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  • Question 1 - Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of:

      Your Answer: 5.0–8.5 m/s

      Correct Answer: 1.5–4.0 m/s

      Explanation:

      Purkinje fibres control the heart rate along with the sinoatrial node (SA node) and the atrioventricular node (AV node). The QRS complex is associated with the impulse passing through the Purkinje fibres. These fibres conduct action potential about six times faster than the velocity in normal cardiac muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of...

    Correct

    • Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of 130/70 mm HG and cardiac output of 5 litres / min?

      Your Answer: 18 mmHg × min/l

      Explanation:

      Total peripheral resistance = Mean arterial pressure/Cardiac output. And the mean arterial pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure), i.e., 70 + 1/3 (130-70) = 90 mmHg. Therefore, total peripheral resistance = 90 mmHg/5 l per min = 18 mmHg × min/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      326.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when...

    Correct

    • Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when they pass through capillaries?

      Your Answer: Spectrin

      Explanation:

      Spectrin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton that lines the intercellular side of the membrane of cells which include RBCs. They maintain the integrity and structure of the cell. It is arranged into a hexagonal arrangement formed from tetramers of spectrin and associated with short actin filaments that form junctions allowing the RBC to distort its shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas, and obstructive jaundice presents with a spontaneous nose bleed and easy bruising. What is the most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Vitamin-K-dependent clotting factors deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin requiring fat metabolism to function properly to allow for its absorption. People with obstructive jaundice develop vitamin k deficiency as fat digestion is impaired. Vit K causes carboxylation of glutamate residue and hence regulates blood coagulation including: prothrombin (factor II), factors VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S and protein Z.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen on ingestion of a...

    Correct

    • Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen on ingestion of a fatty meal is seen in a condition which involves which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario described here favours the presence of gallstones. During food ingestion, vagal discharges stimulate gallbladder contraction. Moreover, presence of fat and amino acids in the intestinal lumen stimulates the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the duodenum. This causes sustained gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. If gallstones are present, there will be inflammation in the gallbladder and CCK will aggravate it due to contractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic normochromic anaemia. What is the best treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      E erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that is released by the kidney. It is responsible for the regulation of red blood cell production in the body. It can be made using recombinant technology and is used in the treatment of anaemia of chronic renal failure and in patients under going chemotherapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In which of the following conditions will the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following conditions will the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve shift to the right?

      Your Answer: Decrease in 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG)

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve plots saturated haemoglobin against the oxygen tension and is usually a sigmoid plot. Each molecule of haemoglobin can bind to four molecules of oxygen reversibly. Factors that can influence the binding include: pH, concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG), temperature, type of haemoglobin molecules, and presence of toxins, especially carbon monoxide. Shape of the curve is due to interaction of bound oxygen molecules with the incoming molecules. The binding of first molecule is difficult, with easier binding of the second and third molecule and increase in difficulty with the fourth molecule – partly as a result of crowding and partly as a natural tendency of oxygen to dissociate.

      Left shift of curve indicates haemoglobin’s increased affinity for oxygen (seen at lungs). Right shift indicates decreased affinity and is seen with an increase in body temperature, hydrogen ions, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG), carbon dioxide concentration and exercise. Under normal resting conditions in a healthy individual, the normal position of the curve is at a pH of 7.4. A shift in the position of the curve with a change in pH is called the Bohr effect. Left shift occurs in acute alkalosis, decrease in p(CO2), decrease in temperature and decrease in 2,3-DPG. The fetal haemoglobin curve is to the left of the adult haemoglobin to allow for oxygen diffusion across the placenta. The curve for myoglobin is even further to the left. Carbon monoxide has a much higher affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen does. Thus, carbon monoxide poisoning leads to hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is...

    Correct

    • A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides?

      Your Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Created by the small intestinal cells, chylomicrons are large lipoprotein molecules which transport lipids to the liver, adipose, cardiac and skeletal tissue. Chylomicrons are mainly composed of triglycerides (,85%) along with some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. Apo B-48 is the main apolipoprotein content.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - what is the cause of a prolonged PT(prothrombin time)? ...

    Incorrect

    • what is the cause of a prolonged PT(prothrombin time)?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Correct Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      PT measure the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It determines the measure of the warfarin dose regime, liver disease and vit K deficiency status along with the clotting tendency of blood. PT measured factors are II,V,VII,X and fibrinogen. It is used along with aPTT which measure the intrinsic pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In a hypertensive patient with secondary hyperaldosteronism, aldosterone is released mainly in response...

    Correct

    • In a hypertensive patient with secondary hyperaldosteronism, aldosterone is released mainly in response to:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Secondary hyperaldosteronism in hypertension is either due to primary renin overproduction by the kidneys or renin overproduction secondary to decreased renal blood flow. The main stimulus for aldosterone release are adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), angiotensin II and high plasma K+ levels. Low plasma Na+ might also stimulate the adrenal cortex. Fluid overload will reduce aldosterone secretion. Atrial natriuretic peptide is secreted under conditions of expanded extracellular volume and will not lead to aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is not one of them?

      Your Answer: Factor I

      Correct Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Serine protease coagulation factors include: thrombin, plasmin, Factors X, XI and XII. Factor VIII and factor V are glycoproteins and factor XIII is a transglutaminase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count =...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 90 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 41 g/dl. Further examination of blood sample revealed increased osmotic fragility of the erythrocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?

      Your Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Spherocytes are small rounded RBCs. It is due to an inherited defect of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins. Membrane blebs form that are lost over time and cells become round instead of biconcave. As it is a normochromic anaemia, the MCV is normal. it is diagnosed by osmotic fragility test which reveals increased fragility in a hypotonic solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change...

    Incorrect

    • As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change the resistance of the vessel from 16 peripheral resistance units (PRU) to:

      Your Answer: 4 PRU

      Correct Answer: 1 PRU

      Explanation:

      Poiseuille-Hagen formula for flow in along narrow tube states that F = (PA– PB) × (Π/8) × (1/η) × (r4/l) where F = flow, PA– PB = pressure difference between the two ends of the tube, η = viscosity, r = radius of tube and L = length of tube. Also, flow is given by pressure difference divided by resistance. Hence, R = 8ηL ÷ Πr4. Hence, the resistance of the vessel changes in inverse proportion to the fourth power of the diameter. So, if the diameter of the vessel is increased to twice the original, it will lead to decrease in resistance to one-sixteenth its initial value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following substances is most likely to cause pulmonary vasodilatation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following substances is most likely to cause pulmonary vasodilatation?

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      In the body, nitric oxide is synthesised from arginine and oxygen by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and by sequential reduction of inorganic nitrate. The endothelium of blood vessels uses nitric oxide to signal the surrounding smooth muscle to relax, so dilating the artery and increasing blood flow. Nitric oxide/oxygen blends are used in critical care to promote capillary and pulmonary dilation to treat primary pulmonary hypertension in neonatal patients post-meconium aspiration and related to birth defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood group is not known, but on testing it clotted when mixed with Type A antibodies. Which blood should be transfused?

      Your Answer: A-ve

      Correct Answer: B +ve

      Explanation:

      There are two stages to determine the blood group, known as ABO typing. The first stage is called forward typing. In this method, RBCs are mixed with two separate solutions of type A or type B antibodies to see if they agglutinate. If this blood clumps, this indicates the presence of antigens within the blood sample. For example, a sample of type B blood will clump when tested with type A antibodies as it contains type B antigens. Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)

      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. Those who have not are called Rh–. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. The patient’s blood group is B positive as he has antigen B, antibody A and Rh antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Ventricular filling follows a delay caused by? ...

    Correct

    • Ventricular filling follows a delay caused by?

      Your Answer: AV node

      Explanation:

      The AV node is a conducting tissue found between the atria and the ventricles of the heart. It conducts electrical signal from the atria to the ventricles and acts a delaying mechanism preventing the atria and the ventricles from contracting at the same time. This decremental conduction prevents premature ventricular contraction in cases such as atrial fibrillation. A delay in the AV node is the reason for the PR segment seen on the ECG. In certain types of supraventricular tachycardia, a person could have two AV nodes; this will cause a loop in electrical current and uncontrollably rapid heart beat. When this electricity catches up with itself, it will dissipate and return to a normal heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of...

    Incorrect

    • A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Low neutrophil count

      Correct Answer: High platelet count

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that results in an increase in the total number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It can be due to a myeloproliferative syndrome, chronically low oxygen levels or rarely malignancy. In primary polycythaemia/ polycythaemia vera the increase is due to an abnormality in the bone marrow, resulting in increased RBCs, white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. In secondary polycythaemia the increase occurs due to high levels of erythropoietin either artificially or naturally. The increase is about 6-8 million/cm3 of blood. A type of secondary polycythaemia is physiological polycythaemia where people living in high altitudes who are exposed to hypoxic conditions produce more erythropoietin as a compensatory mechanism for thin oxygen and low oxygen partial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 55 year old lady underwent an uneventful appendicectomy. Two hours later, her...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old lady underwent an uneventful appendicectomy. Two hours later, her arterial blood gas analysis on room revealed pH: 7.30, p(CO2): 53 mmHg and p(O2): 79 mmHg. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Alveolar hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      In the given problem, there is respiratory acidosis due to hypercapnia from a low respiratory rate and/or volume (hypoventilation). Causes of hypoventilation include conditions impairing the central nervous system (CNS) respiratory drive, impaired neuromuscular transmission and other causes of muscular weakness (drugs and sedatives), along with obstructive, restrictive and parenchymal pulmonary disorders. Hypoventilation leads to hypoxia and hypercapnia reduces the arterial pH. Severe acidosis leads to pulmonary arteriolar vasoconstriction, systemic vascular dilatation, reduced myocardial contractility, hyperkalaemia, hypotension and cardiac irritability resulting in arrhythmias. Raised carbon dioxide concentration also causes cerebral vasodilatation and raised intracranial pressure. Over time, buffering and renal compensation occurs. However, this might not be seen in acute scenarios where the rise in p(CO2) occurs rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      60.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Renin is secreted by pericytes in the vicinity of the afferent arterioles of the...

    Correct

    • Renin is secreted by pericytes in the vicinity of the afferent arterioles of the kidney from the juxtaglomerular cells. Plasma renin levels are decreased in patients with:

      Your Answer: Primary aldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Primary aldosteronism, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome, is excess production of the hormone aldosterone by the adrenal glands resulting in low renin levels. Most patients with primary aldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome) have an adrenal adenoma. The increased plasma aldosterone concentration leads to increased renal Na+ reabsorption, which results in plasma volume expansion. The increase in plasma volume suppresses renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus and these patients usually have low plasma renin levels. Salt restriction and upright posture decrease renal perfusion pressure and therefore increases renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus. Secondary aldosteronism is due to elevated renin levels and may be caused by heart failure or renal artery stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      375
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:...

    Correct

    • Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:

      Heart rate 70 beats/min

      Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min

      Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi

      Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min

      Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg

      Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg

      Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer: 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) = (Mean pulmonary artery pressure – Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) divided by Cardiac output. To get cardiac output, Fick’s principle needs to be applied which states that VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CA = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. To calculate mean pulmonary artery pressure, we use the formula: Mean pulmonary artery pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure). Thus, Mean pulmonary artery pressure = 15 + 1/3(25 – 15) = 15 + 3. 33 = 18.33. Substituting these values in the first formula, PVR = 18.3–5/6.25 = 13.5/5.25 = 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min) approximately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      418.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 54-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. The...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. The patient’s renal excretion of potassium would be expected to:

      Your Answer: Fall, since tubular secretion of potassium is inversely coupled to acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Respiratory acidosis is a medical emergency in which decreased ventilation (hypoventilation) increases the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood and decreases the blood’s pH (a condition generally called acidosis). Secretion of acid and potassium by the renal tubule are inversely related. So, increased excretion of H+ during renal compensation for respiratory acidosis will result in decreased secretion (or increased retention) of potassium ions, with the result that the body’s potassium store rises. An increase in K+ excretion would be associated with renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. The filtered load of K+depends only on K+ plasma concentration and glomerular filtration rate, not on plasma pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic...

    Correct

    • Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) showed the following: pH = 7.28, p(CO2) = 65.5 mmHg, p(O2)= 60 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 30.5 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and normal standard bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, commonly seen in acute worsening of COPD patients. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with a low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?...

    Correct

    • The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?

      Your Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

      Explanation:

      One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      78.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form? ...

    Correct

    • Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in various forms:

      – Bicarbonate (80–90%)

      – Carbamino compounds (5–10%)

      – Physically dissolved in solution (5%).

      Carbon dioxide is carried on the haemoglobin molecule as carbamino-haemoglobin; carboxyhaemoglobin is the combination of haemoglobin with carbon monoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory; Cardiovascular
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the...

    Correct

    • Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the heart will lead to:

      Your Answer: Increased PR interval

      Explanation:

      AV node damage may lead to an increase in the PR interval to as high as 0.25 – 0.40 s (normal = 0.12 – 0.20 s). In the case of severe impairment, there might be a complete failure of passage of impulses leading to complete block. In this case, the atria and ventricles will beat independently of each other.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.

      Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include: ...

    Correct

    • Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include:

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Excess acid intake and excess bicarbonate loss as in diarrhoea, are causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. The other conditions all result in an increased anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (4/6) 67%
Physiology (23/30) 77%
General (6/10) 60%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (3/4) 75%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Respiratory; Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Passmed