00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.

      Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?

      Your Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a circle breathing system, with patient supine breathing tidal volume breaths for three minutes

      Correct Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths

      Explanation:

      This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:

      Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
      Increased closing capacity (CC)
      Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
      Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.

      Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - From the following statements, which is true of humidification? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following statements, which is true of humidification?

      Your Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME) can achieve up to 100% relative humidity

      Correct Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity

      Explanation:

      Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

      Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

      Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

      The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?

      Your Answer: Constant orifice, variable pressure - bubble flowmeter

      Correct Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters

      Explanation:

      There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      258.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.

    For...

    Incorrect

    • Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.

      For a standard 12-lead ECG, which of the following bandwidth and voltage combinations is the best?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bandwidth 0.05-150 Hz, voltage 100-4000 microvolts

      Explanation:

      The potential difference (amplitude) and bandwidth frequencies of bioelectric signals are typical.

      These are the following:

      ECG: A bandwidth of 0.5-50 Hz is usually sufficient in monitoring mode, but a typical diagnostic bandwidth is 0.05-150 Hz (up to 200 Hz) with a typical voltage range of 0.1-4 millivolts (100-4000 microvolts).
      EEG has a frequency range of 0.5-100 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5-100 microvolts.
      EMG has a frequency range of 0.5 to 350 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5 to 30 millivolts.

      Prior to display, these small signals will need to be amplified and processed further.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to...

    Incorrect

    • A 240 volt alternating current (AC) socket from a wall is used to charge a direct current (DC) cardiac defibrillator.

      Name the electrical component that converts AC to DC.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectifier

      Explanation:

      There are two types of defibrillators
      AC defibrillator
      DC defibrillator

      AC defibrillator,
      consists of a step-up transformer with primary and secondary winding and two switches. Since secondary coil consists of more turns of wire than the primary coil, it induces larger voltage. A voltage value ranging between 250V to 750V is applied for AC external defibrillator. And used to enable the charging of a capacitor.

      DC defibrillator,
      consists of auto transformer T1 that acts as primary of the high voltage transformer T2. Is an iron core that transfers energy between 2 circuits by electromagnetic induction. Transformers are used to isolate circuits, change impedance and alter voltage output. transformers do not convert AC to DC.

      Diode rectifier composed of 4 diodes made of semiconductor material allows current to flow only in one direction. Alternating current (AC) passing through these diodes produces direct current (DC). Capacitor stores the charge in the form of an electrostatic field.

      Capacitor is used to convert the rectified AC voltage to produce DC voltage but capacitors do not directly convert AC to DC.

      Inductor induces a counter electromotive force(emf) that reduces the capacitor discharge value.

      In step-down transformer primary coils has more turns of wire than secondary coil, so induced voltage is smaller in the secondary coil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

    Which of the following electrical component...

    Incorrect

    • A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

      Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement is correct concerning breathing systems? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct concerning breathing systems?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The reservoir bag can limit the pressure in the breathing system to about 40 cm of water

      Explanation:

      Mapleson classified breathing systems into A, B, C, D and E. Jackson-Rees subsequently modified the Mapleson E by adding a double-ended bag to the end of the reservoir tubing, creating the Mapleson F. A Mapleson E or T-piece does not have a reservoir bag.

      A Mapleson A system is a very efficient system for use during spontaneous ventilation. However, it is not suitable for use with patients less than 25 kg, due to the increased dead space at the distal / patient end. This system can be modified into a Lack system or coaxial Mapleson A, where the fresh gas flows through an outer tube (30 mm) and exhaled gases flow through the inner tube (14 mm).

      The adjustable pressure limiting valve (APL) or expiratory valve allows exhaled gas and excess fresh gas to leave the breathing system. It is a one-way, adjustable spring-loaded valve, and gases escape when the pressure in the system exceeds the valve opening pressure. During spontaneous ventilation a pressure of less than 1 cm of water (0.1 kPa) is needed when the valve is in the open position (not 2 cm of H2O).

      The reservoir bag is highly compliant and when over inflated, the rubber bag can limit the pressure in the system to about 40 cm of H2O.

      This is due to the law of Laplace, which states that the pressure will fall as the radius of the bag increases:

      Pressure = 2 x tension/radius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

    Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

    ...

    Incorrect

    • A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

      Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response

      Explanation:

      The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
      The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

      Zero-order:
      Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

      First-order:
      Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

      Second-order
      Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

      Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient...

    Incorrect

    • A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.

      At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Explanation:

      Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).

      The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.

      Calculations can be made as follows:

      Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
      2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
      2% of 100 = 2 kPa

      Altitude, pressure 50 kPa
      4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
      4% of 50 = 2 kPa

      High pressure at 200 kPa
      1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
      1% of 200 = 2 kPa

      Sevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles? ...

    Incorrect

    • A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched

      Explanation:

      The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.

      A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.

      Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.

      A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders

      Explanation:

      The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

      Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

      Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

      Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

      Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For...

    Incorrect

    • An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.

      The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.  
      End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
      Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa

      Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. 

      Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the FGF

      Explanation:

      End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.

      The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.

      Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.

      There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
      1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
      B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
      2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
      3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
      4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes

      Explanation:

      Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.

      The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).

      Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.

      Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.

      RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May lead to awareness if used inappropriately

      Explanation:

      When the emergency oxygen flush is pressed, 100% oxygen is supplied from the common gas outlet. This gas bypasses BOTH flowmeters and vaporisers. The flow of oxygen is usually 45 l/min at a PRESSURE OF 400 kPa.

      There is an increased risk of pulmonary barotrauma when the emergency flush is pressed, especially when anaesthetising paediatric patients.

      The inappropriate use of the flush causes dilution of anaesthetic gases and this increases the possibility of anaesthetic awareness .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X rays

      Explanation:

      Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.

      Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.

      Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tensile tests are performed on sections of one cylinder in every hundred

      Explanation:

      Medical gas cylinders are made up of molybdenum steel but not cast iron. They are checked and assessed at a regular interval.

      At least one cylinder in each hundred are tested for tensile, pressure, smash, twist and straightening.

      Nitrous Oxide cylinders contain a mixture of liquid and vapour at a pressure of approx. 4500 kPa or 45 Bar. Carbon dioxide cylinder contain gas at the pressure of 5000kPa.

      The filling ratio is the ratio of mass of liquified gas in the cylinder to the mass of water required to fill the cylinder at the temperature of 15ºC. In the united kingdom, filling ratio of liquid nitrous oxide is 0.75. The cylinders are usually attached to the anaesthetic machine. As nitrous oxide is an N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist that may reduce the incidence of chronic post-surgical pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation

      Explanation:

      The pulse oximeter provides a continuous non-invasive measurement of the arterial oxygen saturation. The light emitting diodes (LEDs) produce beams of red and infrared light at 660 nm and 940 nm respectively (not 640 and 960 nm), which travel through a finger (toe, ear lobe or nose) and are then detected by a sensitive photodetector.

      The light absorbed by non-pulsatile tissues is constant (DC), and the non-constant absorption (AC) is the result of arterial blood pulsation. The DC and AC components at 660 and 940 nm are then analysed by the microprocessor and the result is related to the arterial saturation.

      An isosbestic point is a point at which two substances absorb a wavelength of light to the same degree. In pulse oximetry the different absorption profiles of oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin are used to quantify the haemoglobin saturation (in %). Isosbestic points occur at 590 and 805 nm (not 490 and 805 nm), where the light absorbed is independent of the degree of saturation, and are used as reference points.

      The pulse oximeter is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation, and below 70% the readings are extrapolated. Pulse oximeters average their readings every 10 to 20 seconds and thus they cannot detect acute desaturation events. Consequently, they are often referred to as ‘lag’ monitors, due to the time delay in identifying the desaturation episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen cylinder (class CD) with an internal capacity of 2 litres, and pressure of 23,000 kPa, with a gas flow of 4 litres/minute.
      The ventilator also has a control resulting in an additional gas consumption of 1 litre/minute.

      How long will it take for the cylinder to empty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 92 minutes

      Explanation:

      The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2

      Where:
      P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
      V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
      P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
      V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.

      Substituting values into the equation:

      230 × 2 = 1 x V2
      V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ? ...

    Incorrect

    • What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The use of stannic oxide increases the accuracy of flowmeters

      Explanation:

      Flowmeters measure the rate at which a specific gas, that the flowmeter has been calibrated for, passes through. This calibration is done at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure with an accuracy of +/- 2%.

      Reading the flowmeter is done from the top of a bobbin (the midpoint of a ball). Oxygen is the last gas to be added downstream to the mixture delivered to the back bar as a safety feature. This prevents delivery of a hypoxic mixture.

      Inaccurate flow measurements occur when the bobbin sticks to the inside wall of the flowmeter. Stannic oxide has been used as a successful antistatic substance thus, reducing the aforementioned risk.

      Carbon dioxide being easily delivered is found on some older machines, but those attached flowmeters are limited by a maximum flow of 500 ml /min. Thus avoiding the delivery of a hypercarbic mixture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be...

    Incorrect

    • Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 ?m in diameter can be filtered out using heat and moisture exchanger (HME) with a typical pore size 0.2 ?m.

      Choose the most appropriate mechanisms of particle capture for most bacteria and viruses.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffusion

      Explanation:

      Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.

      Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 µm are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
      Red blood cell – 5 µm
      Lymphocyte – 5-8 µm
      Viruses – 0.02-0.3 µm
      Bacteria – 0.5-1 µm
      Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:

      Sieve:
      The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.

      Interception:
      When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
      Diffusion:

      A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
      By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1µm diameter), this is more common.

      Electrostatic:

      These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.

      Impaction due to inertia:

      When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - When compared to unipolar diathermy, which of the following is more specific to...

    Incorrect

    • When compared to unipolar diathermy, which of the following is more specific to bipolar diathermy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a power output of up to 140 joules per second

      Explanation:

      Electrocautery, also known as diathermy, is a technique for coagulation, tissue cutting, and fulguration that uses a high-frequency current to generate heat (cell destruction from dehydration).

      The two electrodes in bipolar diathermy are the tips of forceps, and current passes between the tips rather than through the patient. Bipolar diathermy’s power output (40-140 W) is lower than unipolar diathermy’s typical output (400 W). There is no earthing in the bipolar circuit.

      A cutting electrode and a indifferent electrode in the form of a metal plate are used in unipolar diathermy. The high-frequency current completes a circuit by passing through the patient from the active electrode to the metal plate. When used correctly, the current density at the indifferent electrode is low, and the patient is unlikely to be burned. Between the patient plate and the earth is placed an isolating capacitor. This has a low impedance to a high frequency current, such as diathermy current, and is used in modern diathermy machines. The capacitor has a high impedance to current at 50 Hz, which protects the patient from electrical shock.

      High frequency currents (500 KHz – 1 MHz) are used in both unipolar and bipolar diathermy, which can cause tissue damage and interfere with pacemaker function (less so with bipolar diathermy).

      The effect of diathermy is determined by the current density and waveform employed. The current is a pulsed square wave pattern in coagulation mode and a continuous square wave pattern in cutting mode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding anaesthetic breathing circuits, which one would be the best for spontaneous breathing?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding anaesthetic breathing circuits, which one would be the best for spontaneous breathing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack circuit

      Explanation:

      Among the breathing circuits, the Lack circuit is the most efficient for spontaneous breathing.

      An outer coaxial tube is present to deliver fresh air; exhaust air is routed to an inner tube, which is then delivered to a scavenging system. An expiratory valve is seen at the patient end, which is an advantage over other circuits. Moreover, the Lack circuit prevents rebreathing slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation at 4-5 litres per minute.

      The Bain circuit prevents rebreathing at 160-200ml/kg per minute, and is a co-axial version of the Mapleson D circuit.

      The Mapleson E circuit prevent rebreathing at a fresh gas flow (FGF) of approximately twice the patient’s normal minute volume. A modification of this, the Mapleson F, has a reservoir bag at the opposite end for the FGF. This circuit is appropriate for paediatric patients with a body weight less than 20 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform...

    Incorrect

    • With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform nerve blocking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The nerve stimulators deliver a stimulus lasting for 1-2 milliseconds (not second) to perform nerve blockage.

      There are just 2 leads (not 3); one for the skin and other for the needle.

      Prior to the administration of the local anaesthesia, a current of 0.25 – 0.5 mA (not 1-2mA) at the frequency of 1-2 Hz is preferred.

      If the needle tip is close to the nerve, muscular contraction could be possible at the lowest possible current.

      Insulated needles have improved the block success rate, as the current is only conducting through needle tip.

      Stimulus to the femoral nerve which is placed in the mid lingual line causes withdrawer of the quadriceps and knee extension, that’s the dancing patella ( not plantar flexion).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation at 4.28 µm

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.

      End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.

      There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diameter of tube

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:

      1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
      2. Few directional changes
      3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
      4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
      5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminar

      Poiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted in the surgery department for an elective total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection. The operation is expected to last for 10 hours.

      Which of the following is the most suitable humidifier to use in an anaesthetic circuit for this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)

      Explanation:

      Adequate humidification is vital to maintain homeostasis of the airway. Heat and moisture exchangers conserve some of the exhaled water, heat and return them to inspired gases. Many heat and moisture exchangers also perform bacterial/viral filtration and prevent inhalation of small particles. Heat and moisture exchangers are also called condenser humidifier, artificial nose, etc. Most of them are disposable devices with exchanging medium enclosed in a plastic housing. For adult and paediatric age group different dead space types are available. Heat and moisture exchangers are helpful during anaesthesia and ventilatory breathing system. To reduce the damage of the upper respiratory tract through cooling and dehydration inspiratory air can be heated and humidified, thus preventing the serious complications. Moreover, they are the most appropriate humidification devices used for routine anaesthesia.

      Gases can be bubbled through water to increase humidity. Passing gas through water at room temperature causes the gas to cool due to latent heat of vaporisation. The water bath can be heated. This improves the efficiency of the device and also reduces the incidence of bacterial colonisation.

      Nebulisers use a venturi system which employs the Bernoulli effect. A gas at high flow passes through a constriction causing the gas to accelerate, reducing its potential energy allowing other gases or liquids to be entrained. This can include medications or in the case of humidification, water vapour. The size of the water droplet produced by nebulisation determines where in the airway it is deposited. Standard nebulisers produced droplets of 4 microns in diameter and these are deposited in the upper airway and trachea. Efficacy can be improved by passing the droplets over an anvil which further reduces particle size. The most efficient form of nebuliser is the ultrasonic nebuliser. Here a transducer immersed in water and vibrated at a frequency of 3MHz produces1-2micron droplets. These particles easily reach the bronchioles and provide excellent humidification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient

      Explanation:

      The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.

      Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
      (i) electrocution
      (ii) burns
      (iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.

      Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.

      Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.

      Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
      The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
      The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
      Type B:
      can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
      Type BF
      Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
      Type CF
      Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.

      Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
      1 mA – tingling pain
      5 mA – pain
      15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
      50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
      75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.

      Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.

    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.

      Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy

      Explanation:

      A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).

      EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
      Asynchronous pacing
      Reset to backup mode
      Myocardial burns, and
      Trigger VF.

      Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.

      Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.

      Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.

      Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).

      A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between...

    Incorrect

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables.

      Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple

      Explanation:

      Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).

      All of the other connections are non-linear.

      For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.

      A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.

      A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.

      The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings

      Explanation:

      A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings

      18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub

      Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura

      Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure

      Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/3) 0%
Passmed