00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?

      Your Answer: Is a minute volume divider

      Explanation:

      It’s a minute volume divider – True
      The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.

      Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
      Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.

      Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
      It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.

      Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
      The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.

      Has three sets of bellows – False
      The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to...

    Incorrect

    • Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to be used for an arterial blood gas?

      Your Answer: 2cm inferomedially to the pubic tubercle

      Correct Answer: Mid inguinal point

      Explanation:

      The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the emergency department. On examination, he complains of nausea and is notably sweating. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads, as well as sinus bradycardia. A myocardial infarction can cause a sinus bradycardia.

      The sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node receive arterial supply from which vessel?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left marginal artery comes off the left circumflex artery, and runs alongside the heart.

      The left circumflex artery is one of the bifurcations of the left coronary artery, and eventually forms the left marginal artery.

      An occlusion in the left circumflex artery often results in a lateral MI.

      The right marginal artery originates from the right coronary artery.

      The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is another bifurcation of the left coronary artery. An occlusion in the LAD would often result in an anteroseptal MI as is diagnosed on ECG by noting changes in leads V1-V4.

      The right coronary artery originates from the right aortic sinus of the ascending aorta, and bifurcates to give rise to many branches, including the sinoatrial artery which supplies the sinoatrial (SA) node in 50-70% of cases, the artery of the atrioventricular (AV) node in 50-60% of cases, the right acute marginal artery which supplies the right ventricle. It also supplies the right atrium, interatrial septum and the posterior inferior third of the interventricular septum.

      Arrhythmias and inferior MI often occurs as a result of an occlusion in the right coronary artery, and can be diagnosed by ECG changes in leads II, III and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is NOT a feature of Propofol infusion syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is NOT a feature of Propofol infusion syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hepatomegaly

      Correct Answer: Hypotriglyceridaemia

      Explanation:

      Propofol infusion syndrome is a rare but extremely dangerous complication of propofol administration

      Common organ systems affected by PRIS include the following:
      1. cardiovascular
      widening of QRS complex, Brugada syndrome-like patterns (particularly type 1), ventricular tachyarrhythmias, cardiogenic shock, and asystole

      2. hepatic
      Liver enzymes elevation, hepatomegaly, and steatosis

      3. skeletal muscular
      myopathy and overt rhabdomyolysis

      4. renal
      Hyperkalaemia, acute kidney injury

      5. metabolic
      High anion gap metabolic acidosis (due to elevation in lactic acid)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?

      Your Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium

      Explanation:

      Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.

      It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.

      Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which nerve does NOT pass through the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve does NOT pass through the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?

      Your Answer: Type B equipment protect against microshock

      Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient

      Explanation:

      The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.

      Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
      (i) electrocution
      (ii) burns
      (iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.

      Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.

      Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.

      Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
      The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
      The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
      Type B:
      can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
      Type BF
      Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
      Type CF
      Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.

      Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
      1 mA – tingling pain
      5 mA – pain
      15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
      50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
      75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.

      Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Correct

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2255.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted in the surgery department for an elective total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection. The operation is expected to last for 10 hours.

      Which of the following is the most suitable humidifier to use in an anaesthetic circuit for this case?

      Your Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)

      Explanation:

      Adequate humidification is vital to maintain homeostasis of the airway. Heat and moisture exchangers conserve some of the exhaled water, heat and return them to inspired gases. Many heat and moisture exchangers also perform bacterial/viral filtration and prevent inhalation of small particles. Heat and moisture exchangers are also called condenser humidifier, artificial nose, etc. Most of them are disposable devices with exchanging medium enclosed in a plastic housing. For adult and paediatric age group different dead space types are available. Heat and moisture exchangers are helpful during anaesthesia and ventilatory breathing system. To reduce the damage of the upper respiratory tract through cooling and dehydration inspiratory air can be heated and humidified, thus preventing the serious complications. Moreover, they are the most appropriate humidification devices used for routine anaesthesia.

      Gases can be bubbled through water to increase humidity. Passing gas through water at room temperature causes the gas to cool due to latent heat of vaporisation. The water bath can be heated. This improves the efficiency of the device and also reduces the incidence of bacterial colonisation.

      Nebulisers use a venturi system which employs the Bernoulli effect. A gas at high flow passes through a constriction causing the gas to accelerate, reducing its potential energy allowing other gases or liquids to be entrained. This can include medications or in the case of humidification, water vapour. The size of the water droplet produced by nebulisation determines where in the airway it is deposited. Standard nebulisers produced droplets of 4 microns in diameter and these are deposited in the upper airway and trachea. Efficacy can be improved by passing the droplets over an anvil which further reduces particle size. The most efficient form of nebuliser is the ultrasonic nebuliser. Here a transducer immersed in water and vibrated at a frequency of 3MHz produces1-2micron droplets. These particles easily reach the bronchioles and provide excellent humidification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by? ...

    Incorrect

    • The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by?

      Your Answer: Auerbach's plexus

      Correct Answer: Loose connective tissue

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus has four layers namely; 1. the mucosal layer, 2. the submucosal layer, 3. the muscular layer and 4. the layer of loose connective tissue which binds to the outer mucosal layer. The oesophagus lacks the serosal layer and therefore holds sutures poorly.

      The mucosal layer consists of muscularis mucosa and the lamina propria and is made up of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. The mucosal layer is the innermost layer of the oesophagus.

      The submucosal layer being the strongest layer of all has mucous glands which are called as the tuboalveolar mucous glands.

      The outer muscular layer has two types of muscle layers of which one is the circular layer and the other the longitudinal layer. The Auerbach’s and Meissner’s nerve plexuses lie in between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers and submucosally. The muscle fibres present in the upper 1/3rd part of the oesophagus are skeletal muscle fibres, the middle 1/3rd layer has both smooth and skeletal muscle fibres, but the lower 1/3rd only has smooth muscle fibres.

      The loose connective tissue layer or the adventitious layer has dense fibrous tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in a patient with suspected anaphylaxis who became hypotensive and developed widespread urticarial rash after administration of Augmentin?

      Your Answer: Histamine

      Correct Answer: Tryptase

      Explanation:

      Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation. Tryptase is a protease enzyme that acts via widespread protease-activated receptors (PARs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant...

    Correct

    • A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?

      Your Answer: aPTT

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.

      D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.

      A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.

      Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.

      Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.

      Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      65.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and has gone into a cardiogenic shock. As part of her treatment, she is prescribed a dobutamine infusion and placed on full haemodynamic monitoring.

      Over the next four days, her measurement are:

      Day1 Day2 Day3 Day4
      Infusion rate of dobutamine (mcg/kg/min): 5 10 15 25
      Cardiac output (L/min): 3.4 3.2 3.1 3.2
      Pulse rate (beats/min): 110 112 105 100
      Blood pressure (mmHg): 80/60 75/61 83/60 81/56

      Haemodynamic changes are noted as a result of response to treatment. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Tolerance by down-regulation of beta1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Tachyphylaxis is the swiftly declining response to successive drug doses which vastly reduces its effectiveness in a short space of time, mostly as a result of an acute consumption of neurotransmitters.

      Tolerance or desensitisation is the slow decline in a person’s reaction to a drug due to continued use. It requires a longer time span than tachyphylaxis, usually over days or weeks.

      Down- regulation is a reduction in the amount of receptors available on target cells which decreases the affinity of the agent to the cells. For this to occur, the down-regulation of receptors must occur at a rate faster than receptor synthesis. This down-regulation often occurs with beta1 receptors due to:

      1) The transportation or receptors from the cell surface to the interior of the cell

      2) Degradation of receptors occurring over time.

      In this case, dobutamine is prescribed to treat cardiogenic shock. It is able to function by binding to beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase the contraction of the heart, thereby improving cardiac output. It also binds to beta2- and alpha1-adrenergic receptors to balance out the effects produced by binding to beta1 receptors and reduce the risk of system vasculature responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      116.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into...

    Incorrect

    • A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 90

      Explanation:

      Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:
      7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.

      [A-]/[HA] = 0.1

      Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding pre-eclampsia with warning signs, which of the following laboratory tests is the...

    Correct

    • Regarding pre-eclampsia with warning signs, which of the following laboratory tests is the most appropriate to establish a platelet dysfunction or disorder?

      Your Answer: Platelet count

      Explanation:

      Decreased platelet concentrations with eclampsia were described as early as 1922 by Stancke. The platelet count is routinely measured in women with any form of gestational hypertension. The frequency and intensity of thrombocytopenia vary and are dependent on the severity and duration of the preeclampsia syndrome and the frequency with which platelet counts are performed.

      Overt thrombocytopenia defined by a platelet count < 100,000/microliter - indicates severe disease. In general, the lower the platelet count, the higher the rates of maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. In most cases, delivery is advisable because thrombocytopenia usually continues to worsen. After delivery, the platelet count may continue to decline for the first day or so. It then usually increases progressively to reach a normal level within 3-5 days. In some instances with HELLP syndrome, the platelet count continues to fall after delivery. If these do not reach a nadir until 48 to 72 hours, then preeclampsia syndrome may be incorrectly attributed to one of the thrombotic microangiopathies. The following are other severe features associated with preeclampsia: Proteinuria: >/= 300 mg/24 hours; or urine protein: creatinine ratio >/= 0.3; or dipstick 1+

      Renal insufficiency: serum creatinine > 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of creatinine in the absence of other renal disease

      Impaired liver function: two times elevated AST/ALT or unexplained right upper quadrant pain or epigastric pain unresponsive to medications

      Pulmonary oedema

      Cerebral or visual symptoms: headache, visual disturbances

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best describes it.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase, increases cGMP concentration leading to vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide (NO), an endothelial-derived relaxant factor (EDRF), is a powerful vasodilator. Its cell-signalling molecule is calcium-dependant and generated endogenous by nitric oxide synthetases from the precursor L-arginine, oxygen and NADPH. Three main isoforms have been isolated and they are inducible (iNO), neuronal (nNO) and endothelial (eNO).

      Endothelial NO stimulates intracellular guanylyl cyclase which generates cyclic GMP (cGMP) from its action on guanylyl tri-phosphate (GTP). The cGMP goes on to activate protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates cell membrane proteins that regulate intracellular calcium concentrations and level of calcium sensitisation.

      Smooth muscle vasodilatation results from:

      1. Light chain phosphatase activation.
      2. Inhibition of calcium entry into the cell (reducing Ca2+ concentrations) and
      3. Hyperpolarisation of cells by activation of H+ channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.

      History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.

      The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.

      Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.

      Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.

      When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.

      Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.

      Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.

      Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.

      A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from...

    Incorrect

    • What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from proximal to distal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs

      Explanation:

      The tracheobronchial tree is subdivided into the conducting and the respiratory zones.

      The zones from proximal to distal are:

      Trachea
      Bronchi
      Bronchioles
      Terminal bronchioles
      Respiratory bronchioles
      Alveolar ducts
      Alveolar sacs

      from the trachea to terminal bronchioles are the conducting zone while the respiratory zone is from the respiratory bronchioles to the alveola sacs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A study involving 64 patients of diabetes mellitus type 2 was performed. Weight...

    Incorrect

    • A study involving 64 patients of diabetes mellitus type 2 was performed. Weight of each patient was recorded and the mean weight of the patients was found to be 81 kg. The data set had a standard deviation of 12 kg.

      The value of standard error associated with the mean is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:

      Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
      = (12) / √(64)
      = 12 / 8
      = 1.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fentanyl is more potent than alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.

      Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.

      Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is true about Calcium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about Calcium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Only 1% of total body Calcium is found in the plasma

      Explanation:

      Only 1 percent of the calcium in the human body is found in the plasma where it performs the most critical functions.

      Out of this 1 percent, approximately 15% is complexed calcium bound to organic and inorganic anions, 40% is bound to albumin, and the remaining 45% circulates as free ionized calcium.

      The Chvostek sign is a clinical finding associated with hypocalcaemia, or low levels of calcium in the blood. This clinical sign refers to a twitch of the facial muscles that occurs when gently tapping an individual’s cheek, in front of the ear.

      Prolonged QT interval are associated with hypocalcaemia as reported in multiple studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The principal innervation of the small muscles of the hand is T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery...

    Incorrect

    • One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring.

      The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
      1. Lacrimal nerve
      2. Frontal nerve
      3. Superior ophthalmic vein
      4. Trochlear nerve
      5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      6. Nasociliary nerve*
      7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
      8. Abducent nerve*
      9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.

      The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.

      The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal effects due to its ability to cross the placenta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      It is well known that atropine will cross the placenta and that maternal administration results in an increase in fetal heart rate.

      Atropine is highly selective for muscarinic receptors. Its potency at nicotinic receptors is much lower, and actions at non-muscarinic receptors are generally undetectable clinically. Atropine does not distinguish among the M1, M2, and M3 subgroups of muscarinic receptors. In contrast, other antimuscarinic drugs are moderately selective for one or another of these subgroups. Most synthetic antimuscarinic drugs are considerably less selective than atropine in interactions with nonmuscarinic receptors.

      A study on glycopyrrolate, a quaternary ammonium salt, was found to have a fetal: maternal serum concentration ratio of 0.4 indicating partial transfer.

      Heparin, suxamethonium, and vecuronium do not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend...

    Incorrect

    • A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.

      Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
      1st Month 0
      2nd Month 3
      3rd Month 1
      4th Month 45
      5th Month 2
      6th Month 0
      7th Month 1
      8th Month 4
      9th Month 4
      10th Month 2

      Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.

      Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.

      The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.

      Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.

      In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more...

    Incorrect

    • It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more prone to developing gastric cancer. After 30 years of studying people with lower socio economic status, it was found that they did have a greater tendency to develop cancer. As a result of that the authors got to the conclusion that a strong association existed between the two. Later on another study conducted found that people from lower socio economic back grounds also had a tendency to be smokers.


      Which form of potential bias can be associated with this particular study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confounding bias

      Explanation:

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved and is often a result of in efficient recruiting method.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Measurement bias can be characterized by gathering of information in a manner that is distorted.

      When the participants of a research study are recruited from the hospitals rather than the general population, its called Berkson Bias.

      Confounding bias is the major player here because in this case the effects of smoking can be masked behind and can be read as outcomes of lower socio economic status. This extraneous factor (Smoking), distorts the founding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis of aortic dissection is made in the emergency department. In aortic dissection, which layers have blood flowing in between them?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media

      Explanation:

      The wall of an artery has three layers: (innermost to outermost)
      1. Tunica intima – in direct contact with the blood inside the vessel and contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions.
      2. Tunica media – contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
      3. Tunica adventitia – contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen.

      Aortic dissection is when a tear arises in the innermost layer of the aorta and penetrates through the tear, entering the media layer. The inner and middle layers of the aorta split (dissect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Incorrect

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/3) 67%
Anatomy (0/5) 0%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Clinical Measurement (1/1) 100%
Pathophysiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed