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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance?
Your Answer: The significance level (p) is always set to 5%
Correct Answer: The probability associated with a type I error is the significance level
Explanation:The null hypothesis states that there is no significant difference between two groups.
The alternative hypothesis states that there is a significant difference between two groups.
A type I error (false positive) occurs when a null hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.
A type II error (false negative) occurs when the alternative hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.
The probability determines the rejection of a null hypothesis.
The level of significance is set at p <0.05.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals.
Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.
Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.
Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.
Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.
Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.
Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal discharge with a distinct fishy odour. She was later diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis and was prescribed to take metronidazole.
The mechanism of action of metronidazole is?Your Answer: Interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis
Explanation:Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antiprotozoal drug that is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. Once taken up be anaerobes, it is nonenzymatically reduced by reacting with reduced ferredoxin. This reduction results in products that accumulate in and are toxic to anaerobic cells. The metabolites of metronidazole are taken up into bacterial DNA, forming unstable molecules. This action occurs only when metronidazole is partially reduced, and, because this reduction usually happens only in anaerobic cells, it has relatively little effect on human cells or aerobic bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.
Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?Your Answer: A CVP line
Correct Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A graph was plotted after administration of fentanyl infusion to a patient. The following are the x- and y-axis of the graph:
X-axis: Dose of fentanyl
Y-axis: Mu receptor occupancy, measured using positron emission tomography
Given the data above, what would be the best representation of the graph if the data on the x-axis are converted to logarithms?Your Answer: Wash-in exponential curve to a straight line
Correct Answer: Rectangular hyperbola to sigmoid curve
Explanation:The dose-response curve plots the graph of the dose (drug concentration) versus the response. As doses increase, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. This relation between drug concentration and effect is traditionally described by a hyperbolic curve. When the x-axis is plotted in log scale, the graph yields a sigmoid curve.
Efficacy (Emax) and potency (EC50) can be derived from this curve. Emax is the maximal effect achievable, with increasing concentration of a drug. EC50 is the concentration of the drug, wherein half of the maximal effect is achieved.
When the graph is plotted using a log [response/1-response] against log dose, the sigmoid curve becomes a straight line (Hill plot). A graph that transforms from a straight line to exponential curve is mathematically incorrect. A graph that transforms from either a wash-in or wash-out exponential curve to a straight line comes from an initial set of data plotted against time, to a logarithmic transformation of the initial data set against time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?
Your Answer: Is mainly excreted in the urine
Correct Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium
Explanation:Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.
It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.
Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement.
What kind of bias is in this experiment?Your Answer: Selection bias
Correct Answer: Lead time bias
Explanation:Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.
Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.
Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.
Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 8
Correct
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Which one is true with respect to the first rib?
Your Answer: Scalenus anterior is inserted onto the scalene tubercle
Explanation:Specific knowledge of the anatomical relationship is required to address this examination question.
The first rib is small and thick and contains a single facet that articulates at the costovertebral joint. It consist of a head, neck and shaft but a discrete angle is deficit. Along the side the shaft is indented with a groove for the subclavian artery and the lower brachial plexus trunk. Front to the scalene tubercle is a space for the subclavian vein.
The first rib has the scalenus front muscle joined to the scalene tubercle, isolating the subclavian vein (anteriorly) from the subclavian artery (posteriorly). This anatomical relationship is of major significance with respect to subclavian vein cannulation.
The 1st rib has the following relationships:
superior: lower trunk of the brachial plexus, subclavian vessels, clavicle.
inferior: intercostal vessels and nerves
posterior and inferior: pleura
anterior: sympathetic trunk (over neck)
superior intercostal artery, ventral T1 nerve root
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.
At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?Your Answer: 90
Explanation:Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.
The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.
To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.
pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])
or
pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.
In this example:
7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:
y = antilog x = 10x
Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.
[A-]/[HA] = 0.1
Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female is undergoing a lymph node biopsy from the posterior triangle of his neck.
What structure forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?Your Answer: Omohyoid muscle
Correct Answer: Trapezius muscle
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?
Your Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together
Explanation:There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.
Each half of the circle is formed by:
1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Anterior cerebral artery
3. Internal carotid artery
4. Posterior communicating artery
5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?
Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:
Your Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants
Explanation:Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.
Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine
Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. It is both anatomically and physiologically different from the parasympathetic nervous system.
Which best describes the anatomical layout of the sympathetic nervous system?Your Answer: Long myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter adrenaline or noradrenaline), short unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline)
Correct Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Explanation:The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. They are anatomically and physiologically different.
The sympathetic nervous system arises from the thoracolumbar outflow (T1-L5 ) at the lateral horns of grey matter of the spinal cord. Their preganglionic neurones are usually short myelinated and synapse in ganglia lateral to the vertebral column and have acetyl choline (Ach) as the neurotransmitter. Their postganglionic neurones are longer and unmyelinated and synapse with effector organ where the neurotransmitter is either adrenaline or noradrenaline.
The outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system is craniosacral. The cranial part originates from the midbrain and medulla (cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X) and the sacral outflow is from S2, S3 and S4. Their preganglionic neurones are usually long myelinated and synapse in ganglia close to the target organ and has Ach as its neurotransmitter. The unmyelinated postganglionic neurones is shorter and they synapse with effector organ. The neurotransmitter here is also Ach.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. Only the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are cholinergic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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Regarding the anatomical relations of the first rib, one of the following is right
Your Answer: The subclavius muscle attaches to the upper surface
Explanation:The first rib is an atypical rib. It is short, wide, and flattened and lies in an oblique plane.
It has a small scalene tubercle on its medial border which marks the point of attachment of scalenus anterior. The lower surface lies on the pleura and is smooth.
The tubercle on the upper surface separates an anterior groove for the subclavian vein and a posterior groove for the subclavian artery and lower trunk of the brachial plexus.
Scalenus medius is attached to a roughened area posterior to the groove for the subclavian artery.
The upper surface gives attachment anteriorly to the subclavius muscle and costoclavicular ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function.
Which of the following is the most accurate marker for glomerular filtration rate measurement?Your Answer: Inulin
Explanation:The perfect glomerular filtration marker is:
The human body is not harmed by it.
Chemical or physical methods are used to accurately measure
Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is freely and evenly diffusible.
Inability to access the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment
Filtration in the kidney is the only way to remove it from the blood.The ideal marker should not be reabsorbed into the bloodstream by the renal tubules or other urinary system components.
Creatinine is an endogenous substance that is filtered freely by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule. As a result, creatinine clearance consistently underestimates GFR. In healthy people, this overestimation ranges from 10% to 40%, but it is higher and more unpredictable in patients with chronic kidney disease.
The gold standard method of inulin clearance necessitates an intravenous infusion and several hours of timed urine collection, making it costly and time-consuming. Inulin is hard to come by and is difficult to mix and keep as a solution.
Exogenous filtration markers include the following:
Although plasma clearance of 51chromium EDTA is a widely used method in Europe, tubular reabsorption can occur.
Because 125I-iothalamate can be excreted by renal tubules in the urine, it cannot be used in patients who have an iodine assay.Radioactive substances must be stored, administered, and disposed of according to these methods.
The glomerulus filters para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) freely, and any that remains in the peritubular capillaries is secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules. This marker is used to determine the amount of blood flowing through the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is true?
Your Answer: Third degree heart block causes canon A waves
Explanation:The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:
A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.
C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.
X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.
V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.
Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.
Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The prostate and the rectum are separated by which anatomical plane?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Denonvilliers fascia
Explanation:The prostate is separated from the rectum by the Denonvilliers fascia (rectoprostatic fascia).
Waldeyers fascia functions to separate the rectum and the sacrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?
Your Answer: Mean
Explanation:Mean, also known as the average, is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation. It is not useful for skewed data, which has an abnormal distribution. It is useful, instead, for numerical data that have symmetric distribution. It reflects the contributions of each data in the group, and are sensitive to outliers.
The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers. Unlike the mean, the median is useful on skewed data, and can be used for ordinal or numerical data if skewed.
The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is utilized for bimodal distribution.
The variance and the standard deviation are not measures of central tendency, but of dispersion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit?
Your Answer: A gram is the unit of mass
Correct Answer: A metre is the unit of length
Explanation:The international system of units, or system international d’unites (SI) is a collection of measurements derived from expanding the metric system.
There are seven base units, which are:
Metre (m): a unit of length
Second (s): a unit of time
Kilogram (kg): a unit of mass
Ampere (A): a unit of electrical current
Kelvin (K): a unit of thermodynamic temperature
Candela (cd): a unit of luminous intensity
Mole (mol): a unit of substance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 22
Correct
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When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas.
Which of its property is responsible for this?
Your Answer: Critical temperature
Explanation:The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C
The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.
The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.
There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.
Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?
Your Answer: Static response
Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response
Explanation:The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:Zero-order:
Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.First-order:
Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.Second-order
Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up at the diabetic foot clinic. The pulses of her feet are examined. The posterior tibial pulse and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpated.
Which of the following artery continues as the dorsalis pedis artery?Your Answer: Anterior tibial artery
Explanation:At the ankle joint, midway between the malleoli, the anterior tibial artery changes names, becoming the dorsalis pedis artery (dorsal artery of the foot).
The dorsalis pedis artery is palpated against the underlying tarsals, immediately lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus, from the midpoint between the malleoli to the proximal end of the first intermetatarsal space.
The popliteal artery forms the anterior tibial artery.
The tibioperoneal trunk is a branch of the popliteal artery.
The peroneal artery (also known as the fibular artery) supplies the lateral compartment of the leg.
The external iliac artery is formed from the common iliac artery at the level of the pelvis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.
Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.
The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.
The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Correct
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All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:
Your Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presented with significant proteinuria and severe headache. On examination, the blood pressure recorded was consistently raised at 190/110. Subsequently, she was admitted to the labour ward as a case of pre-eclampsia.
A loading dose of IV magnesium sulphate 4g is given, followed by a 1g/hour infusion.
The most suitable parameter to access magnesium toxicity is?Your Answer: Muscle power
Correct Answer: Tendon reflexes
Explanation:Magnesium is a very important cation due to its various physiological roles in the body. This includes:
– playing the role of a cofactor in many enzymatic reactions
– influencing hormone receptor binding
– affecting calcium channels
– impact on cardiac, vascular and neural cellsMagnesium sulphate is used as first line in the treatment of eclampsia. Moreover, it has some preventive role in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. All the clinical effects of magnesium are in line with its plasma concentration.
The first sign of magnesium toxicity in obstetric patients is the loss of patellar reflex, which is regularly monitored during treatment. The other options are all late signs of magnesium toxicity.
Whenever there is a doubt, serum magnesium levels should always be monitored.
The table below correlates the effects of increased levels of magnesium on the body:
Plasma Concentration
(mmol/L) Effect
0.7-1.2 Normal
4-8 Decreased deep tendon reflexes, nausea, headache, weakness, malaise, lethargy and facial flushing
5-10 ECG changes (prolonged PR, prolonged QT, and widened QRS)
10 Muscle weakness, loss of deep tendon reflexes, hypotension
15 SA/AV nodal block, respiratory paralysis and depression
20 Cardiac arrest -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 28
Correct
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Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:
Your Answer: Utilises null deflection
Explanation:The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.
It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo a femoro-popliteal bypass graft, for which he has been administered a spinal-epidural anaesthetic. Intrathecal heavy bupivacaine (0.5%) was injected at L3-4 with good effect. On insertion of the epidural catheter, he remained asymptomatic.
During surgery, 5000 I.U. of IV heparin was given. The surgery is successful and required no epidural top-ups.
Six hours later, he complains of a severe back pain with weakness in his lower limbs.
What is the most important first step?Your Answer: Refer the patient to a neurologist
Correct Answer: A full neurological examination to establish the nature of the problem
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.
The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.
The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.
Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.
A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:
Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
Cauda equina syndrome
Paralysis of the lower extremities.
If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
Meningism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following bias is more prone to case-control studies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall bias
Explanation:Omitted variable bias occurs when a statistician passes over one or more relevant variables from the study.
Publication bias occurs in publish academic research. it occurs when the results of the study effect the decision whether to publish or not.
Expectation bias occurs when the expectation of a researcher about the results effect the behaviour of the participants. Expectations may come from communication and experiences.
Work up bias occurs in the study of diagnostic test validity, whether a gold standard procedure has been used. work up bias can seriously affect the specificity of the test.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status. Recall bias is more potential for Case-control studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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