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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old woman, who had been taking a combined oral contraceptive for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman, who had been taking a combined oral contraceptive for 6 months, presented with inguinal pain and oedema of the left leg. Which of the following investigations would you recommend to help confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: D-dimer test

      Correct Answer: Duplex scan

      Explanation:

      Oral combined contraceptive pill (OCCP) is a drug used for birth control and treating a number of other conditions. Women who take the OCP have a higher risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), usually in the legs. Duplex ultrasonography is a safe and non-invasive technique which is used for diagnosing the presence of lower extremity thrombi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed she has glucosuria. Glucosuria may occur due to inadequate glucose reabsorption at:

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Glucose is reabsorbed almost 100% via sodium–glucose transport proteins (apical) and GLUT (basolateral) in the proximal convoluted tubule. Glycosuria or glucosuria is a condition of osmotic diuresis typical in those suffering from diabetes mellitus. Due to a lack of insulin, plasma glucose levels are above normal. This leads to saturation of receptors in the kidneys and glycosuria usually at plasma glucose levels above 11 mmol/l. Rarely, glycosuria is due to an intrinsic problem with glucose reabsorption within the kidneys (such as Fanconi syndrome), producing a condition termed renal glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55 year old lady underwent an uneventful appendicectomy. Two hours later, her...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old lady underwent an uneventful appendicectomy. Two hours later, her arterial blood gas analysis on room revealed pH: 7.30, p(CO2): 53 mmHg and p(O2): 79 mmHg. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Alveolar hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      In the given problem, there is respiratory acidosis due to hypercapnia from a low respiratory rate and/or volume (hypoventilation). Causes of hypoventilation include conditions impairing the central nervous system (CNS) respiratory drive, impaired neuromuscular transmission and other causes of muscular weakness (drugs and sedatives), along with obstructive, restrictive and parenchymal pulmonary disorders. Hypoventilation leads to hypoxia and hypercapnia reduces the arterial pH. Severe acidosis leads to pulmonary arteriolar vasoconstriction, systemic vascular dilatation, reduced myocardial contractility, hyperkalaemia, hypotension and cardiac irritability resulting in arrhythmias. Raised carbon dioxide concentration also causes cerebral vasodilatation and raised intracranial pressure. Over time, buffering and renal compensation occurs. However, this might not be seen in acute scenarios where the rise in p(CO2) occurs rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant...

    Correct

    • In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant neoplasm on biopsy. What microscopic findings are suggestive of malignancy?

      Your Answer: Invasion

      Explanation:

      Invasion is suggestive of malignancy and an even better option would have been metastasis. Pleomorphism is found in both benign and malignant neoplasms along with atypia and anaplasia. A height nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is suggestive of malignancy but not the best indicator. Malignant tumours are aggressive and growth rapidly. Necrosis can be seen in benign tumours if they deplete their blood supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Abnormal breathing is noticed in a of victim of a road traffic accident,...

    Correct

    • Abnormal breathing is noticed in a of victim of a road traffic accident, who sustained a head injury. The breathing pattern is characterised by alternate periods of waxing and waning tidal volumes with interspersed periods of apnoea. This breathing pattern is known as:

      Your Answer: Cheyne–Stokes breathing

      Explanation:

      Cheyne-Stokes breathing is an abnormal breathing pattern with breathing periods of gradually waxing and waning tidal volumes, with apnoeic periods interspersed. It is usually the first breathing pattern to be seen with a rise in intracranial pressure and is caused by failure of the respiratory centre in the brain to compensate quickly enough to changes in serum partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The aetiology includes strokes, head injuries, brain tumours and congestive heart failure. It is also a sign of altitude sickness in normal people, a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning or post-morphine administration. Biot’s respiration (cluster breathing) is characterized by cluster of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnoea. It is different from ataxic respiration, which has completely irregular breaths and pauses. It results due to damage to the medulla oblongata by any reason (stroke, uncal herniation, trauma) and is a poor prognostic indicator. Kussmaul breathing, also known as ‘air hunger’, is basically respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis and is characterized by quick, deep and laboured breathing. It is most often seen in in diabetic ketoacidosis. Due to forced inspiratory rate, the patients will show a low p(CO2). Ondine’s curse is congenital central hypoventilation syndrome or primary alveolar hypoventilation, which can be fatal and leads to sleep apnoea. It involves an inborn failure to control breathing autonomically during sleep and in severe cases, can affect patients even while awake. It is known to occur in 1 in 200000 liveborn children. Treatment includes tracheostomies and life long mechanical ventilator support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation...

    Correct

    • An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation over it still being intact. What is the injured nerve in this case?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Atrophy of the thenar muscles means injury to the motor supply of these muscles. The nerve that sends innervation to it is the median nerve. But the median nerve does not provide sensory innervation to the overlying skin so sensation is spared.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation to India. She had no erythema or tenderness. Her skin colour returned to normal over a period of 1 month. Which of the these substances is related to the biochemical change mentioned above?

      Your Answer: Homogentisic acid

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      The tanning process can occur due to UV light exposure as a result of oxidation of tyrosine to dihydrophenylalanine with the help of the tyrosinase enzyme within the melanocytes. Hemosiderin can impart a brown colour due to breakdown of RBC but its usually due to a trauma and is known as haemochromatosis.

      Lipofuscin gives a golden brown colour to the cell granules not the skin.

      Homogentisic acid is part of a rare disease alkaptonuria, with characteristic black pigment deposition within the connective tissue.

      Copper can impart a brown golden colour, but is not related to UV light exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with...

    Correct

    • A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with a stab wound in the anterior chest 2 cm lateral to the left sternal border. He underwent an emergency thoracotomy that revealed clots in the pericardium, with a puncture wound in the right ventricle. To evacuate the clots from the pericardial cavity the surgeon slipped his hand behind the heart at its apex. He extended his finger upwards until its tip was stopped by a line of pericardial reflection which forms the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this space.

      Cardiac notch: indentation of the ‘of the heart’ on the superior lobe of the left lung.

      Hilar reflection: the reflection of the pleura onto the root of the lung to continue as mediastinal pleura.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?...

    Correct

    • With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?

      Your Answer: The ciliary muscles are relaxed

      Explanation:

      Myopia or near-sightedness is a disease due to elongated eyeballs or too strong a lens. For far accommodation (focus of a distant object onto the retina), the lens needs to decrease its refractive power, or in other words, increase its focal length. This is done by relaxation of ciliary muscles which tightens the zonular fibres and flattening of the lens. Relaxation of the zonular fibres, rounding of the lens, shortening of the focal length and constriction of the pupil occurs during near accommodation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:

      Your Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?

      Your Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Nephrotic syndrome is a condition that causes proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia and oedema. Which of...

    Correct

    • Nephrotic syndrome is a condition that causes proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia and oedema. Which of the following is the cause of the oedema in these patients?

      Your Answer: Decreased oncotic pressure

      Explanation:

      The glomeruli of the kidneys are the parts that normally filter the blood. They consist of capillaries that are fenestrated and allow fluid, salts and other small solutes to flow through, but normally not proteins. In nephrotic syndrome, the glomeruli become damaged allowing small proteins, such as albumin to pass through the kidneys into urine. Oedema usually occurs due to salt and water retention by the diseased kidneys as well as due to the reduced colloid oncotic pressure (because of reduced albumin in the plasma). Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock? ...

    Correct

    • Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock?

      Your Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      At rest, the brain receives 15% cardiac output, muscles 15%, gastrointestinal tract 30% and kidneys receive 20%. However, if normalised by weight, the largest specific blood flow is received by the kidneys at rest (400 ml/min x 100g), making them highly vulnerable in the case of a haemorrhagic shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Normally, the O2 transfer in the lungs from alveolar to capillary is perfusion-limited....

    Correct

    • Normally, the O2 transfer in the lungs from alveolar to capillary is perfusion-limited. In which of the following situations does it become a diffusion-limited process?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Normally, the transfer of oxygen from air spaces to blood takes place across the alveolar-capillary membrane by simple diffusion and depends entirely on the amount of blood flow (perfusion-limited process). Diseases that affect this diffusion will transform the normal process to a diffusion limited process. Thus, the diseases which cause a thickened barrier (such as pulmonary oedema due to increased extravascular lung water or asbestosis) will limit the diffusion of oxygen. Chronic obstructive lung diseases will have little effect on diffusion. Inhaling hyperbaric gas mixtures might overcome the diffusion limitation in patients with mild asbestosis or interstitial oedema, by increasing the driving force. Strenuous (not mild) exercise might also favour diffusion limitation and decrease passage time. Increasing the rate of ventilation will not have this affect but will only maintain a high oxygen gradient from air to blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of prostate

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform...

    Correct

    • An old man fell and fractured a carpal bone articulating with the pisiform bone. Which bone was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer: Triquetral

      Explanation:

      The pisiform bone has an oval facet for articulation with the triquetral bone. The pisiform bone is a sesamoid bone, and is anterior to the other carpal bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On...

    Correct

    • A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On enquiry, there was found to be a history of recurrent pancreatitis, eruptive xanthomas and raised plasma triglyceride levels associated with chylomicrons. Which of the following will be found deficient in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lipoprotein lipase

      Explanation:

      The clinical features mentioned here suggest the diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia due to lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency. LPL aids in hydrolysing the lipids in lipoproteins into free fatty acids and glycerol. Apo-CII acts as a co-factor. Deficiency of this enzyme leads to hypertriglyceridemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis...

    Correct

    • A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Granulomas formed in tuberculosis are called tubercles and are made up polynuclear phagocytes, Langhans cells and epithelioid cells. Macrophages when enlarged, consist of abundant cytoplasm and have a tendency of arranging themselves very closely to each other representing epithelial cells. These enlarged macrophages are therefore termed as epithelioid cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Penicillins and cephalosporins (e.g. cefuroxime, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone) inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis through the inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking.

      Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin), tetracyclines, aminoglycosides and chloramphenicol act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis.

      Sulphonamides (e.g. trimethoprim, co-trimoxazole) work by inhibiting the synthesis of nucleic acid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology; Microbiology
      • Physiology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - When exposing the right saphenofemoral junction for flush-ligation of the saphenous vein, which...

    Incorrect

    • When exposing the right saphenofemoral junction for flush-ligation of the saphenous vein, which of the following is the most likely to be seen passing through this opening?

      Your Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Correct Answer: Superficial external pudendal artery

      Explanation:

      The saphenous opening is an oval opening in the fascia lata. It is covered by the cribriform fascia and It is so called because it is perforated by the great saphenous vein and by numerous blood and lymphatic vessels and the superficial external pudendal artery pierces it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity...

    Correct

    • A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity reaction with eosinophilia is most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Liver flukes

      Explanation:

      Usually a parasitic infection will be associated with a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

      Amyloid deposition will not cause an immune reaction.

      Organic dust will lead to a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

      Cell mediated as well as humoral immune mechanism play a part in syphilis, but they are do not specifically cause a type I reaction.

      Malaria is cause by plasmodium and is not cause of a hypersensitivity reaction.

      Atopic dermatitis will not be accompanied by eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An excision of a mass in the right parietal area of the head...

    Correct

    • An excision of a mass in the right parietal area of the head will be performed. In which layer of the scalp are the nerves and blood vessels located?

      Your Answer: Connective tissue

      Explanation:

      The scalp is the anatomical area bordered by the face at the front, and by the neck at the sides and back. The scalp is usually described as having five layers:

      1. The skin which contains numerous sebaceous glands and hair follicles.

      2. The connective tissue, a dense subcutaneous layer of fat and fibrous tissue that lies beneath the skin, containing the nerves and vessels of the scalp.

      3. The aponeurosis or galea aponeurotica, a tough layer of dense fibrous tissue which runs from the frontalis muscle anteriorly to the occipitalis posteriorly.

      4. The loose areolar connective tissue layer provides an easy plane of separation between the upper three layers and the pericranium.

      5. The pericranium is the periosteum of the skull bones and provides nutrition to the bone and the capacity for repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following morphological characteristic is a salient feature of a pure...

    Correct

    • Which of the following morphological characteristic is a salient feature of a pure apoptotic cell?

      Your Answer: Chromatin condensation

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is the programmed death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development. The changes which occur in this process include blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, chromosomal DNA fragmentation, and global mRNA decay. The cell membrane however remains intact and the dead cells are phagocytosed prior to any content leakage and thus inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year old girl?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      Hematocolpos means accumulation of blood in vagina and hematometra is accumulation of blood in the uterus. These are most likely seen with an imperforate hymen; which is seen I 1 in 2000 females. If spontaneous resolution does not occur, treatment involves making a hole in the hymen to allow discharge of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes,...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old female medical student presents with fever, lack of appetite, rashes, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus is in the herpes family of viruses and most people will become infected with EBV sometime during their lives. EBV commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, or mono, a contagious viral illness that initially attacks the lymph nodes in the neck and throat. When these tissues become less effective in fighting infection, sore throats, swelling of the nodes and fever may result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and...

    Correct

    • A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and a persistent cough. His blood smear showed an increase in cells with large bi-lobed nuclei. Which of these cells represent the one seen on the smear?

      Your Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are white cells that protect the body against harmful pathogens. They are mobile and are produced in the bone marrow, mature there and circulate in the blood for about 1-3 days, where they enter the tissues and transform into macrophages. They are characteristically identified by their large bi-lobed nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a diagnosis of perforation of the first part of the duodenum that resulted from a long standing ulcer. If this perforation led to the expulsion of the gastric content that resulted to the erosion of an artery found in this part of the duodenum (the posterior of the first part of the duodenum). Which of the following arteries is this most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The proximal part of the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery. This artery is found descending behind the first part of the duodenum after branching from the hepatic artery. If gastric content was to be expelled in the posterior portion of the first part of the duodenum, then this artery would be most likely to be damaged. The common hepatic artery and the left gastric artery are branches of the coeliac trunk that are found superior to the duodenum. The proper hepatic artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery also found superior to the duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery is found behind the pancreas as a branch of the aorta that is at the bottom of the L1 level. The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach. The intestinal arteries supply the ileum and the jejunum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle...

    Correct

    • A patient is unable to move their mandible to the left. Which muscle is affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Right lateral pterygoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Patients with paralysis of the right pterygoid muscle are unable to move their mandible laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old gentleman presents with diarrhoea for two weeks. He has no history of fever and the diarrhoea stops on fasting. Which is the most likely type of diarrhoea that he is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Osmotic

      Explanation:

      The different types of diarrhoea are:

      1. Secretory diarrhoea – Due to increased secretion or decreased absorption. There is minimal to no structural damage in this type. The most common cause is cholera toxin which stimulates secretion of anions (especially chloride), with sodium and water.

      2. Osmotic diarrhoea – Due to increased osmotic load, there is water loss. This occurs in cases of maldigestion syndromes, such as coeliac or pancreatic disease.

      3. Motility-related diarrhoea – Occurs in cases of abnormal gastrointestinal motility. Due to increased motility, there is poor absorption and this leads to diarrhoea. This is seen post-vagotomy or in diabetic neuropathy.

      4. Inflammatory diarrhoea – Due to damage to the mucosa or brush border, there is a loss of protein-rich fluids and poor absorption. Features of all the above three types can be seen in this type. Aetiology includes bacterial, viral, parasitic infections or autoimmune problems including inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:...

    Correct

    • The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:

      Your Answer: Calcaneus

      Explanation:

      The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      7.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Pathology (7/10) 70%
Physiology (11/11) 100%
Renal (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (3/3) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (7/9) 78%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (2/3) 67%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology; Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
Inflammation & Immunology (2/2) 100%
Head & Neck (2/2) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed