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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast that presented after a car accident 2 weeks ago. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Since the car crash happened two weeks prior, breast trauma is suggested and thus fat necrosis is the most probable diagnosis. Phyllodes tumours are typically a firm, palpable mass. These tumours are very fast-growing, and can increase in size in just a few weeks. Occurrence is most common between the ages of 40 and 50, prior to menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Correct

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone?

      Your Answer: Testosterone

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      The Leydig cells contain receptors to the luteinizing hormone which in turn is responsible for the production of testosterone. This circulates in the body predominantly bound to transport proteins and to a lesser extent to albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter? ...

    Correct

    • Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter?

      Your Answer: Pelvic Splanchnic

      Explanation:

      The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle or involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The typical female breast contains how many lobes? ...

    Correct

    • The typical female breast contains how many lobes?

      Your Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What percentage of cervical cancers are HPV related? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of cervical cancers are HPV related?

      Your Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      99.7% of cervical cancers among women are related to Human Papilloma virus infection (HPV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Under the influence of prolactin, oestrogen and progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL), the mammary epithelium proliferates but remains presecretory during mammogenesis. Lactogenesis is inhibited by high circulating levels of progesterone and oestrogen which block cortisol binding sites. Cortisol would have otherwise have worked synergistically with prolactin in milk production. A sharp decrease in progesterone levels after delivery allows prolactin and oxytocin to stimulate milk production and the milk ejection reflex in response to suckling. Prolactin continues to maintain milk production in galactopoiesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy:

      Your Answer: Thyroxin-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Thyroid function in pregnancy is altered in two ways; the circulating levels of the thyroid binding proteins are increased, resulting in an increase in the total circulating levels of thyroid hormones (but a slight fall in the free component).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600 ml at 40 weeks of gestation.

      On examination, her vital signs were found to be stable, with a tender abdomen and there were no fetal heart sounds heard on auscultation.

      Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Urgent cesarean section

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is commonly defined as the premature separation of the placenta, which complicates approximately 1% of births. During the second half of pregnancy abruption is considered an important cause for vaginal bleeding and is mostly associated with significant perinatal mortality and morbidity.
      Clinical presentation of abruption varies from asymptomatic cases to those complicated with fetal death and severe maternal morbidity. Classical symptoms of placental abruption are vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, but at times severe cases might occur with neither or just of one of these signs. In some cases the amount of vaginal bleeding may not correlates with the degree of abruption, this is because the severity of symptoms is always depend on the location of abruption, whether it is revealed or concealed and the degree of abruption.
      Diagnosis of abruption is clinical and the condition should be suspected in every women who presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both, with a history of trauma, and in those women who present with an unexplained preterm labor. All causes of abdominal pain and bleeding, like placenta previa, appendicitis, urinary tract infections, preterm labor, fibroid degeneration, ovarian pathology and muscular pain are considered as differential diagnosis of abruption.

      In the given case patient has developed signs and symptoms of placental abruption, like severe vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain, whose management depends on its presentation, gestational age and the degree of maternal and fetal compromise. As the presentation is widely variable, it is important to individualize the management on a case-by-case basis. More aggressive management is desirable in cases of severe abruption, which is not appropriate in milder cases of abruption. In cases of severe abruption with fetal death, as seen in the given case, it is reasonable to allow the patient to have a vaginal delivery,regardless of gestational age, as long as the mother is stable and there are no other contraindications.
      The uterus is contracting vigorously, and labor occurs rapidly and progresses, so amniotomy is mostly sufficient to speed up delivery. There is a significant risk for coagulopathy and hypovolemic shock so intravenous access should be established with aggressive replacement of blood and coagulation factors. Meticulous attention should be paid to the amount of blood loss; general investigations like complete blood count, coagulation studies and type and crossmatch should be done and the blood bank should be informed of the potential for coagulopathy. A Foley catheter should be placed and an hourly urine output should be monitored.
      It is prudent to involve an anesthesiologist in the patient’s care, because if labor does not progress rapidly as in cases like feto-pelvic disproportion, fetal malpresentation, or a prior classical cesarean delivery, it will be necessary to conduct a cesarean delivery to avoid worsening of the coagulopathy.
      Bleeding from surgical incisions in the presence of DIC may be difficult to control, and it is equally important to stabilize the patient and to correct any coagulation derangement occuring during surgery. The patient should be monitored closely after delivery, with particular attention paid to her vital signs, amount of blood loss, and urine output. In addition, the uterus should be observed closely to ensure that it remains contracted and is not increasing in size.
      Immediate delivery is indicated in cases of abruption at term or near term with a live fetus. In such cases the main question is whether vaginal delivery can be achieved without fetal or maternal death or severe morbidity. In cases where there is evidence of fetal compromise, delivery is not imminent and cesarean delivery should be performed promptly, because total placental detachment could occur without warning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur? ...

    Correct

    • In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur?

      Your Answer: 24-36 hours before ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation usually occurs on day 14 in a typical 28-day cycle. Luteinizing hormone levels spike as a result of increased oestrogen levels secreted from maturing follicles. This LH spike occurs about 24-36 hours before the release of the oocyte from the mature follicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE?

      Your Answer: It arises from the internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the internal iliac artery, in particular the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. Some older texts refer to the internal iliac as the hypogastric artery. The vaginal artery typically arises as its own branch of the internal iliac artery. The ovarian arteries are branches of the aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In pregnancy, the following lung function value remains unchanged: ...

    Correct

    • In pregnancy, the following lung function value remains unchanged:

      Your Answer: FEV1

      Explanation:

      The biochemical and mechanical effects of progesterone and the enlarging uterus are responsible for some changes in lung function during pregnancy.

      Progesterone increases the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to arterial carbon dioxide while also causing hyperaemia in the airway leading to nasal obstruction. As a result, minute ventilation and tidal volume increase by 50% to allow greater arterial oxygen saturation.

      The enlarging uterus displaces the diaphragm upwards, and also limits the movement of the thoracic cage, thereby decreasing the functional residual capacity (FRC) and the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) by 20%.

      Functional Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) and Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) remain unchanged in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates...

    Correct

    • During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?

      Your Answer: Tissue Factor

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?

      Your Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
      Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
      Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.

      Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
      GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.

      Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
      If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following does not cause an increased risk of cervical cancer?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not cause an increased risk of cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Consuming alcohol and risk of cervical cancer are not associated. Not even drinking often and in large amounts are risk factors for developing cervical cancer.

      So drinking alcohol and risk of cervical cancer aren’t associated. Based on their analyses of the scientific research evidence, that is the conclusion of, among many others, the:
      American Cancer Society.
      Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
      National Cancer Institute.
      UK’s National Health Service.
      Canadian Cancer Society.
      Cancer Council Australia.
      World Health Organization (WHO).

      All other options can increase the risk of acquiring cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except?

      Your Answer: The earlier the episiotomy is done during delivery, generally the more beneficial it will be in speeding up delivery

      Explanation:

      The best time of the episiotomy is when the presenting part becomes visible during the contractions. If the episiotomy is performed at the proper time, less time will be required for the delivery. However, if its done too late, it causes excessive stretching of the pelvic floor and further potential lacerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Correct

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings.

      Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 22-year-old woman walks into your clinic. She had no menstrual cycles. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman walks into your clinic. She had no menstrual cycles. Her genital development appears to be within the usual range. The uterus and fallopian tubes are normal on a pelvic ultrasound. Ovaries have no follicles and just a little quantity of connective tissue.

      What do you think the most likely reason for her amenorrhea is?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamic lesion

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome is the clinical diagnosis for this patient. Turner syndrome affects women who are lacking all of one X chromosome (45, characterized by X gonadal dysgenesis).
      Turner Syndrome is characterized by small stature and non-functioning ovaries, resulting in infertility and lack of sexual development. Other sexual and reproductive organs (uterus and vagina) are normal despite the inadequate or missing ovarian activity.

      Webbing of the neck, puffy hands and feet, coarctation of the aorta, and cardiac anomalies are all physical symptoms of Turner Syndrome. Streak gonads are also a feature of Turner syndrome.

      The ovaries are replaced with fibrous tissue and do not produce much oestrogen, resulting in amenorrhea.

      Until puberty, when oestrogen-induced maturation fails, the external female genitalia, uterus, and fallopian tubes develop normally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old primigravid woman, 34 weeks of gestation, came in for a routine blood test. Her platelet count is noted at 75x109/L (normal range is 150-400) . Which of the following can best explain the thrombocytopenia of this patient?

      Your Answer: Incidental thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      Incidental thrombocytopenia of pregnancy is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. The platelet count finding in this case is of little concern unless it falls below 50×109/L.

      Immune thrombocytopenia is a less common cause of thrombocytopenia in pregnancy. The anti-platelet antibodies cam cross the placenta and pose a problem both to the mother and the foetus. Profound thrombocytopenia in the baby is a common finding of this condition.

      Thrombocytopenia can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. However, it is usually seen concurrent with other signs of severe disease.

      Maternal antibodies that target the baby’s platelets can rarely cause thrombocytopenia in the mother. Instead, it can lead to severe coagulation and bleeding complications in the baby as a result of profound thrombocytopenia.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus is unlikely to explain the thrombocytopenia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks you if this will be permanent. What percentage of babies will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: <10%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      of cases there is no permanent neurological disability. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy (Erb-Duchenne palsy) where there is injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus (C5 to T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following has been shown to increase ovarian cancer risk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has been shown to increase ovarian cancer risk?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hormone replacement therapy (oestrogen only)

      Explanation:

      Factors that increase the risk of ovarian cancer include nulliparity, IUD, endometriosis, cigarette smoking, HRT and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). According to NICE guidelines after what time period should induction be offered?

      Your Answer: 48 hours

      Correct Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Induction of labour is appropriate approximately 24 hours after rupture of the membranes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her menstrual cycle should blood be collected for progesterone, if she has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Day 21

      Explanation:

      Maximum levels of progesterone are detected at day 21 of 28 days in the menstrual cycle, assuming that ovulation has occurred at day 14. A value of >30nmol/l indicates an ovulatory cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every: ...

    Correct

    • In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      During early pregnancy, hCG can be detected in the maternal serum as early as 6 to 8 days after fertilization. hCG levels are dynamically increased and doubled every 48 h in most normal pregnancies, and this pattern is similar in both in vivo or in vitro (IVF) conceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - After a vaginal delivery, a patient suffers a perineal tear. On examination the...

    Correct

    • After a vaginal delivery, a patient suffers a perineal tear. On examination the laceration involves the external anal sphincter and has partially torn the internal anal sphincter. Which of the following classifies this tear?

      Your Answer: 3c

      Explanation:

      During childbearing the vagina and perineum are prone to lacerations that may involve the skin or can extend into the anal sphincter complex. It is important to be able to identify obstetric and anal sphincter injuries to provide adequate care and prevent complications. In the classification of obstetric tears according to RCOG guidelines:

      First degree tear: injury to the perineal skin and/or the vaginal mucosa
      Second degree tears: Injury to perineum involving perineal muscles but not the anal sphincter.
      Third-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex:
      Grade 3a tear: Less than 50% of external anal sphincter (EAS) thickness torn.
      Grade 3b tear: More than 50% of EAS thickness torn.
      Grade 3c tear: Both EAS and internal anal sphincter (IAS) torn.
      Fourth-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS)
      and anorectal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has...

    Incorrect

    • A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 2 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 45%

      Explanation:

      The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 2 gene is 45% and of ovarian cancer is 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type...

    Correct

    • Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

      Your Answer: Endocrine

      Explanation:

      Hormones that are secreted into the circulation at one site but have effects on distal target organs are endocrine as is the case with the hormones above. Autocrine and Intracrine messengers act within the same cell. Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts. Apocrine is a histological term used to describe some types of exocrine gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital thrombophilia is Factor V Leiden mutation. Other congenital causes are JAK-2 mutations and the Prothrombin G20210A mutation. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 and antiphospholipid syndrome is not congenital it is an acquired thrombophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids? ...

    Correct

    • Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk factors of fibroids include early menarche, nulliparity, early exposure to oral contraceptives (one study showed 13-16 years old), diet rich in red meats and alcohol, vitamin D deficiency, hypertension, obesity, and/or history of sexual or physical abuse.

      Smoking is associated with actual reduced risk due to an unknown mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is:

      Your Answer: Ovarian enlargement

      Correct Answer: Early abortion

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase defect is an ovulatory disorder of considerable clinical importance that is implicated in infertility and recurrent spontaneous abortion. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 1 in 1,000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.

      Explanation:

      The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
      Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.

      From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Woman with preterm labour and unknown Group B streptococcus status should have a rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococcus culture

      Correct Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage

      Explanation:

      A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour

      If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.

      Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.

      No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.

      Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
      All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of?

      Your Answer: < 5 cm

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      AFI involves measuring the depth of amniotic fluid pockets in all 4 quadrants.
      Oligohydramnios AFI< 5cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket < 2cm
      Polyhydramnios AFI > 25cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket > 8cm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.

      Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What is the main biochemical buffer in urine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in urine?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate and ammonia are the major urinary buffers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - What is the mode of inheritance of beta Thalassemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of inheritance of beta Thalassemia?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Beta Thalassaemia is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge....

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The treatment of Chlamydia includes avoidance of intercourse, use of condoms and antibiotic treatment. Erythromycin 500mg orally QID for 7 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7 days or Ofloxacin 200mg orally BD for 7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to...

    Incorrect

    • On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to your clinic with slight lower abdomen pain. She has no children and lives with her male companion. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, her pulse is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.5°C.

      On vaginal examination, no adnexal lump is palpated, however cervical motion pain is noticed.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasonography

      Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for culture

      Explanation:

      Pain upon movement of the cervix with the health care provider’s gloved fingers is suggestive of an inflammatory process of the pelvic organs. CMT, when present, is classically found on bimanual examination of the cervix and uterus. While CMT is often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease, it can be present in other disease entities such as ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, appendicitis, and perforated abdominal viscus.

      PID is not a singular disease entity but describes a spectrum of disease. It is an upper genital tract infection, which may affect the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and peritoneum. PID can begin as cervicitis, progress to endometritis, followed by involvement of the fallopian tubes as pyosalpinx, and ultimately involve the ovary as a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). The two most common causative pathogens are N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis although the infection is often polymicrobial.

      Documentation of infection with either of these two organisms must be done by cervical swabs for culture.

      Transvaginal ultrasound or CT scan can be done to confirm diagnosis however the absence of findings in these investigations doesn’t rule out the possibility of PID.

      Urinalysis can be done to exclude urinary tract infection, one of the possible differential diagnosis for PID.

      Thyroid stimulating hormone has no role in the diagnosis of PID.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work. 

      Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction. There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect.  Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta. 

      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?

      Your Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?

      Explanation:

      SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
      – Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
      – Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
      – Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
      – Knowledge:
      Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
      – Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
      – Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.

      The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases.  In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal.  When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
      The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with.  For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later.  The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.

      These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.

      This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.

      This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.

      While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously normal and regular. She is planned for an assessment of her FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and oestradiol (E2) levels.

      Assuming she has attained menopause, which pattern would most likely be found?

      Your Answer: High FSH and low E2.

      Explanation:

      High FSH and low E2 levels would be expected in menopause. FSH levels would be raised as her body attempts to stimulate ovarian activity and E2 would be low due to reduced ovarian function. The other options would be possible if she was younger, and if occurring with amenorrhea, would warrant further hormonal tests.

      It is often challenging to interpret hormone test results close to the time of menopause, especially if the woman is still experiencing irregular menstruation, as remaining ovarian follicles might still produce oestrogen, causing both bleeding and FSH suppression. Elevation of FSH then can be seen again once the oestrogen level drops. Hence, the results would be influenced by the timing of blood sample collection. Once amenorrhea occurs more consistently, it would be easier to interpret the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has burning and itching. She is sexually active.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Candida albicans

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a clinical condition characterized by a shift in vaginal flora away from Lactobacillus species toward more diverse bacterial species, including facultative anaerobes. The altered microbiome causes a rise in vaginal pH and symptoms that range from none to very bothersome. Future health implications of BV include, but are not limited to, increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted infections and preterm birth. Fifty to 75 percent of women with BV are asymptomatic. Symptomatic women typically present with vaginal discharge and/or vaginal odour. The discharge is off-white, thin, and homogeneous; the odour is an unpleasant fishy smell that may be more noticeable after sexual intercourse and during menses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is the most common congenital thrombophilia. Named after the Dutch city Leiden where it was first discovered. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 (Not type 2) thrombophilias Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired (NOT congenital) thrombophilia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Regarding the pubic symphysis, what type of joint is it ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the pubic symphysis, what type of joint is it

      Your Answer: Secondary Cartilaginous

      Explanation:

      The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint. The cartilaginous joints are divided further into primary and secondary joints. The primary joint is called the synchondrosis. It articulates with the pubis of the other side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Engagement of the foetus can be defined as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Engagement of the foetus can be defined as:

      Your Answer: When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head is at the level of ischial spines

      Correct Answer: When the greatest biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      Engagement means when the fetal head enters the pelvic brim/inlet and it usually takes place 2 weeks before the estimated delivery date i.e. at 38 weeks of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by sacral nerve roots S2, S3 and S4 almost immediately as they exit the spinal foramina. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, travels behind the sacrospinous ligament before re-entering the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is an important nerve to be aware of as it supplies sensation to the genitalia and can also be damaged/compressed at a number of places along its course. Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?...

    Correct

    • What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?

      Your Answer: Hb Gower 1

      Explanation:

      HB gower 1 is the predominant embryonic haemoglobin when the foetus is 6 weeks old and is replaced by adult haemoglobin by the age of 5 months post natally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 70 year old patient is being reviewed in clinic for post menopausal...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old patient is being reviewed in clinic for post menopausal bleeding. Examination reveals a lesion of the vaginal wall. Which is the most common type of primary vaginal cancer?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The vaginal epithelium is made of squamous cells. Hence the most common carcinoma that occurs in the Vagina is squamous cell carcinoma. Diagnosis is made with vaginal biopsy. Usually the pain only presents if the disease extends beyond the vagina involving the perineal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 35-year-old female went to a contraception clinic because she does not want...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female went to a contraception clinic because she does not want to conceive for the next 2 years. She also has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pain. Imaging revealed fibroids. What is the best method of contraception for the patient in this case?

      Your Answer: COCP

      Correct Answer: IUS

      Explanation:

      IUS or Intra Uterine System/Device releases progestin. The progestin thickens the cervix, preventing the sperm from penetrating the cervix, and it also causes the uterine lining to become thinner, preventing any implantation. IUS may also prevent excessive bleeding and can help women with fibroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Cabergoline

      Explanation:

      Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type...

    Correct

    • During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      PMNs phagocytise debris and kill bacteria via free radicals (AKA respiratory burst). They also break down damaged tissue. PMNs typically undergo apoptosis after 48 hours. They are then engulfed and degraded by macrophages. Macrophages therefore become the predominant cell type in the wound on days 3-4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - In which situation would you prescribe COCs? ...

    Correct

    • In which situation would you prescribe COCs?

      Your Answer: A 20 year old woman with blood pressure 135/80mmHg

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina.

      Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode.

      Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Continue pregnancy until natural delivery

      Correct Answer: Induce labour now

      Explanation:

      Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.

      A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.

      Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.

      The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
      – Admitting the patient to hospital.
      – Take a vaginal
      ervical smears.
      – Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
      – Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
      – In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
      – Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
      – Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome patients have 46XY chromosomes. They are males by genotype but appear as female because of insensitivity to male hormones. It is advisable to perform gonadectomy in these patients after puberty because these patients are at increased risk of developing malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows no identifiable fetal tissue or gestational sac and you note the radiologist has reported a 'bunch of grapes sign'. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disorder is abnormal conception that is characterised by swollen and oedematous villi with proliferation of the trophoblasts. In a complete mole there is absence of fetal tissue, there is diffuse proliferation of trophoblastic tissue around hydropic villi and on USG it appears as a bunch of grapes or snow storm appearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.

      Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.

      In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?

      Your Answer: Give anti-D now

      Explanation:

      As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.

      Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
      eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
      In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.

      All the other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You...

    Correct

    • While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?

      Your Answer: Urinary

      Explanation:

      Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness.

      As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care.

      Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?

      Your Answer: No action is needed because the patient is asymptomatic, has not missed her period, and cannot be pregnant.

      Correct Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.

      Explanation:

      Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.

      In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.

      An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.

      A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.

      A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Delayed puberty in girls is defined as? ...

    Incorrect

    • Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhoea at age 16

      Correct Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 13 years old

      Explanation:

      Breast development occurs from the age of 9-13 at the onset of puberty. Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development after the age of 13.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Ovarian cancer is associated with which type of metastasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Ovarian cancer is associated with which type of metastasis?

      Your Answer: Lymphatic

      Correct Answer: Transcoelomic

      Explanation:

      The common route of metastases of the ovarian cancer is transcoelomic route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Regarding the study of the prognosis of a disease, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the study of the prognosis of a disease, which of the following studies is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Randomised Control Study

      Correct Answer: Cohort Study

      Explanation:

      Cohort studies are the most appropriate study design to study the prognosis of a disease. A group of patients with the same condition are chosen and their baseline information is taken. The group is then followed up over time to see which patients live or die.
      Case-control studies can also be useful where a group of individuals that have survived a condition are compared with cases of those who have died. Prognostic factors that distinguish the two groups are identified. This method, however, is limited by bias and the accuracy of medical information present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as she is concerned about having gained 4.5 kg over the last year. She believes that the gain is related to her oral contraceptive pills. 

      Patient takes low-dose ethinyl estradiol
      orethindrone daily. Prior to starting the pills, she had regular but heavy periods lasting for 4-5 days.  Patient used to miss her school every month, on the first day of her period, due to severe cramping. Her pain symptoms resolved 3 months after starting the pills and she takes no other medications.  Patient's coitarche was at the age of 18 and she has had 2 partners since then. Patient and her current partner use condoms inconsistently. 

      On examination her vital signs are normal, with a BMI of 27 kg/m2 and physical examination is unremarkable. 

      Among the following which is the most appropriate advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Discontinue oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) and start nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

      Correct Answer: Reassure that the weight gain is not related to combined OCPs

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, nausea, bloating, amenorrhea, hypertension, venous thromboembolic disease, increased risk of cervical cancer with decreased risk of ovarian & endometrial cancer, liver disorders like hepatic adenoma and increase in triglycerides due to estrogen component are the common side effects & risks of using combination oral contraceptives.

      Patient in the given case mentioned symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea, which is recurrent lower abdominal pain associated with menstruation. Combination estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are considered as the first-line treatment for dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients as OCPs help to reduce pain by thinning the endometrial lining, reducing prostaglandin release and by decreasing uterine contractions.
      Nausea, bloating and breast tenderness, are considered as the early side effects of OCPs and will usually improve with continued use. The most common side effect is breakthrough bleeding which is usually associated with lower estrogen doses and other adverse effects caused by the pills include hypertension, increased risk of cervical cancer and venous thromboembolism. Although common perception considers weight gain as a side effect, several studies have shown that no significant weight gain is associated with OCPs, particularly with low-dose formulations.  Considering this, the patient should be reassured that her weight gain is not associated with regular use of OCPs.

      In patients who are not sexually active, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are considered as the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea. As stopping contraception will increase this Patient’s risk of unintended pregnancy this is not advisable to her.

      Switching the patient to a copper intrauterine device (IUD) will decrease systemic side effects, but as its inflammatory reaction in the uterus may increase pain symptoms, copper IUD is not recommended for patients with dysmenorrhea.

      As Medroxyprogesterone will increase body fat and decrease lean muscle mass resulting in weight gain is not a good option for this patient. Also medroxyprogesterone due to its risk of significant loss of bone mineral density, is not recommended for adolescents or young women. So it can be used in this age group only if other options are unacceptable.

      Presence of estrogen component is the main reason behind the side effects of combination OCPs. Progesterone-only pills have relatively fewer side effects but as they do not inhibit ovulation, they are less effective for treating dysmenorrhea and for contraception.

      Combination oral contraceptive pills are the first-line therapy for primary dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients.  Its side effects include breakthrough bleeding, hypertension, and increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Researches proves that weight gain is usually not an adverse effect of OCPs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of...

    Correct

    • Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage requiring hysterectomy?

      Your Answer: Placenta accreta

      Explanation:

      Placental abnormalities such as placenta previa and placenta accreta are the most common reasons for considering hysterectomy as an inevitable treatment option in postpartum hemorrhage.

      Placental villi normally invade only the superficial layers of endometrial deciduas basalis, but when the invasion is too deep into the uterine wall, the condition is termed as placenta accreta, increta or percreta depending on the depth of invasion.
      – When the villi invade the deeper layers of the endometrial deciduus basalis, but not the myometrium it is called as Placenta accreta. This is the most common type of decidual invasion and accounts for approximately 75% of the cases.
      – When the villi invade the myometrium, but do not reach the uterine serosa or the bladder is called Placenta increta. This type accounts for nearly 15% of cases.
      – In cases were the villi invades into the uterine serosa or the bladder is it called as Placenta percreta and this happens in 5% of cases.

      Prior uterine surgery is the main risk factor for placenta accreta and the best management is elective cesarean hysterectomy.
      postpartum hemorrhage can also be caused by conditions like genital lacerations, uterine atony, retained products of conception and uterine inversion. In most of these above mentioned cases, hysterectomy is not required and remains as the last resort in extremely desperate situations.

      NOTE– Though uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, it is often manageable medically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Obstructed labour.

      Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.

      Explanation:

      Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
      Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Patients with high risk pregnancy should have a: ...

    Correct

    • Patients with high risk pregnancy should have a:

      Your Answer: Fetal biophysical profile

      Explanation:

      The BPP is performed in an effort to identify babies that may be at risk of poor pregnancy outcome, so that additional assessments of wellbeing may be performed, or labour may be induced or a caesarean section performed to expedite birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels?

      Your Answer: slow voltage gated sodium channels

      Correct Answer: fast voltage gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      It blocks the voltage gated sodium channels and reduce the influx of sodium ions preventing depolarization of the membrane and blocking the conduction of the action potential. The affinity of the receptor site in the sodium channels depends on whether it is resting, open or inactive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance ...

    Incorrect

    • Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance

      Your Answer: Autosomal Recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal Dominant

      Explanation:

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) can either be autosomal dominant or recessive. The autosomal dominant variant is more common in adult PKD however, the recessive pattern is more common in infantile PKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: ...

    Correct

    • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of:

      Your Answer: Luteinizing hormone

      Explanation:

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is the hormone responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which of the following conditions is associated with blunt trauma in a pregnant...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with blunt trauma in a pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Abruptio placentae

      Explanation:

      Abruptio placentae, defined as a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, is commonly seen with blunt abdominal trauma and can cause fetal distress. It occurs in 1% to 3% of pregnant women with minor trauma and in 40% to 50% with major life-threatening trauma.8,9 Abruption may present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain and tenderness, uterine contractions, or fetal distress; however, it may be occult with no vaginal bleeding in up to 20% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Uterine Cervix: ...

    Correct

    • Uterine Cervix:

      Your Answer: Is the portion of the uterus below the isthmus

      Explanation:

      The uterus is divisible into two portions. The portion above the isthmus is termed the body, and that below, the cervix. The uterine cervix is the narrow inferior segment of the uterus, which projects into the vaginal cavity. It is a fibromuscular organ lined by a mucous membrane and measures approximately 3cm in length and 2.5cm in diameter. The cervix is continuous at its superior margins with the body of the uterus and at its inferior margins with the vagina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      As B-HCG and TSH have similar structures, increased B-HCG can lead to hyperthyroidism, however there is only a 3% chance of this happening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey vaginal discharge. Bacteria adhering to vaginal epithelial cells are visible under light microscopy using a wet mount preparation.

      Which of the following creatures is most likely to be a pathogen?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Gardnerella vaginalis is one of the bacteria implicated in the development of bacterial vaginosis , many women (>50%) with this vaginal infection have no signs or symptoms, when these are present they are most often :
      Vaginal discharge, grey, white or green, with a strong unpleasant odour
      Strong vaginal odour and fishy smell after sex
      Vaginal itching
      Burning during urination
      Vaginal bleeding after sex
      Gardnerella vaginalis can also be responsible for serious infections (sepsis, wound infections) in locations other than those associated with the genital tract or obstetrics, these cases are very rare but have been reported, including in men.

      Mycoplasma Hominis is one of the organisms involved in the pathogenesis of BV but it appears normal on wet mount.

      Candida presents with white cottage cheese like discharge.

      Chlamydia is not seen on wet mount and produces clear vaginal discharge.

      Trichomonas shows clue cells on wet mount.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?...

    Correct

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?

      Your Answer: 5-Jul

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the morula enters the uterus, around the 4th day after fertilization, a clear cystic cavity starts forming inside the morula. The fluid passes through the zona pellucida from the uterine cavity and hence forms the blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol,...

    Incorrect

    • Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa.

      Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?

      Your Answer: It h as a good effect on acne

      Correct Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss

      Explanation:

      Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer Yasmin®.
      Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
      Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
      Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: The prevalence of fibroids is higher in black women than white women

      Correct Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: PCOS

      Explanation:

      The risk factors of endometrial cancer include obesity, diabetes, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of colorectal and ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - During the menstrual cycle which hormone typically reaches its peak level on day...

    Correct

    • During the menstrual cycle which hormone typically reaches its peak level on day 21 (assuming a 28 day cycle)?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      LH, FSH and Oestrogen have their peaks just before ovulation on day 14 whereas progesterone peaks around day 21.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prevention of thrombosis

      Explanation:

      The properties of oestrogen:
      Structure: Stimulates endometrial growth, maintenance of vessels and skin,
      reduces bone resorption, increases bone formation, increases uterine growth
      Protein synthesis: Increases hepatic synthesis of binding proteins
      Coagulation: Increases circulating levels of factors II, VII, IX, X, antithrombin III and plasminogen; increases platelet adhesiveness
      Lipid: Increases HDL and reduces LDL,increases triglycerides, reduces
      ketone formation, increases fat deposition
      Fluid balance: Salt and water retention
      Gastrointestinal: Reduces bowel motility, increases cholesterol in bile

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged...

    Incorrect

    • You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged 1st stage of labour. You note the fetal head start to retract after being tightly applied to the vulva (turtle-neck sign). What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Zavanell manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: McRoberts' manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Signs of shoulder dystocia:
      – Difficulty with delivery of the face and chin
      – The head remaining tightly applied to the vulva or even retracting (turtle-neck sign)
      – Failure of restitution of the fetal head
      – Failure of the shoulders to descend
      Upon identifying shoulder dystocia additional help should be called and McRoberts manoeuvre (flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, positioning the maternal thighs on her abdomen) should be performed first. Fundal pressure is associated with uterine rupture and should not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days? ...

    Correct

    • What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days?

      Your Answer: 14-16

      Explanation:

      After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol. The luteal phase lasts for 14 days and if implantation does not occurs the corpus luteum starts to degenerate. As B-HCG produced by the implanted embryo maintains it and without it luteolysis occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found:

      Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL)
      Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million)
      Motility 15% (>40%)
      Abnormal forms 95% (<60%)

      A second specimen three months later confirms the above results.

      Which would be the most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer: Carry out intrauterine insemination of the wife with his semen,

      Correct Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).

      Explanation:

      Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient by your consultant. The pudendal nerve is formed from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer: S2,S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve has its origins form S2, S3 and S4 spinal segments. It provides sensation to the clitoris and labia along with the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - What is the role of DHEA produced by the fetal adrenal glands? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of DHEA produced by the fetal adrenal glands?

      Your Answer: Stimulate placenta to form oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen is a SERM that is effective in treating hormone-responsive breast cancer, it acts as an antagonist to prevent receptor activation by endogenous oestrogen. As agonist of the endometrial receptors it promotes endometrial hyperplasia and hence increases the risk of endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - What is the half life of Oxytocin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the half life of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      The half-life of Oxytocin is approximately 5 minutes
      The half-life of Misoprostol is approximately 20-40 minutes
      The half-life of Ergometrine is approximately 30-120 minutes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - What is the half life of Ergometrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half life of Ergometrine?

      Your Answer: 3-5 minutes

      Correct Answer: 30-120 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ergometrine has a half life of 30-120 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE?

      Your Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The Vaginal artery, like the Uterine artery is typically a branch of the Internal Iliac artery. It can sometimes arise as a branch of the Uterine artery so it is important to read the question (if the stem stated it CAN arise from the Uterine artery then that would be true)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female university student, who has never been sexually active, requests advice regarding contraception in view of wanting to start being sexually active.

      Which contraceptive option would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: An intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD).

      Correct Answer: The OCP and a condom.

      Explanation:

      This patient should be advised to use both an OCP and a condom. The combined oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to be very effective. However, she should be made aware that it would not provide any protection from any sexually transmitted diseases so she might still be at risk of developing a STD, depending on her sexual partner preferences. To ensure protection from STDs, she should be advised to use both condoms as well as the combined OCP. An IUCD (intrauterine contraceptive device) would not be preferable if she has multiple sexual partners (high risk of STDs). If she has been screened for STDs, does not actively have an STD and has only one sexual partner then IUCD is a possible option. Some issues that may arise with spermicide use could be related to compliance. This also applies to using condoms alone. These two options are less reliable as compared to COCP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed. She is a known to the case of multiple uterine fibroids. Her past surgical history is significant for tubal ligation and dilation and curettage without any definite diagnosis or any improvement in her symptoms.
      Examination reveals an enlarged uterus of about 12-week gravid size.
      A complete blood picture shows anaemia (Hb 80g/L).

      What should be the next step in the management of such a patient?

      Your Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids (uterine leiomyomas) are benign uterine tumours. Asymptomatic uterine leiomyomas merely require follow-up without any specific intervention because histological confirmation of the clinical diagnosis is not required in most cases.

      Symptoms and consequences necessitate treatment. The definitive therapy is hysterectomy. Other options include various types of myomectomy, endometrial ablation, uterine artery embolization, and myolysis.
      The following situations call for a hysterectomy:

      Women suffering from an acute haemorrhage who have failed to react to various treatments
      Women who are finished having children who are at risk for other disorders (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, endometriosis, adenomyosis, endometrial hyperplasia, or greater risk of uterine or ovarian cancer) that a hysterectomy might eliminate or reduce.

      Women who have had previous attempts at minimally invasive therapy for leiomyomas failed.
      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a desire for a permanent cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the procedure of choice.
      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to keep their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have further children, has had her tubes tied, and is experiencing painful symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is superior to endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea is achieved after endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas remain untreated.

      Women who have previously failed minimally invasive treatment for leiomyomas

      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a strong desire for a cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the preferred technique.

      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to maintain their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have any more children and has had her tubal ligation removed. She also has troublesome symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is better than endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea can be accomplished with endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas are not.

      Myomectomy is not recommended unless you want to increase your fertility. There is a chance of recurrence, which would demand additional procedures. It will also be difficult to remove all of the leiomyomas if the uterus is enlarged with several leiomyomas. Remaining leiomyomas might grow and cause symptoms again over time.

      Hormonal therapies such as combination contraceptive tablets, progesterone-only approaches, danazol, and others have been used with anecdotal results on symptoms like menorrhagia. Some have dubious efficacy, while others with confirmed efficacy have unfavourable side effects, restricting their use.
      In leiomyomas-related menorrhagia, NSAIDs have not been widely researched. Although NSAIDs do not appear to diminish blood loss in women with leiomyomas, they do lower painful menses and may be effective for this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - CTG showing early decelerations is : ...

    Correct

    • CTG showing early decelerations is :

      Your Answer: From increased vagal tone secondary to head compression

      Explanation:

      Early decelerations: a result of increased vagal tone due to compression of the fetal head during contractions. Monitoring usually shows a symmetrical, gradual decrease and return to baseline of FHR, which is associated with a uterine contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Prognathism and macroglossia are features of which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Prognathism and macroglossia are features of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Acromegaly

      Explanation:

      These are features of excess growth hormone i.e. Acromegaly. Down’s and Cri du chat typically cause Micrognathia (small jaw)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding facilitates the production of Oxytocin by the hypothalamus which is stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
      Ergometrine is an ergoline derivative that can be used to increase uterine tone.
      Atosiban is an antagonist of Oxytocin receptors
      ADH is another posterior pituitary hormone.
      Prostaglandin E2 plays an important role in cervical ripening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 26 year old patient with a past medical history of 2 terminations...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient with a past medical history of 2 terminations of pregnancies over the past 2 years, presents to the emergency centre complaining of severe abdominal pain and some vaginal bleeding. She has a regular 28 day cycle, and is on an oral contraceptive pill, but missed last month's period. Her last termination was over 6 months ago. She smokes almost a pack of cigarettes a day.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometritis

      Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture demonstrated is most likely that of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The period of amenorrhea may point to pregnancy, while the past medical history of 2 recent terminations of pregnancy may indicate a failure of her current contraceptive method. Smoking cigarettes have been shown to not only decrease the efficacy of OCPs, but also serve as a known risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. The lady is unlikely to have endometritis as her last termination was over 6 months ago. The lack of fever helps to make appendicitis, PID and pyelonephritis less likely, though they are still possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit.

      She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain).

      She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country.

      On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min.

      Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation.

      What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination.

      Explanation:

      In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.

      The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.

      If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.

      Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.

      If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.

      If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which of the following are required for Oxytocin to bind to its receptor?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are required for Oxytocin to bind to its receptor?

      Your Answer: Magnesium and Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin binds to G-protein-coupled receptors and requires Magnesium and cholesterol for this process to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old G1P0 presents to your office at her 18 weeks gestational age for an unscheduled visit due to right-sided groin pain. She describes the pain as sharp in nature, which is occurring with movement and exercise and that the pain will be alleviated with application of a heating pad. She denies any change in urinary or bowel habits and there is no fever or chills.

      What would be the most likely etiology of pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: Round ligament pain

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with classic symptoms of round ligament pain.
      Round ligaments are structures which extends from the lateral portion of the uterus below to the oviduct and will travel downward in a fold of peritoneum to the inguinal canal to get inserted in the upper portion of the labium majus. As the gravid uterus grows out of pelvis during pregnancy, these ligaments will stretch, mostly during sudden movements, resulting in a sharp pain. Due to dextrorotation of uterus, which occurs commonly in pregnancy, the round ligament pain is experienced more frequently over the right side. Usually this pain improves by avoiding sudden movements, by rising and sitting down gradually, by the application of local heat and by using analgesics.

      As the patient is not experiencing any symptoms like fever or anorexia a diagnosis of appendicitis is not likely. Also in pregnant women appendicitis often presents as pain located much higher than the groin area as the growing gravid uterus pushes the appendix out of pelvis.

      As the pain is localized to only one side of groin and is alleviated with a heating pad the diagnosis of preterm labor is unlikely. In addition, the pain would persist even at rest and not with just movement in case of labor.

      As the patient has not reported of any urinary symptoms diagnosis of urinary tract infection is unlikely.

      Kidney stones usually presents with pain in the back and not lower in the groin. In addition, with a kidney stone the pain would occur not only with movement, but would persist at rest as well. So a diagnosis of kidney stone is unlikely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with complaints of fishy, thin, white homogeneous vaginal discharge accompanied with an offensive odour. The presence of clue cells was noted during a microscopic test on the discharge.

      All of the following statements are considered false regarding her condition, except:

      Your Answer: Relapse rate > 50 percent within 3 months

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) affects women of reproductive age and can either be symptomatic or asymptomatic. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. Most commonly, this presents clinically with increased vaginal discharge that has a fish-like odour. The discharge itself is typically thin and either grey or white.

      Although bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection, women have an increased risk of acquiring other sexually transmitted infections (STI), and pregnant women have an increased risk of early delivery.

      Though effective treatment options do exist, metronidazole or clindamycin, these methods have proven not to be effective long term.

      BV recurrence rates are high, approximately 80% three months after effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A woman in her 27 weeks of gestation presents to your clinic with...

    Correct

    • A woman in her 27 weeks of gestation presents to your clinic with gushing of clear yellow vaginal fluid.

      Premature rupture of membrane (PPROM ) is confirmed on speculum examination, and the cervical os is closed.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate management, in addition to transfer to a tertiary center?

      Your Answer: Systemic corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Cases with spontaneous rupture of membrane before the onset of labour, prior to 37 weeks of gestation is defined as preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). It complicates almost 2-4% of all singleton and 7- 20% of twin pregnancies and is commonly associated with more than 60% of all preterm births.

      Management of PPROM In the absence of chorioamnionitis, depends on the gestational age. That is in cases of PPROM before 23 weeks, labor may be induced or the patient be sent home for bed rest and is asked to wait until any signs of spontaneous delivery to start. Between 23 and 34 + 0/7 weeks, the patient should be transferred to a tertiary hospital and be admitted there as it is very important to administer systemic corticosteroids, for the fetal lung to attain maturity. It is also mandatory the patient gets adequate bed rest, cervical and vaginal swabs for microscopy and culture, along with prophylactic antibiotics for prevention of chorioamnionitis.
      NOTE –  regardless of the gestational age, chorioamnionitis is said to be an absolute indication for the termination of pregnancy.

      In the given case, patient is currently in her 28th week of gestation, so she should be immediately transferred to a tertiary hospital and given systemic steroids to promote fetal lung maturation in case preterm delivery ensues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.

      In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Betamethasone

      Explanation:

      This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).

      Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.

      Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.

      The most likely diagnosis at this time is:

      Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Correct Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 24-year-old gravida 3 para 1 is admitted to the hospital at 29...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old gravida 3 para 1 is admitted to the hospital at 29 weeks gestation with a high fever, flank pain, and an abnormal urinalysis. You order blood and urine cultures, a CBC, electrolyte levels, and a serum creatinine level. You also start her on intravenous fluids and intravenous cefazolin. After 24 hours of antibiotic treatment she is clinically improved but continues to have fever spikes. What would be the most appropriate management at this time?

      Your Answer: Change her antibiotics, as her infection is likely due to a resistant organism

      Correct Answer: Continue current management

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical problem that complicates pregnancy. Infection is more common after midpregnancy, and is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the lower tract. Escheria coli is the offending bacteria in approximately 75% of cases. About 15% of women with acute pyelonephritis are bacteraemia- A common finding is thermoregulatory instability, with very high spiking fevers sometimes followed by hypothermia- Almost 95% of women will be afebrile by 72 hours. However, it is common to see continued fever spikes up until that time- Thus, further evaluation is not indicated unless clinical improvement at 48-71 hours is lacking. If this is the case, the patient should be evaluated for urinary tract obstruction, urinary calculi and an intrarenal or perinephric abscess. Ultrasonography, plain radiography, and modified intravenous pyelography are all acceptable methods, depending on the clinical setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of...

    Correct

    • During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?

      Your Answer: Occiput

      Explanation:

      A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic.

      At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?

      Your Answer: Days 6-12

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Which of the following hormones are required for alveolar morphogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones are required for alveolar morphogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Progesterone, Prolactin and hPL

      Explanation:

      The changes seen in breast tissue with the menstrual cycle are accentuated during pregnancy. Deposition of fat around glandular tissue occurs, and the number of glandular ducts is increased by oestrogen, while progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL) increase the number of gland alveoli. Prolactin is essential for the stimulation of milk secretion and during pregnancy prepares the alveoli for milk production. Although prolactin concentration increases throughout pregnancy, it does not then result in lactation since it is antagonized at an alveolar receptor level by oestrogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Stages of labour ...

    Correct

    • Stages of labour

      Your Answer: The third stage ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes

      Explanation:

      First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour in a British journal was having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.

      Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.

      Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: The 1st commonly presents as breech

      Explanation:

      The 1st commonly presents as cephalic. Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know...

    Correct

    • A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know how long it will take for her wound to completely heal.

      How much time does it take for healing by primary intention to reach full tensile strength?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Wound healing typically undergoes different stages that include haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation and remodelling. The phases are often shortened when healing occurs by primary intention such as in a surgical wound. Remodelling, which is the major strengthening phase, takes about 3 weeks, while it takes a total of 12 weeks to reach maximum tensile strength.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Correct Answer: Factor V deficiency

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin time is increased in:
      – Factor V deficiency
      – Vitamin K deficiency (which affects factors 2,7 and 10)
      – Warfarin therapy
      – Severe liver failure
      Protein C is an anticoagulant and deficiency results in a hyper-coagulable state with tendency towards thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Which one of the following muscles is the most important muscle forming the...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following muscles is the most important muscle forming the pelvic floor?

      Your Answer: Levator ani

      Explanation:

      Levator ani muscle is composed of three different muscles i.e. iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus and the puborectalis muscle. It is the main muscle that supports the organs of the pelvic cavity.
      Bulbocavernosus and Ischiocavernosus muscles are located in-between the anus and scrotum and play an important role in sexual response in males.
      Superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles are located in the perinium and pass in front of the anus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - At ovulation the surge in LH causes rupture of the mature oocyte via...

    Correct

    • At ovulation the surge in LH causes rupture of the mature oocyte via action on what?

      Your Answer: Theca externa

      Explanation:

      The luteinizing hormone (LH) surge during ovulation causes: Increases cAMP resulting in increased progesterone and PGF2 production PGF2 causes contraction of theca externa smooth muscle cells resulting in rupture of the mature oocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function

      Explanation:

      These are the six routine blood tests that every mum-to-be has to undergo around week 7 of pregnancy: Full Blood Count, Blood Typing, Hepatitis B Screening, Syphilis Screening, HIV Screening and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?

      Your Answer: Pulsatile GnRH

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene

      Explanation:

      Firstline medical management of PCOS is with clomiphene.

      Ovulation Disorders

      WHO Group I : Hypothalamic pituitary failure (Stress, anorexia, exercise induced)
      Management:
      Increase BMI if <19 kg/m2
      Reduce exercise if high levels
      Pulsatile GnRH or Gonadotrophins with LH activity to induce ovulation

      WHO Group II : Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction (PCOS)
      Management:
      Weight reduction if BMI >30
      Clomiphene/Clomiphene (1st line)
      Metformin (1st line)
      Clomiphene & Metformin (1st/2nd line)
      Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
      Gonadotrophins (2nd line)

      WHO Group III : Ovarian failure
      Management:
      Consider IVF with donor eggs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Uterine atony.

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy menstruation. She had normal menstrual pattern 6 months back. Physical examination revealed no abnormality with a negative cervical smear. Laboratory investigation reveals a haemoglobin of 105g/L (Normal 115-165g/L). The most common cause of such menorrhagia is?

      Your Answer: Anovulatory cycles.

      Explanation:

      Menorrhagia in a 45-year-old woman is most likely caused by an ovulation issue, most likely anovulatory cycles, particularly if the periods have grown irregular.

      Endometrial carcinoma is a rare cause of menorrhagia that usually occurs after menopause.

      Menorrhagia can be caused by fibroids, endometrial polyps, and adenomyosis, although the cycles are normally regular, and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months prior would be exceptional.
      If fibroids or adenomyosis are the source of the menorrhagia, the uterus is usually enlarged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: A missed abortion

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.

      – By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
      – An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
      – A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Renal cell carcinoma is associated with which type of metastasis? ...

    Correct

    • Renal cell carcinoma is associated with which type of metastasis?

      Your Answer: Haematogenous

      Explanation:

      Most carcinomas spread primarily via lymphatic invasion. Renal cell is the exception spreading via the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: A fetal scalp blood sampling in labour should be avoided

      Correct Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.

      A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.

      Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?...

    Correct

    • Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?

      Your Answer: Escherichia Coli

      Explanation:

      The most common causative agent found in female urinary tract infections is Escherichia Coli. E. Coli is a bacteria found in the environment and the human gastrointestinal system. Other common causes of UTI include Klebsiella sp, Proteus sp and various Enterococci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of...

    Correct

    • With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of urine. It started to happen with exercising recently. She denies having experienced recent life pressures.

      Which of the following best characterizes the incontinence she's dealing with?

      Your Answer: Stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Overflow incontinence typically presents with continuous urinary leakage or dribbling in the setting of incomplete bladder emptying. Associated symptoms can include weak or intermittent urinary stream, hesitancy, frequency, and nocturia. When the bladder is very full, stress leakage can occur or low-amplitude bladder contractions can be triggered resulting in symptoms similar to stress or urgency incontinence.

      Women with urgency incontinence experience the urge to void immediately preceding or accompanied by involuntary leakage of urine

      Individuals with stress incontinence have involuntary leakage of urine that occurs with increases in intraabdominal pressure (e.g., with exertion, sneezing, coughing, laughing) in the absence of a bladder contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes? ...

    Correct

    • Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes?

      Your Answer: External, Internal and Common iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the common iliac nodes via the internal iliac nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
      The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudenal nerves has three branches, namely the inferior rectal, perineal and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris. The perineal nerve has two branches: The superficial perineal nerve gives rise to posterior scrotal or labial (cutaneous) branches, and the deep perineal nerve supplies the muscles of the deep and superficial perineal pouches, the skin of the vestibule, and the mucosa of the inferior most part of the vagina. The inferior rectal nerve communicates with the posterior scrotal or labial and perineal nerves. The dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris is the primary sensory nerve serving the male or female organ, especially the sensitive glans at the distal end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - What is the main biochemical buffer in blood? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in blood?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate serves as the main buffer in the blood. Other than this phosphate, ammonia and haemoglobin also act as buffers to some extent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.

    She...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.

      She complains of a nine hour history of irregular painful contractions.

      On examination of her pelvis, her cervix is fully effaced, but only 2 - 3 cm dilated. The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines in a left occipito-posterior (LOP) position. The membranes ruptured an hour ago.

      What would be the best next line of management?

      Your Answer: Oxytocic (Syntocinon4) infusion.

      Explanation:

      The best next line of management is to administer an oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.

      This is because the progress of labour is slow, and it necessary to augment it. As the membranes have already ruptured, the next step is to increase the contractions and induce labour using an infusion of oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.

      Extra fluid is also required, but this will be administered alongside the Syntocinon infusion.

      A lumbar epidural block is indicated in patients with an occipito-posterior (OP) position. This should not be attempted until more pain relief is required and the progress of labour is reassessed.

      A Caesarean section may be necessary due to obstructed labour or fetal distress, it is not indicated at this stage.

      Taking blood and holding it in case cross-matching is ultimately required is common, but most patients do not have blood cross-matched prophylactically in case there is a need to be delivered by Caesarean section and require a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?

      Your Answer: 1 in 1000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      Prelabour Rupture of Membranes:
      – Risk of serious neonatal infection 1% (vs 0.5% for women with intact membranes)
      – 60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
      – Induction appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and >24 hours post rupture and patients labour hasn’t started.
      – If <34 weeks induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      When it comes to questions on venous drainage the ovarian vein is likely to be a common question given its varied drainage depending on laterality. The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased TSH Decreased Total T3 and T4

      Correct Answer: Decreased TSH Increased Total T3 and T4

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) has thyrotrophic activity owing to subunit homology with thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and maternal TSH production is suppressed during the first trimester of pregnancy, when hCG levels are highest. The TSH response to thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is reduced during the first trimester but returns to normal after this. Thyroid binding globulin increases in the first 2 weeks of pregnancy and reaches a plateau by 20 weeks. This leads to increased production of total T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after she has noticed intermittent leakage of watery liquor per vagina for the past eight hours, especially after straining, coughing or  sneezing.

      Speculum vaginal exam reveals clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix, with flow of liquid through the cervical os. Further evaluation establishes preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM) as the diagnosis. No uterine contraction is felt and there is a tertiary hospital 50 km away.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Administration of corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The case above gives a classic presentation of preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). In term or near term women rupture of membrane harbingers labor, so if ROM does not end up in established labor in 4 hours, is called as premature ROM (PROM). In other words, PROM is defined as ROM before the onset of labor and if it occurs before 37 weeks, the preferred term is PPROM. In both these scenarios treatment approach will be different.
      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina, continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid, a sensation of wetness within the vagina or perineum are the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes(ROM), regardless of the gestational age. Pathognomonic symptoms symptoms of ROM are presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix.
      PPROM is associated with many risk factors and some of them are as follows:
      – Preterm labor
      – Cord prolapse
      – Placental abruption
      – Chorioamnionitis
      – Fetal pulmonary hypoplasia and other features of prematurity
      – Limb positioning defects
      – Perinatal mortality
      Once the diagnosis is confirmed the following measures should be considered in the management plan:
      a) Maternal corticosteroids
      Adverse perinatal outcomes like respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis can be effectively reduced using corticosteroids. The duration of using neonatal respiratory support, in case of respiratory distress, can be significantly reduced by the administration of corticosteroids. If preterm labor is a concern in cases were gestational age is between 23•0d and 34•6d weeks or if preterm birth is planned or expected within the next 7 days corticosteroids are indicated.
      Recommended regimens to the woman are IM betamethasone in two doses of 11.4 mg, given 24 hours apart and if betamethasone is unavailable, IM dexamethasone given 24 hours apart in two doses of 12 mg.
      A single repeat dose of corticosteroid given seven days or more after the first dose is suggestive in cases were the gestational age is less than 32• 6d, if the woman is still considered to be at risk of preterm labor, up to 3 repeated doses can be considered.
      Another option is Tocolysis using nifedipine and is indicated if the woman is in labor. This helps in cessation of labor for at least 48 hours, providing a window for corticosteroid to establish its effects. Tocolysis is not indicated in cases with absence of uterine contractions suggestive of labor.
      It is appropriate to transfer this woman to a tertiary hospital after administering the first doses of corticosteroid and antibiotics. This ensures optimal neonatal care in case of premature delivery.
      As the patient needs investigations and fetal monitoring along with close observation for development of any signs of infection and preterm labor, it is not appropriate to discharge this patient on oral antibiotics
      Admitting to a primary care center without neonatal ICU (NICU) does no good to the outcome of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - Which one of the following has the most significant effect on slowing drug...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following has the most significant effect on slowing drug metabolism in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Lower albumin concentration

      Correct Answer: Progesterone effect on gastric motility

      Explanation:

      Progesterone down regulates gastric motility meaning drugs are absorbed and metabolised more slowly, thus drugs are absorbed, metabolised and cleared more slowly. Most of the drugs are transported after binding to the albumin.
      Lower albumin levels mean a greater unbound drug fraction but as this may be thought to increase drug concentrations it actually leaves more available for hepatic clearance or renal excretion so overall drug concentrations are unchanged and metabolism increased.
      Increase in hepatic flow will increase the metabolism of the drug as the drug will be transported faster.
      Increased renal blood flow will result in the faster clearance of the drug from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

      Your Answer: Amsel's criteria

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis can be made using the Amsel’s criteria:
      1. Presence of clue cells on microscopic examination (these cells are epithelial cells covered with the bacteria).
      2. Creamy greyish discharge.
      3. Vaginal pH of more than 4.5.
      5. Positive whiff test – release of fishy odour on addition of alkali solution. Other criteria include the nugent score and the Hay/Ison criteria. The Nugent score estimates the relative proportions of bacterial morphotypes to give a score between 0 and 10 (<4 = normal, 4-6 = intermediate, >6 = BV)
      The Hay/Ison criteria
      Grade 1 (Normal): Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
      Grade 2 (Intermediate): Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
      Grade 3 (BV): Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes. Few or absent Lactobacilli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo? ...

    Correct

    • Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The arches are numbered according to their proximity to the head i.e. the 1st is the closest to the head end of the embryo and the 6th closest to the tail end as shown by the diagram below the table

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis of iliofemoral veins.

      Which of the following is considered the best management for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Start on warfarin and continue for 6 months with strict INR monitoring

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic dose of low molecular weight heparin for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy is associated with high mortality, morbidity, and costs. Pulmonary embolism (PE), its most feared complication, is the leading cause of maternal death in the developed world. DVT can also result in long-term complications that include post thrombotic syndrome (PTS) adding to its morbidity. Women are up to 5 times more likely to develop DVT when pregnant. The current standard of care for this condition is anticoagulation.

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred agent for prophylaxis and treatment of DVT during pregnancy. A disadvantage of LMWH over unfractionated heparin (UFH) is its longer half-life, which may be a problem at the time of delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced...

    Correct

    • During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced by the:

      Your Answer: Placenta

      Explanation:

      The placenta does not have all the necessary enzymes to make oestrogens from cholesterol, or even progesterone. Human trophoblast lack 17-hydroxylase and therefore cannot convert C21-steroids to C19-steroids, the immediate precursors of oestrogen. To bypass this deficit, dehydroisoandrosterone sulphate (DHA) from the fetal adrenal is converted to estradiol-17ί by trophoblasts. In its key location as a way station between mother and foetus, placenta can use precursors from either mother or foetus to circumvent its own deficiencies in enzyme activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress,...

    Correct

    • Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress, a 24-year-old woman develops fever with a temperature of 37.9°C. Intraoperative notes show that she was administered one dose of prophylactic antibiotics. She had been afebrile during the post-partum period until today.

      Which is the least likely cause of her fever?

      Your Answer: A deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Explanation:

      This question is about the differential diagnoses that should be considered if a patient presents with postpartum fever. The work-up for such patients would usually involve vaginal swabs, midstream urine culture and sensitivity and an ultrasound scan of the wound to look for any presence of a haematoma. LSCS is a major surgery and one common cause of puerperal fever would be surgical site infection. It is not surprising that women who deliver via LSCS are at higher risk of developing post-partum fever compared to those who deliver vaginally. Other common causes include endometritis and UTI. Ultrasound examination of the pelvic deep venous system and the legs would also be done to look for any thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis can occur due to immobility, however it is unlikely to present with fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with her second child. She is worried about infections in this pregnancy as her daughter was born with a 'blueberry muffin rash' and was soon found to have sensorineural deafness due to an infection. Which of the following infections is most likely?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Congenital infections can be the cause of various congenital abnormalities. Infection with the Rubella virus, part of the TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, other organisms, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex), can lead to cardiac abnormalities, ophthalmic defects, sensorineural deafness and neurodevelopmental delays. At birth congenital rubella syndrome presents with a petechial rash characteristically dubbed a blueberry muffin rash, and hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice. Immunization of the mother against measles is an effective way of reducing the occurrence of congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends approximately a quarter of the thickness through the external anal sphincter. How would you classify this tear?

      Your Answer: 3a

      Explanation:

      1. First-degree trauma corresponds to lacerations of the skin/vaginal epithelium alone.
      2. Second-degree tears involve perineal muscles and therefore include episiotomies.
      3. Third-degree extensions involve any part of the anal sphincter complex (external and internal sphincters):
      i Less than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      ii More than 50 per cent of the external anal
      sphincter is torn.
      iii Tear involves the internal anal sphincter
      (usually there is complete disruption of the
      external sphincter).
      4. Fourth-degree tears involve injury to the anal sphincter complex extending into the rectal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.

      On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.

      Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast causing the milk production. It also helps augment contractions in labour and cause uterine involution after childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium?

      Your Answer: 2-4 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: 10-16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Meconium first appears in the fetal ilium at 10-16 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia? ...

    Correct

    • Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: Erb palsy is common fetal injury

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the bisacromial diameter, which is the breadth of the shoulders, exceed the diameter of pelvic inlet. This typically results in a bony impaction of the anterior shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis, instead of an arrest at the pelvic inlet. Brachial plexus palsies including Erb’s palsy is the most common foetal injury associated with shoulder dystocia.

      It is not hyper-extension but the hyper-flexion of maternal legs tightly on her abdomen, called as McRoberts manoeuvre, which facilitates delivery during shoulder dystocia. This technique is effective as it increases the mobility of sacroiliac joint during pregnancy, which allows the rotation of pelvis and thereby facilitating the release of fetal shoulder.
      If this manoeuvre does not succeed, another technique called suprapubic pressure is done where an assistant applies pressure on the lower abdomen and gently pulls the delivered head. This technique is useful in about 42% of cases with shoulder dystocia.

      Maternal diabetes mellitus and foetal macrosomia both are a risk factor for shoulder dystocia.

      Administration of epidural anaesthesia during labour increases the possibility of shoulder dystocia.

      Risk of shoulder dystocia may increase with Oxytocin augmentation also.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she has not urinated since then and claims she had no urinary complaints before the operation. Upon inspection she appears unwell and her abdomen is distended and tender suprapubically and in the left flank. Auscultation reveals no bowel sounds. Further examination reveals the following: Temp=37.5C, BP=94/73mmHg, Pulse=116bpm, Sat=97%. What's the most likely complication?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract injury

      Explanation:

      Urologic injury is the most common injury at the time of either obstetric or gynaecologic surgery, with the bladder being the most frequent organ damaged. Risk factors for bladder injury during caesarean section include previous caesarean delivery, adhesions, emergency caesarean delivery, and caesarean section performed during the second stage of labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding per vagina for the last 3 months. Her past medical history is not significant and she went through menopause around a decade ago.
      A cervical screening test is performed and comes back normal. PCR for chlamydia is also negative. Endometrial thickness of around 8mm is seen on transvaginal ultrasound.
      What would be the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Referral to the gynaecologist for endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      This patient had postmenopausal vaginal haemorrhage and an 8mm endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness of 4mm or more in a postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding necessitates an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer, and this patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for this procedure.
      All of the other choices are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - At what gestational age does the luteo-placental shift occur? ...

    Correct

    • At what gestational age does the luteo-placental shift occur?

      Your Answer: 6-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Luteo-placental shifts occurs around 6-8 week when the placenta takes over from the corpus luteum as the main producer of oestrogen and progesterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization?

      Your Answer: 1 in 1000

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tubal sterilization is a safe and effective surgical procedure that permanently prevents pregnancy. However, pregnancy can occur in 1 in 200 cases, according to international sources. In the 1st year after tubal sterilization, the estimated failure rate is 0.1-0.8% respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (15/25) 60%
Embryology (6/7) 86%
Anatomy (18/19) 95%
Clinical Management (13/27) 48%
Physiology (9/10) 90%
Obstetrics (17/31) 55%
Endocrinology (9/14) 64%
Epidemiology (1/3) 33%
Genetics (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (2/3) 67%
Biophysics (2/3) 67%
Biochemistry (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Passmed