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  • Question 1 - A patient presents with a gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following microbes attaches...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following microbes attaches to gut mucosa via a specialised sucking disc:

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      Giardia lambliainfection occurs through the ingestion of dormant microbial cysts in contaminated water, food or via faceo-oral transmission via poor hygiene.
      Following ingestion of the cysts, the trophozoite emerges to an active state of feeding and motility. After the feeding stage they undergo asexual replication through longitudinal binary fission.
      They attach to the intestinal wall via a specialised sucking disc. The mechanism for diarrhoea in giardiasis remains unknown but could possibly be due to direct cytotoxicity.
      Giardial trophozoites and cysts pass through the digestive system in the faeces and are excreted. While the trophozoites may be found in the faeces, only the cysts are adapted for long-term survival outside the host.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      67.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals...

    Correct

    • A patent has weakness of humeral flexion and extension. A CT scan reveals that he has suffered damage to the nerve that innervates pectoralis major.
      Pectoralis major receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Lateral and medial pectoral nerves

      Explanation:

      Pectoralis major is a thick, fan-shaped muscle situated in the chest. It makes up the bulk of the chest musculature in the male and lies underneath the breast in the female. It overlies the thinner pectoralis minor muscle.
      Superficial muscles of the chest and arm showing pectoralis major (from Gray’s Anatomy)
      Pectoralis major has two heads; the clavicular head and the sternocostal head. The clavicular head originates from the anterior border and medial half of the clavicle. The sternocostal head originates from the anterior surface of the sternum, the superior six costal cartilages and the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. It inserts into the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus.
      Pectoralis major receives dual innervation from the medial pectoral nerve and the lateral pectoral nerve.
      Its main actions are as follows:
      Flexes humerus (clavicular head)
      Extends humerus (sternocostal head)
      Adducts and medially rotates the humerus
      Draws scapula anteriorly and inferiorly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Due to a traffic accident, a male patient was unable to lift his...

    Correct

    • Due to a traffic accident, a male patient was unable to lift his arm, indicating an injury at the glenohumeral joint. Based on the patient’s current condition, which nerve or nerves are may likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Axillary and suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      A suprascapular nerve injury causes numbness in the shoulder, as well as weakness in abduction and external rotation.

      Damage to the axillary nerve can result in shoulder or arm muscle weakness, as well as difficulty lifting the arm. This is because the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles, which are innervated by the axillary and suprascapular nerves, are responsible for abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 59-year-old man is about to...

    Correct

    • For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 59-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.

      Which of the following medications will enhance warfarin's effects?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.

      Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme potentiate the effects of warfarin, resulting in a higher INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibitors, use the mnemonic O DEVICES:

      O– Omeprazole
      D– Disulfiram
      E– Erythromycin (And other macrolide antibiotics)
      V– Valproate (sodium valproate)
      I– Isoniazid
      C– Ciprofloxacin
      E– Ethanol (acute ingestion)
      S- Sulphonamides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the earliest physiological effect that causes postural hypotension: ...

    Correct

    • What is the earliest physiological effect that causes postural hypotension:

      Your Answer: A fall in central venous pressure

      Explanation:

      When autonomic reflexes are impaired or intravascular volume is markedly depleted, a significant reduction in blood pressure occurs upon standing, a phenomenon termed Postural Hypotension (orthostatic hypotension). Orthostatic hypotension can cause dizziness, syncope, and even angina or stroke. When autonomic reflexes are impaired, blood pressure falls progressively after standing because the gravitational pooling of blood in the legs cannot be compensated by sympathetic vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be increased in which of the following:...

    Correct

    • The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be increased in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Factors increasing FRC:
      Emphysema
      Air trapping in asthma
      Ageing (due to loss of elastic properties)
      Increasing height of patient

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the following are indications for beta-blockers EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are indications for beta-blockers EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Prinzmetal's angina

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are contraindicated in Prinzmetal’s angina.Beta-blockers may be indicated in:HypertensionPheochromocytoma (only with an alpha-blocker)AnginaSecondary prevention after ACSArrhythmias including atrial fibrillationHeart failureThyrotoxicosisAnxietyProphylaxis of migraineEssential tremorGlaucoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding platelets, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding platelets, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes.

      Explanation:

      Platelets are produced in the bone marrow by fragmentation of the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The time interval from differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets averages 10 days. Thrombopoietin is the major regulator of platelet formation and 95% of this is produced by the liver. The normal platelet count is approximately 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal platelet lifespan is 10 days. Under normal circumstances, about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding aciclovir, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding aciclovir, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Aciclovir eradicates herpes simplex virus from the body.

      Explanation:

      Aciclovir is active against herpesviruses but does not eradicate latent virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A study investigating the risk of suffering a stroke in patients with atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigating the risk of suffering a stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation taking the new antiplatelet drug ticagrelor, compared with standard treatment with warfarin is done over a 2-year time period. 30 of the 300 patients taking ticagrelor and 20 of the 500 patients taking warfarin suffered a stroke over the 2-year period.

      One of these statements is true regarding the outcomes of this study.

      Your Answer: The absolute risk in the warfarin group is 0.1

      Correct Answer: Ticagrelor increases the risk of stroke

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk and relative risk are used to assess the strength of a relationship between a disease and a factor that may affect it.

      Absolute risk (AR) is the risk of developing a disease over a time period:
      AR = the number of events that occur in a group / number of people in that group

      The absolute risk reduction (ARR) is the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treated group (ART).

      ARR = ARC – ART

      The control group is the warfarin group, therefore the ARC is 20/500 (0.04).
      Treatment group is the ticagrelor group and ART = 30/300 (0.1).

      ARR = 0.04 – 0.1 = -0.06. This shows that treatment with ticagrelor increases risk of developing stroke. This is also termed a relative risk increase.

      Relative risk, or risk ratio, (RR) is used to compare the risk in the two different groups. It is the ratio of the absolute risks of the disease in the treatment group (ART) to the absolute risk of the disease in the control group (ARC):
      RR=ART /ARC

      Therefore RR = 0.1 / 0.04 = 2.5
      RR < 1 means the intervention reduces the risk of the outcome being studied
      RR = 1 means the treatment has no effect on the outcome being studied
      RR > 1 means the intervention increased the risk of the outcome being studied
      Since RR is 2.5, ticagrelor increases the risk of stroke.

      SUMMARY
      Absolute risk reduction is -0.06
      Absolute risk in warfarin group = 0.04
      Relative risk = 2.5
      Ticagrelor has no effect on stroke is incorrect because RR is not =1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following best describes the popliteal artery's course? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the popliteal artery's course?

      Your Answer: After exiting the popliteal fossa terminates at the lower border of the popliteus muscle

      Explanation:

      The popliteal artery divides into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries at the lower border of the popliteus after exiting the popliteal fossa between the gastrocnemius and popliteus muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room with a two-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room with a two-week history of shortness of breath, fevers, and malaise. A chest X-ray was ordered and the results confirmed the diagnosis of a right middle lobe pneumonia.

      Which of the following structures of the heart lies closest to the consolidation?

      Your Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      In its typical anatomical orientation, the heart has 5 surfaces formed by different internal divisions of the heart:

      Anterior (or sternocostal) – Right ventricle
      Posterior (or base) – Left atrium
      Inferior (or diaphragmatic) – Left and right ventricles
      Right pulmonary – Right atrium
      Left pulmonary – Left ventricle

      The silhouette sign of Felson is with respect to the right middle lobe. The right heart border should have a distinct appearance due to the right atrium abutting aerated right middle lobe. The consolidation in the right middle lobe has resulted in loss of this silhouette.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding antiemetics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Of the antiemetics, cyclizine is most commonly associated with acute dystonic reactions.

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine acts by inhibiting histamine pathways and cholinergic pathways involved in transmission from the vestibular apparatus to the vomiting centre. Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist which acts both peripherally in the GI tract and centrally within the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine-D2 receptor antagonist and acts centrally by blocking the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Metoclopramide and prochlorperazine are both commonly associated with extrapyramidal effects, such as acute dystonic reaction. Cyclizine may rarely cause extrapyramidal effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding postural hypotension, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding postural hypotension, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Postural hypotension usually causes a reflex bradycardia.

      Explanation:

      On standing from a prone position, gravity causes blood to pool in veins in the legs. Central venous pressure (CVP) falls, causing a fall in stroke volume and cardiac output (due to Starling’s law) and thus a fall in blood pressure. Normally this fall in BP is rapidly corrected by the baroreceptor reflex which causes venoconstriction (partially restoring CVP), and an increase in heart rate and contractility, so restoring cardiac output and blood pressure. Impaired autonomic nervous activity in the elderly accounts for the greater likelihood of postural hypotension. Any symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision or syncope is due to a transient fall in cerebral perfusion that occurs before cardiac output and mean arterial pressure (MAP) can be corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Excessive gastric acid output is detected in a patient with a history of...

    Correct

    • Excessive gastric acid output is detected in a patient with a history of recurrent stomach ulcers. It's possible that the patient has Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

      Which of the following statements about stomach acid is correct?

      Your Answer: The proton pump located in the canalicular membrane is vital to its secretion

      Explanation:

      The stomach produces gastric acid, which is a digesting fluid. The stomach secretes about 2-3 litres every day. It is involved in tissue breakdown, the conversion of pepsinogen to active pepsin, and the creation of soluble salts with calcium and iron, and has a pH range of 1.5-3.5. It also serves as an immune system by destroying microbes.

      The following substances are found in gastric acid:
      Water
      Acid hydrochloride
      Pepsinogen
      mucous
      Intrinsic factor

      The parietal cells in the proximal 2/3 (body) of the stomach release gastric acid. The concentration of hydrogen ions in parietal cell secretions is 1-2 million times that of blood. Chloride is released against both a concentration and an electric gradient, and active transport is required for the parietal cell to produce acid.

      The following is how stomach acid is secreted:

      1. Gastric acid secretion is dependent on the H+/K+ ATPase (proton pump) situated in the canalicular membrane. The breakdown of water produces hydrogen ions within the parietal cell. The hydroxyl ions produced in this reaction mix quickly with carbon dioxide to generate bicarbonate ions. Carbonic anhydrase is the enzyme that catalyses this process.

      2. In return for chloride, bicarbonate is carried out of the basolateral membrane. The ‘alkaline tide’ occurs when bicarbonate is released into the bloodstream, resulting in a modest rise in blood pH. The parietal cell’s intracellular pH is maintained by this procedure. Conductance channels carry chloride and potassium ions into the lumen of canaliculi.

      3. Through the action of the proton pump, hydrogen ions are pushed out of the cell and into the lumen in exchange for potassium; potassium is thus efficiently recycled.

      4. The canaliculi accumulate osmotically active hydrogen ions, which creates an osmotic gradient across the membrane, allowing water to diffuse outward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to treatment with aspirin at analgesic doses:

      Your Answer: Children under 16 years

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Aspirin (at analgesic doses) is contraindicated in:
      People with a history of true hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates (symptoms of hypersensitivity to aspirin or salicylates include bronchospasm, urticaria, angioedema, and vasomotor rhinitis)
      People with active or previous peptic ulceration
      People with haemophilia or another bleeding disorder
      Children younger than 16 years of age (risk of Reye’s syndrome)
      People with severe cardiac failure
      People with severe hepatic impairment
      People with severe renal impairment

      N.B. Owing to an association with Reye’s syndrome, aspirin-containing preparations should not be given to children under 16 years, unless specifically indicated, e.g. for Kawasaki disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte: ...

    Correct

    • What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte:

      Your Answer: 120 days

      Explanation:

      Erythrocytes have a normal lifespan of about 120 days. Mature erythrocytes are biconcave discs with no nucleus, ribosomes or mitochondria but with the ability to generate energy as ATP by the anaerobic glycolytic pathway. The red cell membrane consists of a bipolar lipid layer with a membrane skeleton of penetrating and integral proteins anchoring carbohydrate surface antigens. The shape and flexibility of red cells allows them to deform easily and pass through capillaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following best describes digoxin: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes digoxin:

      Your Answer: A positive inotrope and negative chronotrope

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation and flutter, and congestive cardiac failure. It acts by inhibiting the membrane Na/K ATPase in cardiac myocytes. This raises intracellular sodium concentration and increases intracellular calcium availability indirectly via Na/Ca exchange. The increase in intracellular calcium levels causes an increases the force of myocardial contraction (positive inotrope), and slows the heart rate (negative chronotrope).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Mannitol is primarily indicated for which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Mannitol is primarily indicated for which of the following:

      Your Answer: Cerebral oedema

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can be used to treat cerebral oedema and raised intraocular pressure. Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound and is, therefore, freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. It, therefore, increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain-barrier (BBB).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Prognosis is poor with only about 20% of patients cured overall.

      Correct Answer: Some patients may complain alcohol-induced nodal pain and pruritus

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the order in which blood passes through the nephron?

      Your Answer: Afferent arteriole→Glomerular capillary→Efferent arteriole→Peritubular capillary→Vasa recta

      Explanation:

      The nephron’s blood flow is as follows:
      Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta – Afferent arteriole – Glomerular capillary – Efferent arteriole – Peritubular capillary – Vasa recta

      The kidney is the only vascular network in the body with two capillary beds. With arterioles supplying and draining the glomerular capillaries, higher hydrostatic pressures at the glomerulus are maintained, allowing for better filtration. A second capillary network at the tubules enables for secretion and absorption in the tubules, as well as concentrating urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which patient group are most commonly associated with infection with Klebsiella spp: ...

    Correct

    • Which patient group are most commonly associated with infection with Klebsiella spp:

      Your Answer: Hospitalised patients

      Explanation:

      Klebsiella spp. are facultatively anaerobic Gram-negative rods, found in the normal intestinal and respiratory flora. These organisms are usually opportunistic pathogens that cause nosocomial infections, most commonly pneumonia and UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old asthmatic patient is seen in the Emergency Department following an acute...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old asthmatic patient is seen in the Emergency Department following an acute exacerbation. His symptoms start to improve when your consultant gives him a high dose of IV aminophylline.

      Which of the following is correct mechanism of action of aminophylline ?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase

      Explanation:

      Aminophylline has the following properties:
      Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases intracellular cAMP and relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchial airways and pulmonary blood vessels.
      Mast cell stabilization is achieved by using a non-selective adenosine receptor antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent...

    Incorrect

    • A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester.

      The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.

      She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:
      1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance
      2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility
      – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available
      – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possible

      The first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:
      1. Nitrofurantoin
      100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minute

      The second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
      1. Amoxicillin
      500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)
      2. Cefalexin
      500 mg BD for seven days
      Alternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 43 year old lady suffering with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura has a splenectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old lady suffering with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura has a splenectomy. She is advised to get the Pneumococcal vaccine booster every 5 - 10 years as Streptococcus pneumoniae has which of the following properties that make her prone to infection to this organism?

      Your Answer: It is gram positive

      Correct Answer: It is encapsulated

      Explanation:

      There is a lifelong susceptibility to increased risk of infection from a variety of organisms in patients with hyposplenism, especially in children under 5 years and those with sickle cell anaemia. Patients are most susceptible is to the encapsulated bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae type B and Neisseria meningitidis. Streptococcus pneumoniae is particular concerning as it can cause rapid and fulminant disease, which can be fatal. Malaria and animal bites that become infected also tend to be more severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 52-year-old man develops pneumonia 3 days following an admission for investigation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man develops pneumonia 3 days following an admission for investigation of chest pain. He has coarse left basal crackles and evidence of consolidation in the left lower lobe of chest X-ray. He has no known drug allergies.
      According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Nosocomial infections are defined as those occurring within 48 hours of hospital admission, 3 days of discharge or 30 days of an operation. They affect 1 in 10 patients admitted to hospital. Annually, this results in 5000 deaths with a cost to the National Health Service of a billion pounds. On average, a patient with hospital acquired infection spent 2.5-times longer in hospital, incurring additional costs of £3000 more than an uninfected patient. Intensive care units (ICU) have the highest prevalence of hospital-acquired infections in the hospital setting.
      The current recommendations by NICE and the BNF on the treatment of hospital acquired pneumonia are:
      Early onset infection(less than 5 days after admission to hospital): co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime for 7 days
      Late-onset infection(more than 5 days after admission to hospital): an antipseudomonal penicillin (e.g. piperacillin with tazobactam), a broad-spectrum cephalosporin (e.g. ceftazidime), or a quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
      If the patient developed a hospital-acquired pneumonia within 5 days of admission – co-amoxiclav would be the most appropriate choice.
      If the patient has developed a hospital-acquired pneumonia > 5 days after admission – ciprofloxacin would be the most appropriate choice from the list of options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 18 year old university student develops facial swelling and dark frothy urine. Urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 18 year old university student develops facial swelling and dark frothy urine. Urine dipstick demonstrates haematuria and proteinuria. Approximately 3 weeks ago, he was treated with oral antibiotics for a sore throat. His condition is most likely to be secondary to infection with:

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a postinfectious immune-mediated reaction secondary to infection with Streptococcus pyogenes. It typically occurs 2 weeks or more after acute/initial infection, and presents with haematuria, reduced urine output, peripheral oedema, proteinuria, and hypertension. Permanent kidney damage is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      576.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.

      Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Nicardipine

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.

      Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.

      The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.
      An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Fibrinoid necrosis is typically seen in which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Fibrinoid necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Malignant hypertension

      Explanation:

      Fibrinoid necrosis occurs in malignant hypertension where increased arterial pressure results in necrosis of smooth muscle wall. Eosinophilic and fibrinous deposits are seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient with history of recurrent herpes simplex outbreaks on his face and presents with ophthalmic herpes zoster and a painful vesicle on the tip of his nose?

      Your Answer: Nasociliary nerve

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson sign relates to involvement of the tip of the nose from facial herpes zoster. It implies involvement of the external nasal branch of the nasociliary nerve which is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates the apex and lateral aspect of the nose, as well as the cornea. Therefore, lesions on the side or tip of the nose should raise suspicion of ocular involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 45-year-old businessman returns from a trip to West Africa with headaches and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old businessman returns from a trip to West Africa with headaches and intermittent fevers. Thick and thin films are sent to the lab and a diagnosis is made of malaria. The patient is started on treatment but his condition deteriorates and he develops jaundice, renal failure and haemoglobinuria.
      Which of the following is the MOST likely causative organism? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Malaria is an infectious disease transmitted by female of theAnophelesgenus of mosquito. It is a parasitic infection caused by the genusPlasmodium. Five species are recognized as causing disease in humans;Plasmodium falciparum,Plasmodium ovale,Plasmodium vivax,Plasmodium malariaeandPlasmodium knowlesi.
      The classic symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, a cyclical occurrence of a cold phase, where the patient experiences intense chills, a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot and finally a sweating stage, where the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely. On examination the patient may show signs of anaemia, jaundice and have hepatosplenomegaly without evidence of lymphadenopathy.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious form and is responsible for most deaths. Severe or complicated malaria is suggested by the presence of impaired consciousness, seizures, hypoglycaemia, anaemia, renal impairment, respiratory distress and spontaneous bleeding.
      Plasmodium falciparum is the most likely type in this case in view of the presentation.
      Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of blackwater fever, which is caused byPlasmodium falciparum. An autoimmune reaction between the parasite and quinine causes haemolysis, haemoglobinuria, jaundice and renal failure. This can be fatal.
      The benign malarias: P.vivax, P. malariae and P.ovale are usually treated with chloroquine. A course of primaquine is also required in P.vivax and P.ovale infection. Artesunate is the drug treatment of choice for Plasmodium falciparum malaria. Quinine can still be used where artesunate is not available. Often combination therapy with drugs such as doxycycline or fansidar is also required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 38-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto her back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that she has pain on hip flexion, but normal hip adduction. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Pectineus

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The hip adductors are a group of five muscles located in the medial compartment of the thigh. These muscles are the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, and pectineus.

      The hip flexors consist of 5 key muscles that contribute to hip flexion: iliacus, psoas, pectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 36-year-old man who works in a farm presents with a deep laceration...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man who works in a farm presents with a deep laceration over the palm of his hand. A median nerve block was performed at his wrist to facilitate wound exploration and closure.

      Which of the following statements regarding median nerve blocks at the wrist is considered correct?

      Your Answer: The needle should be inserted approximately 2.5 cm proximal to flexor retinaculum

      Explanation:

      A median nerve block is a simple, safe, and effective method of obtaining anaesthesia to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index finger, middle finger, radial portion of the palm and ring finger. The median nerve lies deep to the flexor retinaculum and about one centimetre under the skin of the volar wrist.
      The palmaris longus tendon lies superficial to the retinaculum and is absent in up to 20% of patients.
      The median nerve is located slightly lateral (radial) to the palmaris longus tendon and medial (ulnar) to the flexor carpi radialis tendon.

      The procedure is as follows:
      – Check sensation and motor function of the median nerve. Wear gloves and use appropriate barrier precautions.
      – Locate the flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus tendons, which become prominent when the patient flexes the wrist against resistance. The palmaris longus tendon is usually the more prominent of the two tendons.
      – Needle-entry site: The needle will be inserted adjacent to the radial (lateral) border of the palmaris longus tendon just proximal to the proximal wrist crease. If the palmaris longus tendon is absent, the needle-entry site is about 1 cm ulnar to the flexor carpi radialis tendon.
      – Cleanse the site with antiseptic solution. Place a skin wheal of anaesthetic, if one is being used, at the needle-entry site.
      – Insert the needle perpendicularly through the skin and advance it slowly until a slight pop is felt as the needle penetrates the flexor retinaculum. When paraesthesia in the distribution of the median nerve confirms proper needle placement, withdraw the needle 1 to 2 mm.
      – Aspirate to exclude intravascular placement and then slowly (i.e., over 30 to 60 seconds) inject about 3 mL of anaesthetic. If the patient does not feel paraesthesia, redirect the needle in an ulnar direction, under the palmaris longus tendon. If paraesthesia is still not felt, slowly inject 3 to 5 mL of anaesthetic in the proximity of the nerve 1 cm deep to the tendon.
      – Allow about 5 to 10 minutes for the anaesthetic to take effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - All of the following typically occurs as part of normal passive expiration except:...

    Correct

    • All of the following typically occurs as part of normal passive expiration except:

      Your Answer: Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive expiration is produced primarily by relaxation of the inspiratory muscles (diaphragm and external intercostal muscles) in addition to the elastic recoil of the lungs.
      In expiration, several movements occur. There are:
      1. depression of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement),
      2. depression of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and
      3. elevation of the diaphragm.
      These result in a reduction of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. There is then a decreased intrathoracic volume and increased intrathoracic pressure and air is forced out of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What is the primary function of the mitochondria? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary function of the mitochondria?

      Your Answer: The production of lysosomes

      Correct Answer: The production of the cell's supply of chemical energy

      Explanation:

      The mitochondria is responsible for the production of the cell’s supply of chemical energy. It does this by using molecular oxygen, sugar and small fatty acid molecules to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by a process ss known as oxidative phosphorylation. An enzyme called ATP synthase is required.

      Transcription of ribosomal RNA occurs in the nucleolus

      Production of messenger RNA occur in the nucleus

      Production of lysosome occurs in the Golgi apparatus

      The post-translational processing of newly made proteins occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - You review an 18-months-old child who seems to be having a reaction following...

    Correct

    • You review an 18-months-old child who seems to be having a reaction following an immunisation she took earlier in the day.

      Which statement concerning immunity and vaccination is true?

      Your Answer: The strongest immunological response is seen with natural immunity

      Explanation:

      Vaccination induces ACTIVE adaptive immunity. Actively acquired immunity involves the development of an immune response either due to vaccination or natural exposure to a pathogen and leads to long-lasting resistance to infection.

      Immediate protection is achieved with injection of immunoglobulin. The protection is transient lasting only a few weeks and is useful as post-exposure prophylaxis.

      Passively acquired immunity usually leads to short-lasting resistance to infection because it does not involve a host immune response.

      With inactivated bacteria, a series of primary vaccinations is usually required to induce an adequate immune response. In most cases, boosters are required to sustain adequate immunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 64-year-old lady attends the emergency department with a known brain tumour. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old lady attends the emergency department with a known brain tumour. Her left eye is directed outwards and downwards, she can't open it, and her pupil is fixed and dilated. The tumour is most likely compressing which of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Optic nerve

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve. It is the main source of innervation to the extraocular muscles and also contains parasympathetic fibres which relay in the ciliary ganglion. Damage to the third cranial nerve may cause diplopia, pupil mydriasis, and/or upper eyelid ptosis. The clinical manifestations of third cranial nerve dysfunction reflect its constituent parts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 28-year-old woman in her second trimester is diagnosed with a psychiatric illness....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman in her second trimester is diagnosed with a psychiatric illness. She is started on treatment with a drug. The treatment results in her baby being born with poor tone, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, and a goitre

      Out of the following, which drug is most likely responsible for the baby's condition?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy and postpartum, lithium is an effective treatment for relapse prevention in bipolar disorder. However, lithium has also been associated with risks during pregnancy for both the mother and the unborn child. Recent large studies have confirmed the association between first-trimester lithium exposure and an increased risk of congenital malformations.

      Lithium levels need to be monitored more frequently throughout pregnancy and the postnatal period.

      If given in the 1st-trimester, lithium is associated with a risk of fetal cardiac malformations, such as Ebstein’s anomaly.

      If given in the 2nd and 3rd-trimesters, there is a risk of the following:
      1. hypotonia
      2. lethargy
      3. feeding problems
      4. hypothyroidism
      5. goitre
      6. nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in the neonate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - You review a 34-year-old man with lower back pain and plan to prescribe...

    Correct

    • You review a 34-year-old man with lower back pain and plan to prescribe him ibuprofen and codeine phosphate. His only past medical history of note is depression, for which he takes fluoxetine.
      Which of the following scenarios would prompt you to consider the co-prescription of a PPI for gastro-protection? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Co-prescription of fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Patients at risk of gastro-intestinal ulceration (including the elderly) who need NSAID treatment should receive gastroprotective treatment. The current recommendations by NICE suggest that gastro-protection should be considered if patients have ≥1 of the following:
      Using maximum recommended dose of an NSAID
      Aged 65 or older
      History of peptic ulcer or GI bleeding
      Concomitant use of medications that increase risk:
      Low dose aspirin
      Anticoagulants
      Corticosteroids
      Anti-depressants including SSRIs and SNRIs
      Requirements for prolonged NSAID usage:
      Patients with OA or RA at any age
      Long-term back pain if older than 45
      It is suggested that if required, either omeprazole 20 mg daily or lansoprazole 15-30 mg daily should be the PPIs of choice.
      This patient is on 400 mg of ibuprofen TDS, but the maximum recommended dose of ibuprofen is 2.4 g daily. Co-prescription of codeine, raised BMI, and a family history of peptic ulceration would also not prompt gastro-protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following is NOT a common effect of etomidate: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common effect of etomidate:

      Your Answer: Significant hypotension

      Explanation:

      Etomidate causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol during induction. However, it is associated with a high incidence of extraneous muscle movements, which can be minimised by an opioid analgesic or a short-acting benzodiazepine given prior to induction. Pain on injection is common and there is a high rate of thrombophlebitis in the postoperative period. Postoperative nausea and vomiting commonly occur. Etomidate suppresses adrenocortical function, particularly during continuous administration, and it should not be used for maintenance of anaesthesia. It should be used with caution in patients with underlying adrenal insufficiency, for example, those with sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium...

    Correct

    • Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium and phosphate control. Vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

      Which enzyme hydroxylates 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?

      Your Answer: 1-alpha-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      The hormone-active metabolite of vitamin D is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (commonly known as calcitriol). Its activities raise calcium and phosphate levels in the bloodstream.

      In the presence of UVB light, 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted to cholecalciferol in the epidermal layer of the skin, resulting in 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

      Cholecalciferol is then converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the endoplasmic reticulum of liver hepatocytes by 25-hydroxylase (calcifediol).

      Finally, 1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney. The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is induced by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.

      The following are the primary effects of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol:
      Calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine is increased.
      Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is increased.
      Increases phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys.
      Increases the action of osteoclastic bacteria (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
      Inhibits the action of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the kidneys (negative feedback)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of...

    Correct

    • A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the posterior triangle of the neck.
      Which of the following muscles is LEAST likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Sternohyoid

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:
      Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid muscles
      Organs: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid gland
      Arteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteries
      Veins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veins
      Nerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerve

      The posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.
      Contents:
      Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodes
      Nerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Gastrin release from antral G-cells is stimulated by all but which one of...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin release from antral G-cells is stimulated by all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Vagal stimulation

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Gastrin secretion is stimulated by:
      The presence of small peptides and amino acids in chyme
      Gastric distension
      Vagal stimulation directly via acetylcholine and indirectly via gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP)
      Raised gastric pH

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), increased cough, wheeze and chest tightness. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and oxygen saturation is 86%. You plan to administer supplemental oxygen.

      Which oxygen delivery system is most appropriate to use initially?

      Your Answer: Venturi mask

      Explanation:

      In life-threatening emergencies, oxygen should be started immediately otherwise, it should be prescribed like any other drug. The prescription should include a target saturation range.

      Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be administered using a controlled concentration of 24% or 28%.
      The ideal mask is a Venturi mask.

      The other mask are not ideal for initial use

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone...

    Incorrect

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone pattern in leads V2, V3 and V4?

      Your Answer: Posterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      Tombstoning ST elevation myocardial infarction can be described as a STEMI characterized by tombstoning ST-segment elevation. This myocardial infarction is associated with extensive myocardial damage, reduced left ventricle function, serious hospital complications and poor prognosis. Tombstoning ECG pattern is a notion beyond morphological difference and is associated with more serious clinical results.

      Studies have shown that tombstoning is more commonly found in anterior than non-anterior STEMI, thus, higher rates of left anterior descending artery disease are observed in patients with tombstoning pattern.

      The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction:

      ECG Leads Location Vessel involved
      V1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%)
      I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex artery
      V1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:

      Your Answer: Resting tremor

      Explanation:

      An intention tremor is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction. Resting tremor may be seen in Parkinsonism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is the pathophysiology of Cushing's syndrome: ...

    Correct

    • What is the pathophysiology of Cushing's syndrome:

      Your Answer: Glucocorticoid excess

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is the name given to the clinical symptoms and signs induced by chronic glucocorticoid excess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of thiopental sodium:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of thiopental sodium:

      Your Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      Extravasation of thiopental during injection can lead to tissue damage. Accidental intra-arterial injection causes vasospasm and may lead to thrombosis and tissue necrosis. Other side effects include involuntary muscle movements on induction, cough and laryngospasm, arrhythmias, hypotension, headache and hypersensitivity reactions. Thiopental sodium has anticonvulsant properties and does not cause seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except:

      Your Answer: They are independent of prevalence

      Correct Answer: A likelihood ratio less than 1 indicates that the result is associated with the presence of the disease

      Explanation:

      The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.

      The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.

      A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She states that she has also felt very itchy, particularly after a hot bath and that she is often dizzy and sweaty. On examination she appears plethoric and you note the presence of splenomegaly. Her blood tests today show that her haemoglobin level is 16.9 g/dl.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PCV), which is also referred to as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a clonal haematological malignancy in which the bone marrow produces too many red blood cells. It may also result in the overproduction of white blood cells and platelets. It is most commonly seen in the elderly and the mean age at diagnosis is 65-74 years.
      Patients can be completely asymptomatic and it is often discovered as an incidental finding on a routine blood count. Approximately 1/3 of patients present with symptoms due to thrombosis, of these 3/4 have arterial thrombosis and 1/4 venous thrombosis. Features include stroke, myocardial infarction, deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
      The other clinical features of PCV include:
      Plethoric appearance
      Lethargy and tiredness
      Splenomegaly (common)
      Pruritis (in 40% – particularly after exposure to hot water)
      Headaches, dizziness and sweating (in 30%)
      Gouty arthritis (in 20%)
      Budd-Chiari syndrome (in 5-10%)
      Erythromyalgia (in <5% – burning pain and red/blue discolouration of hands and feet)
      Increased incidence of peptic ulcer disease (possibly related to increased histamine release from mast cells)
      The diagnosis of PCV requires two major criteria and one minor criterion, or the first major criterion and two minor criteria:
      Major criteria:
      HB > 18.5 g/dl in men, 16.5 g/dl in women
      Elevated red cell mass > 25% above mean normal predicted value
      Presence of JAK2 mutation

      Minor criteria:
      Bone marrow biopsy showing hypercellularity with prominent erythroid, granulocytic and megakaryocytic proliferation
      Serum erythropoietin level below normal range
      Endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro
      The main aim of treatment is to normalize the full blood count and prevent complications such as thrombosis. Venesection is the treatment of choice but hydroxyurea can also be used to help control thrombocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 69-year-old woman with new-onset back pain was diagnosed with osteopenia, osteolytic lesions,...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old woman with new-onset back pain was diagnosed with osteopenia, osteolytic lesions, and vertebral collapse after undergoing a radiographic examination. Her laboratory results revealed anaemia and hypercalcemia. These findings most likely indicate what condition?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Myeloma

      Explanation:

      Bone pain, pathologic fractures, weakness, anaemia, infection, hypercalcemia, spinal cord compression, and renal failure are all signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma (MM). The patient’s condition matched the signs and symptoms of myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - What is the partial pressure of oxygen if it makes up 20.9 percent...

    Correct

    • What is the partial pressure of oxygen if it makes up 20.9 percent of the ambient air composition and the atmospheric pressure of ambient air is 760 mmHg?

      Your Answer: 159 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Ambient air is atmospheric air in its natural state. Ambient air is typically 78.6% nitrogen and 20.9% oxygen. The extra 1% is made up of carbon, helium, methane, argon and hydrogen.

      The partial pressure of any gas can be calculated using this formula: P = atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg) x percent content in the mixture.

      Atmospheric pressure is the sum of all of the partial pressures of the atmospheric gases added together: The formula for atmospheric pressure is: Patm = PN2 + PO2 + PH2O + PCO2. The atmospheric pressure is known to be 760 mmHg.

      The partial pressures of the various gases can be estimated to have partial pressures of approximately 597.4 mmHg for nitrogen, 158.8 mm Hg for oxygen, and 7.6 mmHg for argon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 10-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and stomach pain. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and stomach pain. She has a history of type I diabetes mellitus. On blood gas analysis, she has metabolic acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is diagnosed, and therapy is initiated. She becomes increasingly confused when intravenous fluids and insulin are administered.

      Which electrolyte imbalance is the MOST likely reason of the increased confusion

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Because of the shift of water from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment as a result of hyperglycaemia and increased plasma osmolality, dilutional hyponatraemia is common in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

      If intravenous fluids are not delivered with caution, hyponatraemia might worsen, which can lead to increased degrees of disorientation. Hyponatraemia has also been linked to an increased risk of cerebral oedema, especially if blood glucose levels drop too quickly following treatment.

      Headache, recurrence of vomiting, irritability, Glasgow Coma Scale score, inappropriate heart rate slowing, and rising blood pressure are the most common causes of death in paediatric DKA, and children should be monitored for the symptoms mentioned above. To prevent this from developing,  s low osmolarity normalization, attention to glucose and salt levels, as well as hydration over 48 hours, is necessary. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain pointing to angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) was administered, rapidly resolving her symptoms. Unfortunately, she develops a side-effect of the drug.

      Which one of the following is the side effect she is most likely to have developed?

      Your Answer: Flushing

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Glyceryl trinitrate
      2. Isosorbide dinitrate

      Side effects to nitrate therapy are common especially
      The most common side effects are:
      1. Headaches
      2. Feeling dizzy, weak, or tired
      3. Nausea
      4. Flushing

      The serious but less likely to occur side effects are:
      1. Methemoglobinemia (rare)
      2. Syncope
      3. Prolonged bleeding time
      4. Exfoliative dermatitis
      5. Unstable angina
      6. Rebound hypertension
      7. Thrombocytopenia

      Dry eyes, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 78-year-old man develops renal impairment and hearing loss after inpatient management...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man develops renal impairment and hearing loss after inpatient management for sepsis.

      Which of these antibiotics is most likely to have been used?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, acts by binding to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, and thus prevents initiation of protein synthesis.

      Two of its most notable side effects are reversible nephrotoxicity(caused by the inhibition of protein synthesis in renal cells, which causes acute tubular necrosis) and hearing loss (caused by damage to the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear).

      Both side effects are dose-related and occur commonly in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient....

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient. You consider giving him an atropine shot because he is severely bradycardic.

      Which of the following statements about the use of atropine is correct?

      Your Answer: It should be used routinely in the management of PEA cardiac arrest

      Correct Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      The most common cause of asystole during cardiac arrest is primary myocardial pathology, not excessive vagal tone, and there is no evidence that atropine is helpful in the treatment of asystole or PEA. As a result, it is no longer included in the ALS algorithm’s non-shockable section. Atropine is most commonly used in the peri-arrest period. It is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Heart failure

      Atropine is also used for the following purposes:
      Topically as a cycloplegic and mydriatic to the eyes
      To cut down on secretions (e.g. in anaesthesia)
      Organophosphate poisoning is treated with
      Atropine’s side effects are dose-dependent and include:
      Mouth is parched
      Vomiting and nausea
      Vision is hazy
      Retention of urine
      Tachyarrhythmias
      It can also cause severe confusion and hallucinations in patients, especially the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      145.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the neck inferior to the cricoid cartilage.

      Explanation:

      A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the median cricothyroid ligament (the medial part of the cricothyroid membrane), between the cricoid cartilage below and the thyroid cartilage above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive...

    Correct

    • You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive resuscitated patient. They make the decision to start a dopamine infusion.

      Dopamine primarily has which of the following effects at high doses (>15 g/kg/min)?

      Your Answer: Alpha-adrenergic stimulation

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.

      Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.

      Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.

      Because clearance varies greatly in critically ill patients, plasma concentrations cannot be predicted reliably from infusion rates.
      Dopamine is given as an intravenous infusion, and because extravasation can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing, a central line is usually used (especially at higher doses >240 g/min). In an emergency, however, dopamine can be administered through a large vein (cephalic or basilic) while a central line is being prepared. Alkaline intravenous solutions inactivate it, so sodium bicarbonate should not be infused with it.

      The following are the most common dopamine side effects:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A known epileptic is transported in status epilepticus by ambulance. On the way...

    Correct

    • A known epileptic is transported in status epilepticus by ambulance. On the way to the hospital, she took some diazepam.

      Which of the following statements about diazepam is correct?

      Your Answer: It crosses into breast milk

      Explanation:

      Diazepam boosts GABA’s effects, giving it sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle-relaxing properties. It can be administered orally, rectally, or intravenously.

      With a half-life of 20-100 hours, it is a long-acting benzodiazepine. Midazolam, oxazepam, and alprazolam are examples of short-acting benzodiazepines with a half-life of less than 12 hours (Xanax).

      If used in the presence of hepatic impairment, benzodiazepines can cause coma. If treatment is necessary, benzodiazepines with shorter half-lives should be used in lower doses. Diazepam is a sedative that crosses into breast milk and should be avoided by breastfeeding mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 30-year-old female presented to the Emergency Department after a fall during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented to the Emergency Department after a fall during a hiking expedition caused severe pain in her left arm and wrist drop. An X-ray revealed a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus, which most likely damaged the radial nerve.

      Which one of the following statements best describes the healing process of peripheral nerves?

      Your Answer: Schwann cells are able to regenerate axons from their cell

      Correct Answer: Peripheral nerve fibres regenerate at around 1mm per day

      Explanation:

      Peripheral nerves are nerves that lie outside the brain and spinal cord. Peripheral nerves readily regenerate, while central nervous system axonal injury does not spontaneously regenerate.
      If there is damage to the axons of peripheral nerves, the nerves will regenerate at a slow rate of 1 mm per day. The slow regeneration process may lead to muscle atrophy before regeneration is complete.

      Each peripheral nerve has a single cell body that supplies nutrients to the growing nerve fibre. The cell body does not undergo mitosis; only the axon is regenerated.

      Schwann cells of the peripheral nervous system provide support for this process, while the analogous oligodendrocytes of the central nervous system do not. Schwann cells themselves do not cause regeneration. Schwann cells provide myelin for myelinated fibres and surround non-myelinated fibres with their cytoplasm.

      If an axon is completely severed, as in the case of amputation, the axonal fibres regenerating from the cell body may never find their original route back to the muscle. Instead, they may form a traumatic neuroma, a painful collection of nerve fibres and myelin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 40-year-old man with episodes of blood in urine and flank pain that...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man with episodes of blood in urine and flank pain that are recurrent presents for management. He has a history of hypertension that is difficult to control and recurrent urinary tract infections. Other findings are: bilateral masses in his flanks and haematuria (3+ on dipstick).

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) presents with abdominal or loin discomfort due to the increasing size of the kidneys, acute loin pain with or without haematuria, hypertension, and male infertility. It is the most common cause of serious renal disease and the most common inherited cause of renal failure in adults.

      Alport syndrome has hearing loss and eye abnormalities in addition to symptoms of kidney disease.

      Renal cell carcinoma presents with additional features of unexplained weight loss, loss of appetite, fever of unknown origin and anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 57-year-old woman has presented with cough and shortness of breath. Her GP...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman has presented with cough and shortness of breath. Her GP had done some blood tests recently and told her that she had a positive ANA result.

      Which of these statements is true about anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs)? Select only ONE answer.

      Your Answer: The presence of ANAs in rheumatoid arthritis is suggestive of Felty’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Anti-nuclear antibodies are auto-antibodies directed against a variety of nuclear antigens. There are different staining patterns and each pattern is suggestive of a different disorder.

      Speckled staining is suggestive of mixed connective tissue disease.

      Nucleolar staining is suggestive of scleroderma, while homogenous staining is suggestive of lupus.

      Anti-double stranded DNA is suggestive of SLE while anti-histone antibodies are suggestive of drug-induced lupus.

      ELISA testing is cheaper but not the most accurate means of testing for ANAs. Indirect immunofluorescence testing is the most accurate.

      The presence of ANAs in rheumatoid arthritis is suggestive of Felty’s syndrome. Felty’s syndrome is characterized by a combination of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A patient with rash is examined. He has some redness of the skin...

    Correct

    • A patient with rash is examined. He has some redness of the skin that blanches when finger pressure is applied.

      What is the best description of this rash that you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Erythema

      Explanation:

      Erythema is redness of the skin or mucous membranes caused by hyperaemia of superficial capillaries caused by skin injury, infection or inflammation. Erythema blanches when pressure is applied whereas ecchymosis, purpura and petechiae do not.

      Ecchymosis are discolouration of the skin or mucous membranes caused by extravasation of blood. They are usually red or purple in colour and measure greater than 1 cm in diameter and do not blanch on applying pressure.

      A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin.

      Petechiae are discolouration of the skin measuring less than 3 mm in diameter

      Purpura are discolouration of the skin measuring between 0.3 cm and 1 cm in diameter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Fat necrosis is typically seen in which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Fat necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis typically occurs following either direct trauma or from enzymatic lipolysis in acute pancreatitis, where release of triglyceride elicits a rapid inflammatory response and fat is phagocytosed by neutrophils and macrophages with subsequent fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A novel anti-tuberculosis medicine was compared to standard treatment and shown to cut...

    Incorrect

    • A novel anti-tuberculosis medicine was compared to standard treatment and shown to cut the risk of death from 30 to 10 per 1000 people. How many patients would need to be treated (number need to treat (NNT)) in order to prevent 10 additional tuberculosis deaths:

      Your Answer: 100

      Correct Answer: 500

      Explanation:

      The risk of mortality in the control group (usual therapy) minus the risk of death in the treatment group equals the absolute risk reduction (ARR) of treatment.
      30/1000 minus 10/1000 = 20/1000 = 0.02

      NNT = 1/ARR = 1/0.02 = 50
      As a result, 50 people would need to be treated in order to prevent one additional fatality, and 500 people would need to be treated in order to avoid 10 additional deaths.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following is a clinical effect of hyperkalaemia: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a clinical effect of hyperkalaemia:

      Your Answer: Muscle weakness

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of hyperkalaemia may include:
      paraesthesia, muscle weakness or paralysis, cardiac conduction abnormalities and dysrhythmias.

      Clinical features of hypokalaemia may include:
      muscle weakness, muscle cramps, rhabdomyolysis and myoglobinuria, ascending paralysis resulting in respiratory failure, constipation, gut ileus with distension, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, impaired ADH action with polyuria and polydipsia, ECG changes and cardiac arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily transmitted by which of the following routes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily transmitted by which of the following routes:

      Your Answer: Respiratory droplet spread

      Correct Answer: Inhalation of spores

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcus neoformans is found in bird droppings and transmission is by inhalation of spores, thus the lung is the primary site of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Correct

    • The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type IV reactions includes:
      Contact dermatitis
      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
      Primary biliary cholangitis
      Tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test)
      Chronic transplant rejection
      Granulomatous inflammation (e.g. sarcoidosis, Crohn’s disease)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female visits her cardiologist complaining of a condition that has started since he started her on amiodarone for atrial arrhythmia. The cardiologist recognised that she is experiencing a side effect of amiodarone.

      Which one of the following conditions will this woman NOT have?

      Your Answer: Xanthopsia

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III potassium channel blocker used to treat multiple types of arrhythmias.

      Side effects include:
      1. pulmonary fibrosis
      2. blue discolouration of the skin
      3. phototoxicity
      4. corneal deposits
      5. hepatic necrosis
      6. thyroid dysfunction
      7. sleep disturbances
      8. peripheral neuropathy.

      Xanthopsia is a condition where the patient complains of seeing yellow lines and is seen in digoxin overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - An ambulance transports a 72-year-old woman to the Emergency Department. She is confused,...

    Correct

    • An ambulance transports a 72-year-old woman to the Emergency Department. She is confused, has been vomiting and having stomach pains. Digoxin is one of her medications.

      Which of the following claims about digoxin is correct?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic plasma levels are between 1.0-1.5 nmol/l

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat atrial fibrillation and flutter, as well as congestive heart failure. In cardiac myocytes, it works by inhibiting the membrane Na/K ATPase. Through Na/Ca exchange, this raises intracellular sodium concentration and indirectly increases intracellular calcium availability. Increased intracellular calcium levels have both a positive inotropic and negative chronotropic effect.

      Digoxin therapeutic plasma levels are typically between 1.0 and 1.5 nmol/l, though higher concentrations may be required, and the value varies between laboratories. At concentrations greater than 2 nmol/l, the risk of toxicity increases dramatically.

      In patients with normal renal function, digoxin has a long plasma half-life of 36 to 48 hours. This can take up to 5 days in patients with impaired renal function.

      Hypokalaemia, rather than hyperkalaemia, has been shown to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

      In the treatment of persistent and permanent atrial fibrillation, digoxin is no longer widely used. Beta-blockers, also known as rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, are now the first-line treatment for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Flumazenil is a reversal agent for which of the following groups of drugs:...

    Incorrect

    • Flumazenil is a reversal agent for which of the following groups of drugs:

      Your Answer: Opioids

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for the reversal of the sedative effects of benzodiazepines after anaesthesia, sedation and similar procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - The movement of molecules across the cell membrane relies greatly on active transport.

    Which of...

    Correct

    • The movement of molecules across the cell membrane relies greatly on active transport.

      Which of the following statements about active transport is correct?

      Your Answer: Active transport occurs in glucose absorption from the gut

      Explanation:

      The movement of a material against a concentration gradient, i.e. from a low to a high concentration, is known as active transport. Primary active transport is defined as active transport that involves the use of chemical energy, such as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Secondary active transport occurs when an electrochemical gradient is used.

      The sodium-potassium pump, calcium ATPase pump, and proton pump are all key active transport systems that use ATP. An electrochemical gradient is used by the sodium-calcium co-transporter, which is an example of secondary active transport.

      The sodium-dependent hexose transporter SGLUT-1 transports glucose and galactose into enterocytes. Secondary active transport is exemplified here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Regarding likelihood ratios, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding likelihood ratios, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Likelihood ratios, like predictive values, are affected by the prevalence of the disease in the population.

      Explanation:

      A likelihood ratio is a measure of the diagnostic value of a test. Likelihood ratios show how many times more likely patients with a disease are to have a particular test result than patients without the disease. Likelihood ratios are more useful than predictive values because they are calculated from sensitivity and specificity and therefore remain constant even when the prevalence of the disorder changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - What is the primary mode of action of Enoxaparin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mode of action of Enoxaparin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by enhancing the inhibition rate of clotting proteases by antithrombin III impairing normal haemostasis and inhibition of factor Xa. Low molecular weight heparins have a small effect on the activated partial thromboplastin time and strongly inhibit factor Xa. Enoxaparin is derived from porcine heparin that undergoes benzylation followed by alkaline depolymerization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following...

    Correct

    • A foot drop is a sign of damage to which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep fibular nerve was previously referred to as the anterior tibial nerve.

      It starts at the common fibular nerve bifurcation, between the fibula and the proximal part of the fibularis longus. Damage to this nerve can cause foot drop or loss of dorsiflexion since this nerve controls the anterior leg muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A patient is diagnosed with a Klebsiella pneumoniae infection.
    Which SINGLE statement regarding Klebsiella...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with a Klebsiella pneumoniae infection.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding Klebsiella pneumoniae is FALSE?

      Your Answer: Species with ESBLs are sensitive to cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Klebsiellais a genus of non-motile,Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteriawith a prominent polysaccharide-based capsule. They are routinely found in the nose, mouth and gastrointestinal tract as normal flora, however, they can also behave as opportunistic pathogens.
      Infections with Klebsiella spp. areusually nosocomial. They are an important cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), urinary tract infection, wound infection and bacteraemia. Outbreaks of infections with Klebsiellaspp. in high-dependency units have been described and are associated with septicaemia and high mortality rates. Length of hospital stay and performance of invasive procedures are risk factors forKlebsiellainfections.
      Primary pneumonia withKlebsiella pneumoniaeis a rare,severe, community-acquired infection associated with a poor outcome.
      Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis causes a progressive granulomatous infection of the nasal passages and surrounding mucous membranes. This infection is mainly seen in the tropics.
      Klebsiella ozanae is a recognised cause of chronic bronchiectasis.
      Klebsiella organisms are resistant to multiple antibiotics including penicillins. This is thought to be a plasmid-mediated property. Agents with high intrinsic activity againstKlebsiellapneumoniaeshould be selected for severely ill patients. Examples of such agents include third-generation cephalosporins (e.g cefotaxime), carbapenems (e.g. imipenem), aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin), and quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin). These agents may be used as monotherapy or combination therapy. Aztreonam may be used in patients who are allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics.
      Species with ESBLs (Extended spectrum beta-lactamase) are resistant to penicillins and also cephalosporins such as cefotaxime and ceftriaxone
      .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration?

      Your Answer: Chemical cardioversion of atrial fibrillation

      Correct Answer: Refractory ventricular fibrillation in cardiac arrest

      Explanation:

      IV Lidocaine is indicated in Ventricular Arrhythmias or Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (after defibrillation, attempted CPR, and vasopressor administration)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with an acute severe asthma attack. Following a poor response to his initial salbutamol nebuliser, you administer a further nebuliser that this time also contains ipratropium bromide.
      After what time period would you expect the maximum effect of the ipratropium bromide to occur? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: 30 -60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It can provide short-term relief in chronic asthma, but short-acting β2agonists act more quickly and are preferred.

      The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) can be added to β2agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β2 agonist therapy.
      The aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief in mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients who are not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug (e.g. tiotropium).

      Its maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use; its duration of action is 3-6 hours, and bronchodilation can usually be maintained with treatment three times per day.
      The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. It can also trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists but not with antimuscarinics. Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in: Men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder-outflow obstruction (worsened urinary retention has been reported in elderly men), People with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stages 3 and above (because of the risk of drug toxicity), People with angle-closure glaucoma (nebulised mist of antimuscarinic drugs can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Fusidic acid is primarily indicated for infections caused by which of the following microorganisms:

      Your Answer: Streptococcal infections

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcal infections

      Explanation:

      Fusidic acid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic used for staphylococcal infections, primarily topically for minor staphylococcal skin (impetigo) or eye infection. It is sometimes used orally for penicillin-resistant staphylococcal infection, including osteomyelitis or endocarditis, in combination with other antibacterials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

    Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding infective diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure

      Explanation:

      E. coli may cause several different gastrointestinal syndromes. Based on virulence factors, clinical manifestation, epidemiology, and different O and H serotypes, there are five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli, enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), and enteroadherent, which includes diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) and enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC). These five categories are sometimes
      collectively referred to as enterovirulent E. coli or diarrheagenic E. coli.

      Norwalk virus is part of the Caliciviridae family of viruses which are single-stranded RNA viruses and are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the US.

      Rotaviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis
      in infants and children. With the introduction in 2006 of a human-bovine rotavirus vaccine (RV5; RotaTeq, Merck), a delay in the onset of rotavirus
      season was seen. RotaTeq is a series of three oral vaccines beginning at 6 to 12 weeks of age. A second vaccine, Rotarix (RV1; GlaxoSmithKline, Middlesex, England), was approved in June 2008.

      Cryptosporidium causes an illness characterized by abdominal cramping, watery diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia. This organism is resistant to chlorine, so public swimming pools can be the source of an outbreak.

      G. lamblia has a worldwide distribution and has frequently been identified as the causative agent of outbreaks of gastroenteritis and traveller’s diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of less than 3 weeks?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      C. diphtheriae, which is the causative agent of diphtheria, is carried in the upper respiratory tract and spread by droplet infection or hand-to-mouth contact. The incubation period averages 2 to 5 days.

      Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.

      The incubation for Hepatitis A virus is approximately 1 month.

      The incubation period for Hepatitis C ranges from 2 weeks to 6 months.

      The period from infection to development of anti-HIV antibodies is usually less than 1 month but may be up to 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 26-year-old woman is currently 9 weeks pregnant. Upon interview and history taking,...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman is currently 9 weeks pregnant. Upon interview and history taking, she mentioned that she visited a friend whose child had just been diagnosed with slapped cheek disease.

      If the mother contracts an illness during pregnancy, which among the following is not known to cause fetal abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A usually doesn’t pose a special risk to a pregnant woman or her baby. Maternal infection doesn’t result in birth defects, and a mother typically doesn’t transmit the infection to her baby. HAV is almost always transmitted by the faecal-oral route and is usually acquired through close personal contact or via contaminated food.

      When a woman has chickenpox in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, there is a 1 in 50 chance for the baby to develop a set of birth defects. This is called the congenital varicella syndrome. It includes scars, defects of muscle and bone, malformed and paralyzed limbs, small head size, blindness, seizures, and intellectual disability.

      TORCH Syndrome refers to infection of a developing foetus or newborn by any of a group of infectious agents. “TORCH” is an acronym meaning (T)toxoplasmosis, (O)ther Agents, (R)ubella (also known as German Measles), (C)ytomegalovirus, and (H)erpes Simplex.
      Infection with any of these agents may cause a constellation of similar symptoms in affected newborns. These may include fever; difficulties feeding; small areas of bleeding under the skin, causing the appearance of small reddish or purplish spots; enlargement of the liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly); yellowish discoloration of the skin, whites of the eyes, and mucous membranes (jaundice); hearing impairment; abnormalities of the eyes; and other symptoms and findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics?

      Your Answer: Acute pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics have long been the cornerstone of pulmonary oedema treatment, with furosemide being the most commonly used of these drugs. Premedication with drugs that decrease preload (e.g., nitro-glycerine [NTG]) and afterload (e.g., angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors) before the administration of loop diuretics can prevent adverse hemodynamic changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the...

    Incorrect

    • When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the intervertebral foramina between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, as well as the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae, this causes back pain. Which pair of nerves is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Fifth cervical and fifth thoracic nerves

      Correct Answer: Fifth cervical and fourth thoracic nerves

      Explanation:

      The fifth cervical nerve passes between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, and the fourth thoracic nerve passes between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. Therefore, when the cancer metastasizes in this area, they are most likely affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - The average BP reading on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring for a 59-year-old Caucasian...

    Correct

    • The average BP reading on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring for a 59-year-old Caucasian man is 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).

      The first-line drug treatment for this patient would be which of the following? Please only choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.

      A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 59-year-old Caucasian man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A patient presents with a lump for a dermatological examination. There is a...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a lump for a dermatological examination. There is a circumscribed skin elevation measuring 0.3 cm in diameter seen on examination.

      Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Papule

      Explanation:

      A papule is a solid, well circumscribed, skin elevation measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A nodule is a solid, well circumscribed, raised area that lies in or under the skin and measures greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. They are usually painless.

      A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus.

      A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Superficial fibular nerve palsy results in which of the following clinical features: ...

    Correct

    • Superficial fibular nerve palsy results in which of the following clinical features:

      Your Answer: Loss of eversion of the foot

      Explanation:

      Damage to the superficial fibular nerve results in loss of eversion of the foot and loss of sensation over the lower anterolateral leg and the dorsum of the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 58-year-old man showing symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man showing symptoms of increase in weight, proximal muscular weakening and withering, easy bruising, and acne. You notice that he has a full, plethoric aspect to his face, as well as significant supraclavicular fat pads, when you examine him. His blood pressure is 158/942 mmHg, and his glucose tolerance has lately been impaired. His potassium level is 3.2 mmol/L.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids. Cushing’s syndrome affects about 10-15 persons per million, and it is more common in those who have had a history of obesity, hypertension, or diabetes.

      Cushing’s syndrome has a wide range of clinical manifestations that are dependent on the degree of cortisol overproduction. The appearance might be vague and the diagnosis difficult to detect when cortisol levels are just somewhat elevated. On the other hand, in long-term cases of severely increased cortisol levels, the presentation might be colourful and the diagnosis simple.

      Cushing’s syndrome has the following clinical features:
      Obesity and weight growth in the true sense
      Supraclavicular fat pads are fat pads that are located above the clavicle.
      Buffalo hump
      Fullness and plethora of the face (‘moon facies’)
      Muscle atrophy and weakening at the proximal level
      Diabetes mellitus, also known as impaired glucose tolerance
      Hypertension
      Skin thinning and bruising
      Depression
      Hirsutism
      Acne
      Osteoporosis
      Amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea

      Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater during the whole 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed. As a result, random cortisol testing is not an effective screening technique and is not advised.

      The following are the two most common first-line screening tests:
      Cortisol levels in the urine are measured every 24 hours.
      A diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome can be made if more than two collections measure cortisol excretion more than three times the upper limit of normal.
      Physical stress (e.g., excessive exercise, trauma), mental stress (e.g., sadness), alcohol or drug misuse, complex diabetes, and pregnancy can all cause false positives.
      Renal dysfunction, inadequate collection, and cyclical Cushing’s disease can all cause false negatives.
      The overnight low-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST) involves giving 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11 p.m. and measuring blood cortisol levels at 8 a.m. the next day.
      Cushing’s syndrome is diagnosed when cortisol is not suppressed to less than 50 nmol/L.
      It might be difficult to tell the difference between mild Cushing’s disease and normal cortisol production.
      False positives can occur as a result of depression, severe systemic sickness, renal failure, prolonged alcohol misuse, old age, and the use of hepatic enzyme-inducing medicines, among other things.
      False negatives are extremely uncommon in Cushing’s disease patients.

      A characteristic biochemical picture might also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome. The following are the primary characteristics:
      Hypokalaemia
      Alkalosis metabolique

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure...

    Correct

    • Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure when performing a carotid sinus massage?

      Your Answer: Thyroid cartilage

      Explanation:

      The common carotid artery runs through the neck and divides into internal and external carotid arteries on both sides near the upper thyroid cartilage. In emergency situations, carotid sinus massage is also used to diagnose or treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.

      During the procedure, to maximize access to the carotid artery, the patient is put in a supine position with the neck extended (i.e. elevating the chin away from the chest). The carotid sinus is normally positioned inferior to the angle of the jaw, near the arterial impulse, at the level of the thyroid cartilage. For 5 to 10 seconds, pressure is administered to one carotid sinus.

      Although pulsatile pressure applied in a vigorous circular motion may be more effective, continuous pressure is preferred since it is more reproducible. If the predicted reaction is not obtained, the operation is repeated on the opposite side after a one- to two-minute wait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - During swallowing, which of the following structures primarily closes the tracheal opening: ...

    Correct

    • During swallowing, which of the following structures primarily closes the tracheal opening:

      Your Answer: Epiglottis

      Explanation:

      The vocal cords of the larynx are strongly
      approximated, and the larynx is pulled upward
      and anteriorly by the neck muscles. These actions,
      combined with the presence of ligaments that
      prevent upward movement of the epiglottis, cause
      the epiglottis to swing back over the opening
      of the larynx. All these effects acting together
      prevent the passage of food into the nose and
      trachea. Most essential is the tight approximation
      of the vocal cords, but the epiglottis helps to
      prevent food from ever getting as far as the vocal
      cords. Destruction of the vocal cords or of the
      muscles that approximate them can cause
      strangulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall...

    Correct

    • You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall all of his medications, but he does know that he takes a diuretic.

      The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is inhibited by which of the following diuretics?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is a non-competitive, reversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase found in the cytosol of cells and on the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule. Bicarbonate and hydrogen ions are converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase, which then converts carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water. As a result, acetazolamide reduces the availability of hydrogen ions, causing sodium and bicarbonate ions to accumulate in the renal tubule, resulting in diuresis.
      The mechanism of action of the various types of diuretics is summarised below:

      1) Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide, bumetanide
      Act on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporters in the ascending loop of Henlé to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.

      2) Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
      Act on the Na.Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption.

      3) Osmotic diuretics, e.g. mannitol
      Increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect.

      4) Aldosterone antagonists, e.g. spironolactone
      Acts in the distal convoluted tubule as a competitive aldosterone antagonist resulting in inhibition of sodium reabsorption and increasing potassium reabsorption.

      5) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, e.g. acetazolamide
      Inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase preventing the conversion of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions into carbonic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - For which of the following class of drugs can neostigmine be used as...

    Correct

    • For which of the following class of drugs can neostigmine be used as a reversal agent?

      Your Answer: Non-depolarising muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Neostigmine is used specifically for reversal of nondepolarizing (competitive) blockade and is anticholinesterase. It acts within one minute of intravenous injection, and the effects last for 20 to 30 minutes. After this time period, a second dose may then be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant...

    Correct

    • An ambulance transports a 40-year-old man to the hospital. He ingested a significant amount of aspirin.

      In the early stages of an aspirin overdose, which form of acid-base problem should you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      When you take too much aspirin, you have a mix of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory centre stimulation produces hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis in the early phases. The direct acid actions of aspirin tend to create a higher anion gap metabolic acidosis in the latter phases.
      Below summarizes some of the most common reasons of acid-base abnormalities:

      Respiratory alkalosis:
      – Hyperventilation (e.g. anxiety, pain, fever)
      – Pulmonary embolism
      – Pneumothorax
      – CNS disorders (e.g. CVA, SAH, encephalitis)
      – High altitude
      – Pregnancy
      – Early stages of aspirin overdose

      Respiratory acidosis:
      – COPD
      – Life-threatening asthma
      – Pulmonary oedema
      – Respiratory depression (e.g. opiates, benzodiazepines)
      – Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Guillain-Barré syndrome, muscular dystrophy
      – Incorrect ventilator settings (hypoventilation)
      – Obesity

      Metabolic alkalosis:
      – Vomiting
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Multi-organ failure
      – Cystic fibrosis
      – Potassium depletion (e.g. diuretic usage)
      – Cushing’s syndrome
      – Conn’s syndrome

      Metabolic acidosis (with raised anion gap):
      – Lactic acidosis (e.g. hypoxaemia, shock, sepsis, infarction)
      – Ketoacidosis (e.g. diabetes, starvation, alcohol excess)
      – Renal failure
      – Poisoning (e.g. late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, ethylene glycol)

      Metabolic acidosis (with normal anion gap):
      – Renal tubular acidosis
      – Diarrhoea
      – Ammonium chloride ingestion
      – Adrenal insufficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into...

    Correct

    • A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into cardiac arrest. What changes in the ECG may indicate the incident of cardiac arrest in this patient?

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves and broad QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Severe hyperkalaemia can result in a heart attack or a life-threatening arrhythmia.

      T waves become narrow-based, pointed, and tall if hyperkalaemia is not treated.

      The QRS complex widens and eventually merges with the T wave, resulting in a classic sine-wave electrocardiogram. Ventricular fibrillation and asystole are likely to follow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 27-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with extensive...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with extensive bleeding from her upper arm following a fall from a bicycle onto a fence. On inspection her biceps brachii muscle has been lacerated.
      How will the muscle heal from this injury? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Scar formation with no myocyte regeneration

      Correct Answer: Satellite cells will produce a small number of regenerated myocytes

      Explanation:

      Muscle heals with fibrous tissue to form a scar. Once cut, it will never regain its previous bulk or power. Within the scar a small number of myocytes (muscle cells) may be seen, which are formed from satellite cells but they contribute little to the function of the muscle overall.
      In more widespread ischaemic injury, such as critical ischaemic limb due to arterial compromise, or in compartment syndrome, damaged myocytes are replaced diffusely with fibrous tissue. This fibrous tissue contracts and reduces movement, and in extreme cases can pull the limb into abnormal positions such as in Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Following a road traffic collision, a patient sustains damage to the long thoracic...

    Correct

    • Following a road traffic collision, a patient sustains damage to the long thoracic nerve. Which of the following clinical findings would you most expect to see on examination:

      Your Answer: Winged scapula deformity

      Explanation:

      Damage to the long thoracic nerve results in weakness/paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle. Loss of function of this muscle causes the medial border, and particularly the inferior angle, of the scapula to elevate away from the thoracic wall, resulting in the characteristic ‘winging’ of the scapula. This deformity becomes more pronounced if the patient presses the upper limb against a wall. Furthermore, normal elevation of the arm is no longer possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - What is the primary route of transmission of Norovirus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary route of transmission of Norovirus?

      Your Answer: Vector borne

      Correct Answer: Oral-faecal route

      Explanation:

      Norovirus is spread primarily by faecal-oral contact, but it can also be spread through contact with an infected person, ingestion of contaminated food or water, or contact with contaminated surfaces or items.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female complains of chest pain characteristic of angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is administered that resolves the chest pain rapidly.

      Which ONE of the following is released on the initial metabolism of GTN?

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide

      Correct Answer: Nitrite ions

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Glyceryl trinitrate
      2. Isosorbide dinitrate

      The nitrate drugs are metabolized in the following steps:
      1. Release Nitrite ions (NO2-), which are then converted to nitric oxide (NO) within cells.
      2. NO activates guanylyl cyclase, which causes an increase in the intracellular concentration of cyclic guanosine-monophosphate (cGMP) in vascular smooth muscle cells.
      3. Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.

      Although nitrates are potent coronary vasodilators, their principal benefit in the management of angina results from a predominant mechanism of venous dilation:
      – Bigger veins hold more blood
      – Takes blood away from the left ventricle
      – Lowers LVEDV (preload), LA pressure
      – Less pulmonary oedema → improved dyspnoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following:

      Your Answer: Pelvic splanchnic nerves

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic supply is from the pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2 – S4) and inferior hypogastric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female with a past history of rheumatic fever and a prosthetic mitral valve presents to you with fever and an episode of expressive dysphasia that lasted around 30 minutes. There is no history of known drug allergies On examination you note a systolic murmur and you suspect it is infective endocarditis.

      Which antibacterial agents would be the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin and ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis is infective or non infective inflammation (marantic endocarditis) of the inner layer of the heart and it often involves the heart valves.

      Risk factors include:
      Prosthetic heart valves
      Congenital heart defects
      Prior history of endocarditis
      Rheumatic fever
      Illicit intravenous drug use

      In the presentation of endocarditis, the following triad is often quoted:
      Persistent fever
      Embolic phenomena
      New or changing murmur

      A combination of vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamicin is advised if the patient has a cardiac prostheses, is penicillin allergic, or if methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is suspected. In this case the patient has a prosthetic valve making this the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.

      Flucloxacillin and gentamicin are current recommended by NICE and the BNF for the initial ‘blind’ therapy in endocarditis. This patient has prostheses and this is not the most appropriate initial treatment regimen.

      Other features that may be present include heart failure, splenomegaly, finger clubbing, renal features (haematuria, proteinuria, nephritis), and vasculitic features (splinter haemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, Roth’s spots).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      54.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (6/13) 46%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (14/18) 78%
Upper Limb (4/4) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (8/10) 80%
Pharmacology (26/33) 79%
Cardiovascular (7/8) 88%
Physiology (16/18) 89%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (2/2) 100%
Infections (2/4) 50%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/4) 25%
Lower Limb (3/4) 75%
Thorax (2/3) 67%
Central Nervous System (2/3) 67%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/3) 33%
Pathology (9/14) 64%
Renal Physiology (2/2) 100%
Pathogens (1/4) 25%
Respiratory Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Immune Responses (1/2) 50%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Inflammatory Responses (2/2) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (5/7) 71%
Basic Cellular Physiology (1/2) 50%
General Pathology (5/7) 71%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (0/1) 0%
CNS Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Anaesthesia (3/4) 75%
Endocrine Physiology (2/2) 100%
Head And Neck (3/4) 75%
Gastrointestinal (1/2) 50%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Statistics (1/2) 50%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Passmed