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Question 1
Correct
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An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a baseball bat. The soft tissue around his left eye shows significant swelling that obstructs the child's vision. A CT scan shows a fracture at the floor of the left orbit. This injury will most likely lead to an abnormal communication between the orbit and which of the following areas of the face?
Your Answer: Maxillary sinus
Explanation:The injury described in question leads to an abnormal communication between the orbit and the ipsilateral maxillary sinus – this is termed as a blow-out fracture of the orbit.The maxillary sinuses are found in the maxillary bone, inferior to the orbit. They are the largest of the paranasal air sinuses. The maxillary bone forms the floor of the orbit. This layer of bone separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus. As such, fractures of the floor of the orbit can be associated with herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. Other options:- The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone. They lie lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity. They are separated from the orbit by a very thin plate of ethmoid bone called the lamina papyracea, which is found on the medial wall of the orbit. The thin nature of this bone means it is commonly fractured in orbital trauma. However, this is the incorrect answer to the above question as a communication between the ethmoidal air cells, and the orbit is associated with fractures of the medial wall of the orbit, not the floor. – The frontal sinuses are found in the frontal bones, above the orbits on each side of the head. A large portion of the roof of the orbit is composed of the frontal bone and separates the orbit from the frontal sinus. Fractures of the roof of the orbit can be associated with communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The frontal bones are strong, and so fracture is associated with high-impact anterior trauma, such as a road traffic accident. – The sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland lies nestled within the hypophyseal fossa, with only a thin wall of bone separating it from the sphenoid sinus below. As such, neurosurgeons can gain access to the pituitary gland via the sphenoid sinus, in a procedure called transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. – The nasal cavity extends from the nares to the nasopharynx. It is found more medial and inferior than the orbits. It does not lie adjacent to the orbit at any point and so is unlikely to be involved in an orbital fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia does NOT occur in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spherocytosis
Explanation:Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia is a common clinical condition and can be categorized as conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from obstructive or hepatocellular causes mainly. The causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include inborn errors of metabolism like galactosemia and aminoaciduria, obstruction from choledochal cysts, and biliary atresia. Long term TPN also leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Spherocytosis is a hereditary condition belonging to the group of haemolytic anaemias, resulting from plasma membrane protein deficiency. This defect of the RBC plasma membrane decreases their life span, making them osmotically fragile and prone to haemolysis. This leads to an increase in the unconjugated bilirubin levels, with a risk of developing kernicterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right mainstem bronchus
Explanation:Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1–3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi| approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should be obtained as part of the overall consent to the study
Explanation:Randomization is one of the ethical protocols for research work, involving unbiased sample selection. Consent is required before undertaking any research and is taken for the complete research work at once. No separate consent is required for the process of randomization. The consent should explain each and every aspect of the study, including details about the process of randomization. Only particular study designs, like Zelen design, permit the avoidance of consent to randomization but these studies have their setbacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Erythema nodosum is NOT caused by which one of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), and drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides. Coeliac disease is not linked with the formation of erythema nodosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not have an increased incidence in adolescence for patients with Klinefelter's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Boys and men with Klinefelter syndrome typically have small testes that produce a reduced amount of testosterone (primary testicular insufficiency). Testosterone is the hormone that directs male sexual development before birth and during puberty. Without treatment, the shortage of testosterone can lead to delayed or incomplete puberty, breast enlargement (gynecomastia), decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, and a reduced amount of facial and body hair. As a result of the small testes and decreased hormone production, affected males are not generally infertile but may benefit from assisted reproductive technologies. Some affected individuals also have differences in their genitalia, including undescended testes (cryptorchidism), the opening of the urethra on the underside of the penis (hypospadias), or an unusually small penis (micropenis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with mild abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant for the last four months. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a 7cm simple ovarian cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional ovarian cyst. Ovary sparing cystectomy
Explanation:The most prudent course of action in the given clinical scenario is an ovary-sparing cystectomy. The history is 3-months and is already chronic. Furthermore, the cyst is greater than 5cm in size and at risk of torsion. This will relieve the cause of pain, reduce the risk of torsion and save ovarian function.Other options:- This is a simple cyst and not a malignancy, so imaging and referral are not indicated.- Open oophorectomy was done in the past. However, this is very aggressive, and the modern approach is ovary-sparing.- As the cyst is 7cm and at risk of torsion, conservative management is not appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally
Explanation:Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye. Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopiaExamination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers
Explanation:Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following actions will an 8-week-old infant born at full-term be able to do, considering normal development?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smile
Explanation:Among the options provided, an 8-week-old full-term infant with normal developmental milestones will smile in response to appropriate stimuli.Rationale:Smiles in response to appropriate stimuli are seen from around 6 weeks of age. A social smile, where the infant has an awareness that a smile attracts attention, is not observed until around 3 months of age.Other options:- At 6 weeks an infant is able to follow objects in the horizontal plane through 90 deg| fixing and following an object through 180 deg in the horizontal plane is a milestone achieved at 3 months, as is pushing up onto forearms. – Pushing up onto hands occurs by around 5 months.- Infants of 3 months should startle to a 60 dB sound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Explanation:Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise healthy and with a clear family history. He drinks sufficient amounts of fluids but is a fussy eater. Clinical examination reveals a mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Constipation is often associated with nocturnal enuresis in children. The palpable mass is the impacted stool. The decreased appetite is common in those with constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following descriptions qualifies as a diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: > 6 cafe au lait spots or hyperpigmented macules which are >5mm in children under age 10, and >15mm in children over 10
Explanation:Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm in postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase delta P
Explanation:The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea
Explanation:Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scurvy
Explanation:Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 1 year old child presents with barking cough, coryza and shortness of breath. What will be the most likely outcome associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Natural resolution
Explanation:Croup is the most common aetiology for hoarseness, cough, and onset of acute stridor in febrile children. Symptoms of coryza may be absent, mild, or marked. The vast majority of children with croup recover without consequences or sequelae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Scarring type of alopecia occurs in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discoid lupus
Explanation:Alopecia is a scalp condition characterized by either overall baldness or patches of hair loss over the head. It can be broadly classified as scarring alopecia and non-scarring alopecia. Non-scarring is the most common type and is seen in various conditions like nutritional deficiencies, alopecia areata, hypothyroidism, tinea capitis, and SLE. Scarring alopecia is commonly seen in cases of discoid lupus erythematosus, which is a common cause of widespread inflammatory and scarring lesions all over the body and scalp.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the most common position of the appendix?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retrocecal
Explanation:The most common position of the appendix is the retrocecal position.Note: If a retrocecal appendix is difficult to remove, then mobilisation of the right colon significantly improves access.Other options:The various positions of the appendix are:- Retrocecal (74%)- Pelvic (21%)- Postileal- Subcaecal- Paracaecal- Preileal
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates milk after a feed, especially when laying on her back. Doctors suspect gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR). What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the parents
Explanation:Most experts suggest that parents reassurance in case of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a sufficient initial measure that involves education about regurgitation and lifestyle changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should be performed before the study commences
Explanation:Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 5 month old boy is admitted with recurrent, brief grand mal seizures. Cranial CT reveals various circular lesions and renal ultrasound shows discrete cysts. Family history reveals that his father has had a renal transplant and has profound acne-like spots on his nose and cheeks. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis presents with the growth of numerous noncancerous (benign) tumours in many parts of the body. They may appear in the brain, kidneys, skin or various other organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with a history of fainting. Physical examination shows a male habitus, height above 75th percentile, weight and occipitofrontal circumference both below 50th percentile. Pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum can be seen. Hand joints are markedly flexible, and fingers show arachnodactyly. His palate is high arched. ophthalmoscopic examination reveals ectopia lentis. On auscultation, a 2/6 soft, systolic ejection murmur can be heard at the upper right 2nd intercostal space which radiates to the carotids. BP is normal, and so are the respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations. investigations show a dilated aorta. HIs cerebral MRI scan, magnetic resonance angiography, ECG and blood tests are unremarkable. From the information provided, the boy most likely has which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Marfan syndrome are usually tall and slender, have elongated fingers and toes (arachnodactyly), loose joints, and have an arm span that exceeds their body height. Other common features include a long and narrow face, crowded teeth, an abnormal curvature of the spine (scoliosis or kyphosis), stretch marks (striae) not related to weight gain or loss, and either a sunken chest (pectus excavatum) or a protruding chest (pectus carinatum). Some individuals develop an abnormal accumulation of air in the chest cavity that can result in the collapse of a lung (spontaneous pneumothorax). A membrane called the dura, which surrounds the brain and spinal cord, can be abnormally enlarged (dural ectasia) in people with Marfan syndrome. Dural ectasia can cause pain in the back, abdomen, legs, or head. Most individuals with Marfan syndrome have some degree of near-sightedness (myopia). Clouding of the lens (cataract) may occur in mid-adulthood, and increased pressure within the eye (glaucoma) occurs more frequently in people with Marfan syndrome than in those without the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding crossover trials, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are best for assessing the efficacy of different treatments in giving short-term relief of chronic conditions
Explanation:Crossover trials are characterized by the switching of study participants throughout the treatment groups, keeping a random order of switching. This randomization is important to determine any carry-over effect of different treatment modalities. The benefit of this study is the evaluation of the efficacy of various short-term treatment options for the relief of chronic conditions. The washout period is small in this type of study. Crossover studies are more efficient than the parallel studies, but they should be used according to the treatment options and outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome presents with oedema, low serum albumin and proteinuria. In which of the following circumstances is albumin infusion indicated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Capillary refill time of 5 seconds
Explanation:In nephrotic syndrome, one of the main pathological processes is the excretion of protein by the kidneys. The resultant signs including| low serum albumin, oedema and hypovolemia all occur as a result of fluid escaping into the extracellular space due to a low oncotic pressure. While an albumin infusion may help to increase oncotic pressure, its indications specifically include hypovolemia, which is assessed by a capillary refill time more than 5 seconds, an elevated haematocrit, or severe symptomatic oedema, such as scrotal oedema. Hypertension not an indication for an infusion, and most patients needing an albumin infusion have oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L3
Explanation:The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy presents with a purpuric rash on his legs and buttocks, and coffee ground emesis. The joints of his body are also painful. Blood testing reveals mild eosinophilia and a small rise in IgA levels. Urine testing reveals microscopic haematuria. Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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