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following risk ratios indicates no difference in risk between two groups:

      Your Answer: ∞

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      A risk ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between groups.If the risk ratio of an event is > 1, the rate of that event is increased in the exposed group compared to the control group.If the risk ratio is < 1, the rate of that event is reduced in the exposed group compared to the control group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid intake. His blood sugar is normal. You estimate his osmolarity as part of his work-up.

      Which of these equations can be used to estimate osmolarity?

      Your Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose

      Correct Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose + Urea

      Explanation:

      Osmolality and osmolarity are measurements of the solute concentration of a solution. Although the two terms are often used interchangeably, there are differences in the definitions, how they are calculated and the units of measurement used.

      Osmolarity, expressed as mmol/L, is an estimation of the osmolar concentration of plasma. It is proportional to the number of particles per litre of solution.
      Measured Na+, K+, urea and glucose concentrations are used to calculate the value indirectly.
      It is unreliable in pseudohyponatremia and hyperproteinaemia.

      The equations used to calculate osmolarity are:
      Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + 2 (K+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)
      OR
      Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)

      Doubling of sodium accounts for the negative ions associated with sodium, and the exclusion of potassium approximately allows for the incomplete dissociation of sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding skeletal muscle, which of the following best describes the Z-line:

      Your Answer: A line dividing the thick and the thin myofilaments

      Correct Answer: A line dividing muscle fibres into sarcomeres

      Explanation:

      Each muscle fibre is divided at regular intervals along its length into sarcomeres separated by Z-lines. The sarcomere is the functional unit of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to his right hand whilst playing cricket. He is unable to fully straighten his right middle finger as the distal phalanx remains flexed. Which of the following structures within the digit was most likely injured:

      Your Answer: Superficial branch of radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Insertion of terminal extensor digitorum tendon

      Explanation:

      Damage to the insertion of the terminal extensor digitorum tendon would result in loss of extension at the distal interphalangeal joint causing a fixed flexion deformity, called the Mallet deformity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a chest infection. The diarrhoea is yellow in colour and smell is offensive.

      What is the SINGLE MOST likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.

      About 80% of Clostridium difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:
      Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The...

    Incorrect

    • You're called to a cardiac arrest in your Emergency Department resuscitation area. The rhythm strip is shown in the diagram below. Defibrillation has already been attempted three times on the patient. You intended to administer amiodarone, but your department has informed you that it is not available. In these circumstances, if amiodarone is not available, which of the following drugs is recommended by the ALS guidelines? Ventricular fibrillation

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Lidocaine

      Explanation:

      If amiodarone is unavailable in VF/pVT arrests, lidocaine at a dose of 1 mg/kg can be used instead, according to the latest ALS guidelines. If amiodarone has already been given, no lidocaine should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone...

    Incorrect

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone pattern in leads V2, V3 and V4?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      Tombstoning ST elevation myocardial infarction can be described as a STEMI characterized by tombstoning ST-segment elevation. This myocardial infarction is associated with extensive myocardial damage, reduced left ventricle function, serious hospital complications and poor prognosis. Tombstoning ECG pattern is a notion beyond morphological difference and is associated with more serious clinical results.

      Studies have shown that tombstoning is more commonly found in anterior than non-anterior STEMI, thus, higher rates of left anterior descending artery disease are observed in patients with tombstoning pattern.

      The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:

      ECG Leads Location Vessel involved
      V1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)
      I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      V1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea that has been going on for 3 days.

      Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be a cause of infectious bloody diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium parvum

      Correct Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

      Explanation:

      The following are organisms that are capable of producing acute, bloody diarrhoea:
      – Campylobacter jejuni
      – Escherichia coli O157:H7
      – Salmonella species
      – Shigella species
      – Yersinia species
      – Entamoeba histolytica

      Other E. coli strains, Giardia, Vibrio, and other parasites are associated with watery, but not bloody, diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a traffic accident. Upon examination, there was tenderness and erythema on the right acromioclavicular joint, with notable step deformity. On radiographic imaging, there is a superior elevation of the clavicle, a twice than normal coracoclavicular distance, and absence of fracture.

      Which of the following structure/s is/are likely to have ruptured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acromioclavicular ligament, coracoclavicular ligament and joint capsule

      Explanation:

      Acromioclavicular joint injuries account for more than forty percent of all shoulder injuries. Mild injuries are not associated with any significant morbidity, but severe injuries can lead to significant loss of strength and function of the shoulder. Acromioclavicular injuries may be associated with a fractured clavicle, impingement syndromes, and more rarely neurovascular insults.

      The AC joint is a diarthrodial joint defined by the lateral process of the clavicle articulating with the acromion process as it projects anteriorly off the scapula. The joint is primarily stabilized by the acromioclavicular ligament, which is composed of an anterior, posterior, inferior, and superior component. Of note, the superior portion of the AC ligament is the most important component for the stability of the AC joint. Supporting structures include two coracoclavicular ligaments (trapezoid and conoid ligaments), which provide vertical stability, as well as the coracoacromial ligament.

      Patients with an AC joint injury typically present with anterosuperior shoulder pain and will describe a mechanism of injury of blunt trauma to the abducted shoulder or landing on an outstretched arm, suggestive of this type of injury. They may describe pain radiating to the neck or shoulder, which is often worse with movement or when they try to sleep on the affected shoulder. On examination, the clinician may observe swelling, bruising, or a deformity of the AC joint, depending on the degree of injury. The patient will be tender at that location. They may have a restriction in the active and passive range of motion secondary to pain. Piano key sign may be seen, with an elevation of the clavicle that rebounds after inferior compression.

      Standard X-rays are adequate to make a diagnosis of acromioclavicular joint injury and should be used to evaluate for other causes of traumatic shoulder pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (6/6) 100%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular Physiology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (6/6) 100%
Pathology (4/4) 100%
Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Renal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (8/8) 100%
Upper Limb (4/4) 100%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (3/3) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (3/4) 75%
Principles (2/2) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed