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  • Question 1 - The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the? ...

    Correct

    • The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the?

      Your Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by S1,2,4 anterior branches. It gives off the inferior haemorrhoid nerve before dividing terminally into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris or the penis. Thus, it is the principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be...

    Correct

    • Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?

      Your Answer: S3

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the...

    Correct

    • During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the duodenum, the most appropriate site to make the incision on the anterior abdominal wall to approach this ulcer would be the:

      Your Answer: Epigastric region

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided into nine regions for descriptive purposes. The epigastric region contains the first part of the duodenum, part of the stomach, part of the liver and pancreas. This would be the region that the surgeon would need to enter to access the ulcer.

      Typically, a midline incision in the epigastric region, extending from just below the xiphoid process down to the umbilicus, provides excellent access to the first part of the duodenum.

      The left inguinal region contains the sigmoid colon.

      The left lumbar region contains the descending colon and kidney.

      The right lumbar region contains the right kidney and descending colon.

      The right hypochondrial region contains part of the liver and gall bladder.

      The hypogastric region contains the urinary bladder and the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure...

    Correct

    • During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure that lies immediately anterior to the thoracic duct. Which structure is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      In the mid-thorax, the azygos vein, thoracic duct and aorta (in this order from right to the left) are all located posterior to the oesophagus. The superior vena cava, left internal jugular vein and trachea are not found in the mid thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Correct

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Correct

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Acute meningitis is a medical emergency. All suspects should receive their first dose of antibiotics immediately and be transferred to hospital as soon as possible. If facilities for blood culture and/or lumbar puncture (LP) are immediately available, they should be performed before administration
      of the first dose of antibiotics (see contraindications to LP below). Neither procedure should lead to a significant delay in antibiotic administration.
      Administer ceftriaxone 80-100 mg/kg (maximum 2 g, 12 hourly) intravenously. The intramuscular or intraosseous route can be used if there is no vascular access. Penicillin allergy is not a contraindication to ceftriaxone in acute meningitis (C-1). Omit ceftriaxone only if there has been documented ceftriaxone anaphylaxis. Give chloramphenicol 25 mg/kg (maximum 500 mg) intravenously instead, if available. Administer adequate analgesia and transfer the patient immediately to hospital, detailing all administered
      medication in the referral letter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding the posterior compartment of the leg, which is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the posterior compartment of the leg, which is correct?

      Your Answer: The muscles plantarflex the foot and are innervated by the tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The muscles of the back of the leg are subdivided into two groups: superficial and deep. Superficial muscles include gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. Deep muscles include tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus and popliteus. The superficial ( calf muscles) which are responsible for plantarflexion of the foot are supplied by the tibial nerve as follows: the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are supplied by the first and second sacral nerves and the plantaris by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerve (the tibial nerve).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected...

    Correct

    • A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected the arteria princeps pollicis. This artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      The radial artery branches into the arteria princeps pollicis as it turns medially into the deep part of the hand. The arteria princeps pollicis is distributed to the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to...

    Correct

    • In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?

      Your Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50 year old man on warfarin therapy following insertion of a pacemaker...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old man on warfarin therapy following insertion of a pacemaker presented with epistaxis. Which of the following is true regarding blood coagulation?

      Your Answer: Patients with haemophilia A usually have a normal bleeding time

      Explanation:

      A prolonged bleeding time is seen in platelet disorders like thrombocytopenia. Patients with haemophilia A or B have a prolonged PTT but not a prolonged bleeding time.

      Ca2+ is necessary for coagulation.

      von Willebrand factor is an important part of the factor VIII complex and promotes platelet adhesion and aggregation.

      DIC results in depleted coagulation factors and accumulation of fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - the action of the semimembranosus muscle is: ...

    Incorrect

    • the action of the semimembranosus muscle is:

      Your Answer: Extension of the hip and extension of the knee

      Correct Answer: Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee

      Explanation:

      the semimembranosus is situated at the back and medial side of the thigh. It arises from the upper and outer impression on the tuberosity of the ischium, above and lateral to the biceps femoris and semitendinosus. It is inserted mainly into the horizontal groove on the posterior medial aspect of the medial condyle of the tibia. it flexes the knee and assists in extension of the hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      70.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure? ...

    Correct

    • During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure?

      Your Answer: +10 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      To determine compliance of the respiratory system, changes in transmural pressures (in and out) immediately across the lung or chest cage (or both) are measured simultaneously with changes in lung or thoracic cavity volume. Changes in lung or thoracic cage volume are determined using a spirometer with transmural pressures measured by pressure transducers. For the lung alone, transmural pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar (pA; inside) and intrapleural (ppl; outside) pressure. To calculate chest cage compliance, transmural pressure is ppl (inside) minus atmospheric pressure (pB; outside). For the combined lung–chest cage, transmural pressure or transpulmonary pressure is computed as pA – pB. pA pressure is determined by having the subject deeply inhale a measured volume of air from a spirometer. Under physiological conditions the transpulmonary or recoil pressure is always positive; intrapleural pressure is always negative and relatively large, while alveolar pressure moves from slightly negative to slightly positive as a person breathes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median...

    Correct

    • Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Anterior aspect of the elbow

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is to insert it into the anterior aspect of the elbow. If you look at the venous drainage of the upper limb, you will find that there are two main veins, the basilic and the cephalic vein; the connecting branch between these two veins is the median cubital vein. and this vein passes via the cubital fossa which is on the anterior aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are...

    Correct

    • A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are swollen. What class of drugs does spironolactone belong to?

      Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretics

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a renal competitive aldosterone antagonist in a class of drugs called ‘potassium-sparing diuretics’, that is primarily used to treat fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver scarring, or kidney disease. It is also used in the treatment of high blood pressure, low blood potassium, early-onset puberty, and acne and excessive hair growth in women. Spironolactone inhibits the effect of aldosterone by competing for intracellular aldosterone receptors in the distal tubule cells. This increases the secretion of water and sodium, while decreasing the excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when...

    Correct

    • Which of the following proteins prevents red blood cells (RBCs) from bursting when they pass through capillaries?

      Your Answer: Spectrin

      Explanation:

      Spectrin is a structural protein found in the cytoskeleton that lines the intercellular side of the membrane of cells which include RBCs. They maintain the integrity and structure of the cell. It is arranged into a hexagonal arrangement formed from tetramers of spectrin and associated with short actin filaments that form junctions allowing the RBC to distort its shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was...

    Correct

    • A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was brought in to the emergency department with suspicion of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). The SHO on call decided to have a diagnostic lumbar puncture after computed topography scan failed to support the suspicion. To perform a successful lumbar puncture without causing injury to the spine, which anatomical landmark should guide the SHO to locate the fourth vertebra for insertion of the spinal needle?

      Your Answer: Iliac crest

      Explanation:

      The safest spinal level for conducting a lumbar puncture, is at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra. The anatomical landmark used to locate the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), is the iliac crest. The needle can safely be inserted either above or below L4. The conus medullaris is at the level of the border of L1 and L2 so L4 is safely distant from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just...

    Correct

    • Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?

      Your Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7

      Explanation:

      The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include: ...

    Correct

    • Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include:

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Excess acid intake and excess bicarbonate loss as in diarrhoea, are causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. The other conditions all result in an increased anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35 year-old woman is undergoing thyroidectomy. The external laryngeal nerve may be...

    Correct

    • A 35 year-old woman is undergoing thyroidectomy. The external laryngeal nerve may be injured whilst ligating this artery during the procedure due to its close relationship?

      Your Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The superior thyroid artery arises from the external carotid artery just below the level of the greater cornu of the hyoid bone and ends in the thyroid gland. This artery must be ligated at the thyroid when conducting a thyroidectomy. If the artery is severed, but not ligated, it will bleed profusely. In order to gain control of the bleeding, the surgeon may need to extend the original incision laterally to ligate the artery at its origin at the external carotid artery. The external laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve courses in close proximity to the superior thyroid artery, making it at risk for injury during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Correct Answer: Deep venous thrombosis

      Explanation:

      A D-dimer test is performed to detect and diagnose thrombotic conditions and thrombosis. A negative result would rule out thrombosis and a positive result although not diagnostic, is highly suspicious of thrombotic conditions like a deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism as well as DIC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th hospital stay developed pneumonia. The most likely organism that causes hospital acquired pneumonia is pseudomonas aeruginosa. What is the most likely mechanism for the pathogenesis on pseudomonas infection?

      Your Answer: Activation of cAMP

      Correct Answer: Exotoxin

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium that can cause disease in plants and animals, including humans. It is citrate, catalase, and oxidase positive. P. aeruginosa uses the virulence factor exotoxin A to inactivate eukaryotic elongation factor 2 via ADP-ribosylation in the host cell, much the same as the diphtheria toxin does. Without elongation factor 2, eukaryotic cells cannot synthesize proteins and necrotise. The release of intracellular contents induces an immunologic response in immunocompetent patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?

      Your Answer: Pectineus

      Correct Answer: Vastus intermedius

      Explanation:

      The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance vessels?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Correct Answer: Vasoactive intestinal peptide

      Explanation:

      Gastric vasoconstrictors include catecholamines, angiotensin II and vasopressin. Vasodilators include vasoactive intestinal peptide and the hormones; gastrin, cholecystokinin and glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The T-wave is formed due to ventricular repolarisation. Normally, it is seen as a positive wave. It can be normally inverted (negative) in V1 (occasionally in V2-3 in African-Americans/Afro-Caribbeans). Hyperacute T-waves are the earliest ECG change of acute myocardial infarction. ECG findings of hyperkalaemia include high, tent-shaped T-waves, a small P-wave and a wide QRS complex. Hypokalaemia results in flattened (notched) T-waves, U-waves, ST-segment depression and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostals

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm and external intercostals are muscles of inspiration as they increase the volume of thoracic cavity and reduce the intrathoracic pressure. Muscles of expiration include abdominal muscles and internal intercostals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis...

    Correct

    • A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Granulomas formed in tuberculosis are called tubercles and are made up polynuclear phagocytes, Langhans cells and epithelioid cells. Macrophages when enlarged, consist of abundant cytoplasm and have a tendency of arranging themselves very closely to each other representing epithelial cells. These enlarged macrophages are therefore termed as epithelioid cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin over the maxilla region and the mandible?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal

      Explanation:

      The sensation of the face is provided by the trigeminal nerve which is cranial nerve V. It is also responsible for other motor functions such as biting and chewing. The trigeminal nerve has three branches; the ophthalmic nerve (V1), the maxillary nerve((V2) and the mandibular nerve (V3). These three branches exit the skull through separate foramina, namely; the superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale respectively. The mnemonic for this is ‘Standing room only’. The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges. The sensory fibres of the mandibular nerve are distributed to the lower lip, the lower teeth and gums, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the chin and jaw (except the angle of the jaw, which is supplied by C2–C3), parts of the external ear, and parts of the meninges. The mandibular nerve carries touch/ position and pain/temperature sensation from the mouth. The sensory fibres of the ophthalmic nerve are distributed to the scalp and forehead, the upper eyelid, the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye, the nose (including the tip of the nose), the nasal mucosa, the frontal sinuses and parts of the meninges (the dura and blood vessels). The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the normal glomerular filtration rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer: 75 mL/min

      Correct Answer: 125 mL/min

      Explanation:

      The normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in humans is 125 mL/min. After the age of 40, GFR decreases progressively by about 0.4–1.2 mL/min per year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over a period of 24 hours were:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 1.0 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.01 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 260 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 7 mmol/l

      What is the glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer: 250 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 200 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. GFR is equal to the inulin clearance because inulin is freely filtered into Bowman’s capsule but is not reabsorbed or secreted. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. Thus, glomerular filtration rate = (1.0 × 2. 0)/0.01 = 200 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long...

    Incorrect

    • A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?

      Your Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Correct Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Which nodes are most likely to be enlarged in a patient complaining of a boil located on the labia majora?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The perineum, external genitalia, the labia majora and scrotum drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. In a man, the testes do not drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes but rather travel in the spermatic cord and drain into the lumbar nodes. The lumbar nodes drain the internal pelvic organs. The sacral nodes drain the prostrate gland, uterus, vagina, rectum and posterior pelvic wall and the external iliac nodes in turn drain the lower limb. The internal iliac nodes drain the pelvis and gluteal region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Cell wall

      Correct Answer: Outer membrane

      Explanation:

      The reason bacteria are either Gram-positive or Gram-negative is due to the structure of their cell envelope (the cell envelope is defined as the cell membrane and cell wall plus an outer membrane, if one is present.) Gram-positive bacteria, for example, retain the crystal violet due to the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. It can be said therefore that the Gram-stain procedure separates bacteria into two broad categories based on structural differences in the cell envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum is explored in theatre through a midline incision. This incision will be through the:

      Your Answer: Linea alba

      Explanation:

      The linea alba is the point where this incision was made. It is a tendinous raphe in the midline of the abdomen extending between the xiphoid process and the symphysis pubis. It is placed between the medial borders of the recti and is formed by the blending of the aponeuroses of the external and internal obliques and transversi.

      The linea aspera is a vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femur.

      The arcuate line is the inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath behind the rectus abdominis muscle.

      The semilunar line is the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis.

      The iliopectineal line is a line on the pelvic bones formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      103.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones...

    Incorrect

    • Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones and muscles or glands. What happens during the activation of a nerve cell membrane?

      Your Answer: Chloride ions flow outward

      Correct Answer: Sodium ions flow inward

      Explanation:

      During the generation of an action potential, the membrane gets depolarized which cause the voltage gated sodium channels to open and sodium diffuses inside the neuron, resulting in the membrane potential moving towards a positive value. This positive potential will then open the voltage gated potassium channels and cause more K+ to move out decreasing the membrane potential and restoring the membrane potential to its resting value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The adductors of the fingers are the palmer interossei. They are supplied by the ulnar nerve, which is a branch of the medical cord of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Ventricular filling follows a delay caused by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Ventricular filling follows a delay caused by?

      Your Answer: Bundle branches

      Correct Answer: AV node

      Explanation:

      The AV node is a conducting tissue found between the atria and the ventricles of the heart. It conducts electrical signal from the atria to the ventricles and acts a delaying mechanism preventing the atria and the ventricles from contracting at the same time. This decremental conduction prevents premature ventricular contraction in cases such as atrial fibrillation. A delay in the AV node is the reason for the PR segment seen on the ECG. In certain types of supraventricular tachycardia, a person could have two AV nodes; this will cause a loop in electrical current and uncontrollably rapid heart beat. When this electricity catches up with itself, it will dissipate and return to a normal heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion: ...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion:

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephrosis, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema. It is a component of glomerulonephritis, in which different degrees of proteinuria occur. Essentially, loss of protein through the kidneys leads to low protein levels in the blood , which causes water to be drawn into soft tissues (oedema). Severe hypoalbuminemia can also cause a variety of secondary problems, such as water in the abdominal cavity (ascites), around the heart or lung (pericardial effusion, pleural effusion), high cholesterol, loss of molecules regulating coagulation (hence increased risk of thrombosis). The most common sign is excess fluid in the body due to the serum hypoalbuminemia. Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues. Sodium and water retention aggravates the oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of these conditions is mithramycin used for? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these conditions is mithramycin used for?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Mithramycin or Plicamycin is a tricyclic pentaglycosidic antibiotic derived from Streptomyces strains. It inhibits RNA and protein synthesis by adhering to DNA. It is used as a fluorescent dye and as an antineoplastic agent. It is also used to reduce hypercalcaemia, especially caused by malignancy. Plicamycin is currently used in multiple areas of research, including cancer cell apoptosis and as a metastasis inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what...

    Incorrect

    • When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what is its stage?

      Your Answer: T2

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The TNM staging used for penile cancer is as follows:

      TX: primary tumour cannot be assessed

      T0: primary tumour is not evident

      Tis: carcinoma in situ is present

      Ta: non-invasive verrucous carcinoma is present

      T1: tumour is invading subepithelial connective tissue

      T2: tumour is invading the corpora spongiosum or cavernosum

      T3: tumour invading the urethra or prostate

      T4: tumour invading other adjacent structures.

      In this case, the patient has a T1 tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?

      Your Answer: Supravesical fossa

      Correct Answer: Medial inguinal fossa

      Explanation:

      In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic...

    Correct

    • An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic ventricular septal defect, is prepared for pulmonary artery banding through a left thoracotomy (the child is not fit for a surgical closure). The surgeon initially passes his index finger immediately behind two great arteries in the pericardial sac to mobilise the great arteries in order to pass the tape around the pulmonary artery. Into which space is the surgeon's finger inserted?

      Your Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Cardiac notch: is an indentation on the left lung of the heart.

      Coronary sinus: a venous sinus on the surface of the heart (the posterior aspect) that receives blood from the smaller veins that drain the heart.

      Coronary sulcus: a groove on the heart between the atria and ventricles.

      Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and anterior to the superior vena cava.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: located behind the left atrium. Accessed from the inferior side (or the apex) of the heart upwards.

      Horizontal pericardial sinus: this is a made-up term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to be used as a graft for coronary artery bypass surgery. The left internal thoracic artery is mobilised from the inside of the chest wall and divided near the caudal end of the sternum. After dividing the internal thoracic artery at its distal end, the specialist registrar asks you to name the artery that will now have increased blood supply so that adequate blood flow is maintained to the rectus abdominis on the left side. What would your answer be?

      Your Answer: Superficial circumflex iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The rectus abdominis muscle is supplied by the superior epigastric artery which is a branch of the internal thoracic artery. If the internal thoracic artery is thus ligated, blood would no longer flow to it. However, the superior epigastric artery communicates with the inferior epigastric artery (a branch of the external iliac artery). This means that blood could flow from the external iliac, to the inferior epigastric, to the superior epigastric to the rectus abdominis.

      The superficial circumflex iliac artery and the superficial epigastric are two superficial branches of the femoral artery and do not supply the deep branches of the abdomen.

      The deep circumflex iliac artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall; being too lateral it doesn’t supply blood to the rectus abdominis.

      The distal portions of the umbilical arteries are obliterated in adults to form the medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original...

    Incorrect

    • During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original size. Which of the following organelles is responsible for this regression?

      Your Answer: Centrioles

      Correct Answer: Lysosomes

      Explanation:

      Lysosomes are formed by budding of the Golgi apparatus and contain enzymes which digest macromolecules. They are found in both plants and animals and are active in autophagic cell death, digestion after phagocytosis and for the cells own recycling process. They fuse with the molecules and release their content resulting in digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the...

    Correct

    • The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the left and the right posterior communicating artery. Which of the following arteries in the brain is connected to the posterior cerebral artery by these posterior communicating arteries?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis of cerebral arteries that are located at the base of the brain. The Circle of Willis is one of the important safeguards that ensure back up of blood supply to parts of the brain in case of any cerebrovascular accident. The Circle of Willis is made up of an anterior portion of arteries including; the anterior cerebral arteries. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected to the posterior portion of the circle of Willis by the anterior communicating artery. The posterior portion is made up of the posterior cerebral artery which branch off from the basilar artery. The posterior cerebral artery are connected to the anterior portion of the circle of Willis by the posterior communicating artery. The posterior communicating artery connects the posterior cerebral artery to the internal carotid artery. The circle of Willis receives blood supply from the left and right internal carotid arteries that continues as the middle cerebral artery and posteriorly from the two vertebral arteries that join to form the basilar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding ruptured spleen, the surgeon decided to clamp the splenic artery near the coeliac trunk to stop the bleeding. Which of the following organ/s parts will be least affected by the clamping?

      Your Answer: Greater curvature of the stomach

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is the only organ in the list that would not be affect by the clumping of the splenic artery as it is supplied by common hepatic artery (through the gastroduodenal artery) and the superior mesenteric artery (through the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery). The splenic artery is the artery that supplies the spleen with oxygenated blood. The splenic artery before reaching the spleen also gives off branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas. The greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach is supplied the short gastric artery which branches off from the splenic artery. The left portion of the greater curvature of the stomach together with the greater omentum is supplied by the left gastro-omental artery of the splenic artery. The body and tail of the pancreas is supplied by branches of the splenic artery through the dorsal and superior pancreatic arteries and the caudal pancreatic arteries respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?

      Your Answer: The blood in the carotid artery is deoxygenated blood

      Correct Answer: The thyrocervical trunk typically gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, transverse cervical artery and suprascapular artery

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk is one of the three branches of the first part of the subclavian artery and gives numerous branches which supply viscera of the neck, the brachial plexus, neck muscles and scapular anastomoses. The vertebral arteries are major arteries of the neck. They arise as branches from the subclavian arteries and merge to form the single midline basilar artery. The carotid sinus is a dilated area at the base of the internal carotid artery just superior to the bifurcation of the internal carotid and external carotid at the level of the superior border of thyroid cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after a streptococcal infection?

      Your Answer: Drug reaction

      Correct Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephritic syndrome (or acute nephritic syndrome) is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephritis. Children between 2 and 12 are most commonly affected, but it may occur at any age. Predisposing factors/causes include:

      Infections with group A streptococcal bacteria (acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis).

      Primary renal diseases: immunoglobulin A nephropathy, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis.

      Secondary renal diseases: subacute bacterial endocarditis, infected ventriculo–peritoneal shunt, glomerulonephritis with visceral abscess, glomerulonephritis with bacterial, viral or parasitic infections.

      Multisystem diseases.

      By contrast, nephrotic syndrome is characterized by only proteins moving into the urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      86.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes which is worst in the morning. Laboratory studies showed:

      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 30 mg/dl

      Creatinine = 2. 8 mg/dl

      Albumin = 2. 0 mg/dl

      Alanine transaminase (ALT) = 25 U/l

      Bilirubin = 1 mg/dl

      Urine analysis shows 3+ albumin and no cells.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a disorder in which the glomeruli have been damaged, characterized by:

      – Proteinuria (>3.5 g per 1.73 m2 body surface area per day, or > 40 mg per square meter body surface area per hour in children)

      – Hypoalbuminemia (< 2,5 g/dl) – Hyperlipidaemia, and oedema (generalized anasarca).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of...

    Incorrect

    • Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Neuromuscular junction

      Correct Answer: Pacinian corpuscle

      Explanation:

      Pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor, sensitive to deep pressure, touch and high-frequency vibration. The Pacinian corpuscles are ovoid and about 1 mm long. In the centre of the corpuscle is the inner bulb, which is a fluid-filled cavity with a single afferent unmyelinated nerve ending. Any deformation in the corpuscle causes the generation of action potentials by opening of pressure-sensitive sodium ion channels in the axon membrane. This allows influx of sodium ions, creating a receptor potential (independent of potassium channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of prostate

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A young male was diagnosed with hepatitis A, which clinically resolved in 2...

    Incorrect

    • A young male was diagnosed with hepatitis A, which clinically resolved in 2 weeks. What will his liver biopsy done after 6 months show?

      Your Answer: Central necrosis

      Correct Answer: Normal architecture

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is the most common acute viral hepatitis, more common in children and young adults. It is caused by Hepatitis A virus, which is a single-stranded RNA picornavirus. The primary route of spread of Hepatitis A is the faecal-oral route. Consumption of contaminated raw shellfish is also a likely causative factor. The shedding of the virus in faecal matter occurs before the onset of symptoms and continues a few days after. Hepatitis A does not lead to chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis, and there is no known chronic carrier state. Hence, a biopsy performed after recovery will show normal hepatocellular architecture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism in fighting infection?

      Your Answer: Non-specific humoral mechanism → T lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: Specific cellular mechanism → cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      The immune system has certain levels of defence against pathogens. First line includes simple barriers such as skin, mucosa and stomach acid that prevent the pathogen from entering into the body. If this barrier is breached then the innate immune system is activated which includes leukocytes (macrophages, neutrophils, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils, natural killer cells). If the pathogens invade the second layer of defence then the third layer, adaptive immunity is activated, which includes B and T lymphocytes. B cells provide a humoral response whereas cytotoxic T cells have specific cellular mechanisms. They maintain a memory of past infections and are activated faster following a recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - An amateur body-builder complains of increasing pain in his right shoulder after a...

    Incorrect

    • An amateur body-builder complains of increasing pain in his right shoulder after a few days of intense training. A surgeon aspirates clear fluid from his subdeltoid region. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Costochondritis

      Correct Answer: Bursitis

      Explanation:

      Bursae are potential cavities that contain synovial fluid, found in areas where friction occurs. Their function is to minimise friction and facilitate movement. Bursitis is the inflammation of one or more bursae, and they can occur in the shoulder, elbow, knee, ischium, amongst other joints. Acute bursitis can appear after strenuous exercise or activity, and chronic bursitis can develop following previous bursitis or trauma. Acute bursitis causes pain, tenderness, and swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to result in an increased secretion of which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer: Thyroid-stimulating hormone

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The hypophyseal portal system links the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. With the help of this system, the anterior pituitary receives releasing and inhibitory hormones from the hypothalamus and regulates the action of other endocrine glands. One of the inhibitory hormones carried by this system is the prolactin-inhibitory hormone. In the absence of this hormone which might occur in case of a blockage of the system, prolactin secretion increases to about three times normal levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be effectively treated by linezolid?

      Your Answer: Vibrio cholerae

      Correct Answer: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Linezolid is a synthetic antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by multiresistant bacteria, including streptococci and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Linezolid is effective against Gram-positive pathogens, notably Enterococcus faecium, S. aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus pyogenes. It has almost no effect on Gram-negative bacteria and is only bacteriostatic against most enterococci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which best describes the suprascapular nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which best describes the suprascapular nerve?

      Your Answer: It innervates the teres minor muscle

      Correct Answer: It contains nerve fibres from C5 and C6 spinal cord segments

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve arises from the cervical spinal nerves 5 and 6 after coming together to form common trunk. This nerve supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles giving off branches to the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Normally, the O2 transfer in the lungs from alveolar to capillary is perfusion-limited....

    Incorrect

    • Normally, the O2 transfer in the lungs from alveolar to capillary is perfusion-limited. In which of the following situations does it become a diffusion-limited process?

      Your Answer: Breathing hyperbaric gas mixture

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Normally, the transfer of oxygen from air spaces to blood takes place across the alveolar-capillary membrane by simple diffusion and depends entirely on the amount of blood flow (perfusion-limited process). Diseases that affect this diffusion will transform the normal process to a diffusion limited process. Thus, the diseases which cause a thickened barrier (such as pulmonary oedema due to increased extravascular lung water or asbestosis) will limit the diffusion of oxygen. Chronic obstructive lung diseases will have little effect on diffusion. Inhaling hyperbaric gas mixtures might overcome the diffusion limitation in patients with mild asbestosis or interstitial oedema, by increasing the driving force. Strenuous (not mild) exercise might also favour diffusion limitation and decrease passage time. Increasing the rate of ventilation will not have this affect but will only maintain a high oxygen gradient from air to blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport...

    Incorrect

    • Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport of glucose in the renal tubular cells occurs via:

      Your Answer: Concentration gradient

      Correct Answer: Secondary active transport with sodium

      Explanation:

      In 1960, Robert K. Crane presented for the first time his discovery of the sodium-glucose cotransport as the mechanism for glucose absorption. Glucose transport through biological membranes requires specific transport proteins. Transport of glucose through the apical membrane of renal tubular as well as intestinal epithelial cells depends on the presence of secondary active Na+–glucose symporters, SGLT-1 and SGLT-2, which concentrate glucose inside the cells, using the energy provided by co-transport of Na+ ions down their electrochemical gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is not one of them?

      Your Answer: Factor II

      Correct Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Serine protease coagulation factors include: thrombin, plasmin, Factors X, XI and XII. Factor VIII and factor V are glycoproteins and factor XIII is a transglutaminase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?...

    Incorrect

    • With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?

      Your Answer: The pupils are constricted (accommodation response)

      Correct Answer: The ciliary muscles are relaxed

      Explanation:

      Myopia or near-sightedness is a disease due to elongated eyeballs or too strong a lens. For far accommodation (focus of a distant object onto the retina), the lens needs to decrease its refractive power, or in other words, increase its focal length. This is done by relaxation of ciliary muscles which tightens the zonular fibres and flattening of the lens. Relaxation of the zonular fibres, rounding of the lens, shortening of the focal length and constriction of the pupil occurs during near accommodation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - An ultrasound report of a 35-year old female patient revealed that she had...

    Incorrect

    • An ultrasound report of a 35-year old female patient revealed that she had cancer of the pancreas and presented with subsequent severe obstructive jaundice. In which part of this was woman's pancreas was the tumour most likely located?

      Your Answer: Neck

      Correct Answer: Head

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is divided into five parts; the head, body, neck, tail, and the uncinate process. Of the five parts, tumours located at the head of the pancreas in most instances cause obstruction of the common bile duct more often than tumours in the other parts of the pancreas. This is because the common bile duct passes through the head of the pancreas from the gallbladder and the liver (it is formed where the cystic and the hepatic bile duct join) to empty bile into the duodenum. This biliary obstruction leads to accumulation of bile in the liver and a consequent bilirubinaemia (raised levels of blood bilirubin). This results in jaundice. The pancreas is not divided into lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides?

      Your Answer: IDL

      Correct Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Created by the small intestinal cells, chylomicrons are large lipoprotein molecules which transport lipids to the liver, adipose, cardiac and skeletal tissue. Chylomicrons are mainly composed of triglycerides (,85%) along with some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. Apo B-48 is the main apolipoprotein content.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients...

    Correct

    • In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients femoral vein for rapid fluid therapy. The femoral vein is situated inside the femoral sheath. Which of the following is true about that sheath?

      Your Answer: The medial compartment is called the femoral canal

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath is situated ,4cm below the inguinal ligament. It is a prolongation of the abdominal fascia. The anterior wall is a prolongation of the transversalis fascia and the posterior wall, the iliac fascia. It is divided by two vertical septa into 3 compartments, lateral, intermediate, and medial. The medial compartment is known as the femoral canal and contains some lymphatic vessels. The lateral one contains the femoral artery and the intermediate one contains the femoral vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following organs of the abdominal cavity is completely covered by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs of the abdominal cavity is completely covered by the peritoneum?

      Your Answer: Kidney

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Of the organs listed, the spleen is the only organ that is completely intraperitoneal, that is entirely in the peritoneum. Other completely intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, liver, appendix and the small intestines. The kidney, Inferior vena cava, aorta and the suprarenal glands are all retroperitoneal organs. The pancreas and the duodenum are partially retroperitoneal, with the tail of the pancreas in the peritoneum found in the splenorenal ligament while only the first part of the duodenum is intraperitoneal. For the intraperitoneal organs remember SALTD SPRSS
      S = Stomach
      A = Appendix
      L = Liver
      T = Transverse colon
      D = Duodenum (only the 1st part)
      S = Small intestines
      P = Pancreas (only the tail)
      R = Rectum (only the upper 3rd)
      S = Sigmoid colon
      S = Spleen
      For retroperitoneal, just remember SADPUCKER:
      S = suprarenal glands
      A = Aorta and IVC
      D = Duodenum (all but the 1st part)
      P = Pancreas (all but the tail)
      U = Ureter and bladder
      C = Colon (ascending and descending)
      K = Kidneys
      E = Oesophagus
      R = Rectum (Lower two-thirds)
      For secondarily retroperitoneal remember ‘Pussy Cat Dolls“:
      P = Pancreas
      C = Colon (only ascending and descending)
      D = Duodenum (only parts 2-4)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?

      Your Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T6

      Correct Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7

      Explanation:

      A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 60-year-old female has sudden onset of high-grade fever associated with cough with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old female has sudden onset of high-grade fever associated with cough with productive rusty-coloured sputum. Chest x-ray showed left-sided consolidation. What is the most accurate test for the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Correct Answer: Sputum culture

      Explanation:

      Sputum culture is used to detect and identify the organism that are infecting the lungs or breathing passages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the...

    Correct

    • This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:

      Your Answer: The iris

      Explanation:

      The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy...

    Incorrect

    • A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy showed the distinct cherry red spot on the retina. Which of the following arteries was occluded?

      Your Answer: Lacrimal artery

      Correct Answer: Central artery of the retina

      Explanation:

      The central retinal artery supplies all the nerve fibres that form the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Thus if the central retinal artery gets occluded, there is complete loss of vision in that eye and the entire retina (with the exception of the fovea) becomes pale, swollen and opaque while the central fovea still appears reddish (this is because the choroid colour shows through). This is the basis of the famous Cherry red spot seen on examination of the retina on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Hearing

      Correct Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it enters the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: External intercostals – innermost intercostals – internal intercostals – parietal pleura

      Correct Answer: External intercostals – internal intercostals – innermost intercostals – parietal pleura

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures from superficial to deep are: the skin and subcutaneous tissue, the external intercostals followed by internal intercostals, innermost intercostals and finally parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which of the given options best describes the metabolic changes which occur following...

    Correct

    • Which of the given options best describes the metabolic changes which occur following a severe soft tissue injury sustained after a PVA?

      Your Answer: Mobilisation of fat stores

      Explanation:

      The following metabolic responses occur following trauma as part of a coping mechanism for the additional stress. These include acid base changes (metabolic acidosis or alkalosis), decrease urine output and osmolality, reduced basal metabolic rate (BMR), gluconeogenesis with amino acid breakdown and shunting, hyponatraemia as a result of impaired functioning of sodium pumps, hypoxic injury, coagulopathies, decreased immunity, increase extracellular fluid and hypovolemic shock, increase permeability leading to oedema, break down and mobilization of fat reserves, pyrexia and reduced circulating levels of albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria for the past 3 days. Urine culture confirmed Neisseria gonorrhoeae and smear showed abundant neutrophils. Which of the following mediators is responsible for causing diapedesis of the neutrophils to reach the site of infection?

      Your Answer: Hageman factor

      Correct Answer: Complement C5a

      Explanation:

      C5a is part of the complement cascade and is released frim the complement C5. It acts as a chemotactic factor for neutrophils. Other chemotactic mediators are TNF, leukotrienes and bacterial products.

      Bradykinin is associated with the production of pain and vasodilation.

      Hageman factor is a clotting factor.

      Histamine causes vasodilation.

      C3B causes opsonisation.

      IL-6 and IL-12 are inflammatory mediators causing B cell maturation and mediating inflammation and prostaglandins are involved with pain, increasing cell permeability and vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Urology
      • Pathology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Incorrect

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the tissues with elevated arterial CO2 content?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic condition in which the pH of tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is the result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations. Normally, arterial pa(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mEq/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that is very quick. If the change in pa(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:

      Your Answer: Zinc

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.

      Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.

      Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.

      Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Physiology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which nuclei of the posterior grey column of the spinal cord are likely...

    Incorrect

    • Which nuclei of the posterior grey column of the spinal cord are likely affected in a patient who has lost the sensation of pain and temperature?

      Your Answer: Intermediolateral nucleus

      Correct Answer: Substantia gelatinosa

      Explanation:

      Substantia gelatinosa is one of the nuclei in the posterior grey column along side other posterior grey column nuclei like the nucleus dorsalis, nucleus proprius, and posteromarginal nucleus. These nuclei are a collection of cells in the posterior grey area found in throughout the spinal cord. The substantia gelatinosa receives direct input from the dorsal nerve roots (sensory), especially from thermoreceptors and nociceptors (receptors for temperature and pain).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - What forms the pelvic diaphragm? ...

    Correct

    • What forms the pelvic diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Levator ani and coccygeus muscles

      Explanation:

      The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the levator ani and the coccygeus muscles. The levator ani forms the greater part of the pelvic floor supporting the viscera in the pelvic cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial...

    Incorrect

    • A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial vein was injured which terminates in the femoral vein. This superficial vein is?

      Your Answer: Sural

      Correct Answer: Great saphenous

      Explanation:

      The great saphenous vein is considered the longest vein in the body. It terminates in the femoral vein nearly 3cm below the inguinal ligament. It begins at the dorsum of the foot in the medial marginal vein and ascends at the medial side of the leg in relation with the saphenous nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing...

    Incorrect

    • Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing the patient to wake up at night is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Gastritis

      Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      The description is typical for duodenal ulcers. There is no pain upon waking in the morning however it appears around mid-morning and is relieved by ingestion of food. The pain also often causes the patient to wake up at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A CT scan of 65 year old male patient at an outpatient clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A CT scan of 65 year old male patient at an outpatient clinic suggested a bone tumour at the stylomastoid foramen. Which of the following cranial nerves is likely to be affected with this tumour?

      Your Answer: V

      Correct Answer: VII

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve, is found in the internal acoustic canal and runs through this canal into the facial canal before exiting through the stylomastoid foramen. In the case of a bone tumour at the stylomastoid process, the facial nerve is the nerve that will most likely be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother...

    Incorrect

    • The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother is:

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer: Acute mastitis

      Explanation:

      Acute mastitis results due to bacterial infection of the breast and results in signs of inflammation. It commonly occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum and common causative microorganisms are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, and Escherichia coli. Complications like an abscess can be avoided by prompt treatment, which includes antibiotics and rest along with continued lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which of the following is true about a patient who has undergone total...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about a patient who has undergone total colectomy and ileostomy?

      Your Answer: This patient is at increased risk of anaemia due to malabsorption of iron

      Correct Answer: Following total colectomy and ileostomy, the volume and water content of ileal discharge decreases over time

      Explanation:

      After a patient has undergone total colectomy and ileostomy, the volume of ileal discharge, along with its water content gradually decreases over time. Post surgery, most patients can live a normal life. Iron and vitamin B12 absorption do not take place in the colon and hence are not affected significantly by a colectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bartter Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood...

    Incorrect

    • There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood to interstitial fluid of the muscle cells. Which of the following mechanisms best describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Bulk flow at venous ends of capillaries

      Correct Answer: Diffusion through channels between endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Capillaries are the smallest of the body’s blood vessels, measuring 5–10 μm and they help to enable the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many other nutrients and waste substances between the blood and the tissues surrounding them. The walls of capillaries are composed of only a single layer of cells, the endothelium. Ion channels are pore-forming proteins that help to establish and control the small voltage gradient that exists across the plasma membrane of all living cells by allowing the flow of ions down their electrochemical gradient. An ion channel is an integral membrane protein or more typically an assembly of several proteins. The archetypal channel pore is just one or two atoms wide at its narrowest point. It conducts a specific ion such as sodium or potassium and conveys them through the membrane in single file.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of...

    Incorrect

    • In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Non-gonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (50% cases). Less common organisms include Mycoplasma genitalium, Urea urealyticum and Trichomonas vaginalis. Chlamydia is also the commonest cause of non-gonococcal cervicitis in women and proctitis in both sexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which of the following is responsible for the maximum increase in total peripheral...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is responsible for the maximum increase in total peripheral resistance on sympathetic stimulation?

      Your Answer: Arterioles

      Explanation:

      Arterioles are also known as the resistance vessels as they are responsible for approximately half the resistance of the entire systemic circulation. They are richly innervated by the autonomic nervous system and hence, will bring about the maximum increase in peripheral resistance on sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Incorrect

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It permits carbon dioxide to pass via facilitated diffusion

      Correct Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover...

    Correct

    • The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover the lungs. What is the normal amount of pleural fluid?

      Your Answer: 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Pleural fluid is a serous fluid produced by the serous membrane covering normal pleurae. Most fluid is produced by the parietal circulation (intercostal arteries) via bulk flow and reabsorbed by the lymphatic system. The total volume of fluid present in the intrapleural space is estimated to be only 2–10 ml. A small amount of protein is present in intrapleural fluid. Normally, the rate of reabsorption increases as a physiological response to accumulating fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Bloody discharge from the nipple of a 40-year old woman with no obvious...

    Incorrect

    • Bloody discharge from the nipple of a 40-year old woman with no obvious lump or abnormality on mammography is suggestive of:

      Your Answer: Galactocele

      Correct Answer: Intraductal papilloma

      Explanation:

      A small benign tumour, namely intraductal papilloma is most common in women between 35-55 years of age. It is also the commonest cause of spontaneous discharge from a single duct. A lump below the nipple may be sometimes palpable. Ultrasound and ductography are useful investigations., along with cytology of discharge to assess the presence of malignant cells. Confirmation is by breast biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - The wound healing process is documented in patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures. The port...

    Incorrect

    • The wound healing process is documented in patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures. The port incisions are sutured closed and the wounds observed every few weeks for re-epithelialisation and tensile strength. Which substance is mostly likely to be found at a cellular level involved in wound healing?

      Your Answer: Hyaluronic acid

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine kinase

      Explanation:

      Cell surface growth factor receptors require intercellular proteins such as tyrosine kinase which are necessary to initiate a series of events that eventually lead to cell division and growth. Tyrosine kinase is an enzyme that transfers a phosphate group to the tyrosine residue in a protein. This phosphorylation will lead to an up regulation of the enzyme activity.

      Fibronectin acts in the extracellular matrix to bind macromolecules (such as proteoglycans) via integrin receptors to aid attachment and migration of cells.

      Laminin is an extracellular matrix component that is abundant in basement membranes.

      Hyaluronic acid is one of the proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix.

      Collagen fibres are part of the extracellular matrix that gives strength and stability to connective tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of...

    Incorrect

    • During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of glass severed the posterolateral aspect of the driver's neck. A physical examination reveals that the driver is unable to elevate the tip of his shoulder on the side that was injured. Which nerve was injured?

      Your Answer: Great auricular nerve

      Correct Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      The tip of the shoulder is formed by the acromion of the scapula. This part is moved by the trapezius muscle which is innervated by the accessory nerve. Damage to this nerve therefore will prevent the patient from lifting the tip of the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which tumour occurs in young adults, affecting the epiphyses of the bones and...

    Incorrect

    • Which tumour occurs in young adults, affecting the epiphyses of the bones and sometimes extending to the soft tissues?

      Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Correct Answer: Benign giant-cell tumour

      Explanation:

      Benign giant-cell tumours tend to affect adults in their twenties and thirties, occur in the epiphyses and can erode the bone and extend into the soft tissues. These tumours have a strong tendency to recur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Where does the ejaculatory duct open into? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the ejaculatory duct open into?

      Your Answer: Membranous urethra

      Correct Answer: Prostatic urethra

      Explanation:

      There are two ejaculatory ducts, one on either side of the midline. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicles with the ductus deferens. They start at the base of the prostate and run forward and downward between the middle and lateral lobes and along the side of the prostatic utricle to end in the prostatic urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 66 year old male, was involved in a MVA. He sustained third...

    Incorrect

    • A 66 year old male, was involved in a MVA. He sustained third degree burns to his abdomen and open bleeding wound to his left leg. The patient complains of dizziness. He is a known hypertensive but during examination was found to be hypotensive. His heart rate is 120/min, with regular rhythm. What is the possible cause of his hypotension?

      Your Answer: Renal artery thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypovolemia can be recognized by tachycardia, diminished blood pressure, and the absence of perfusion as assessed by skin signs (skin turning pale) and/or capillary refill time. The patient may feel dizzy, faint, nauseated, or very thirsty. Common causes of hypovolemia are loss of blood, loss of plasma which occurs in severe burns and lesions discharging fluid, loss of body sodium and consequent intravascular water which may occur in cases of diarrhoea and vomiting. In this case the cause of patients hypotension is due to hypovolemia from both loss of plasma and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following conditions may be responsible for the hypocalcaemia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Chronic hypocalcaemia is mostly seen in patients with hypoparathyroidism as a result of accidental removal or damage to parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman develops severe hypoxaemia with petechial rash and confusion following...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman develops severe hypoxaemia with petechial rash and confusion following a fracture to her left femur. Which is the most probable cause of these symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Correct Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      Fat embolism is a life-threatening form of embolism in which the embolus consists of fatty material or bone marrow particles that are introduced into the systemic venous system. It may be caused by long-bone fractures, orthopaedic procedures, sickle cell crisis, parenteral lipid infusion, burns and acute pancreatitis. Patients with fat embolism usually present with symptoms that include skin, brain, and lung dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy...

    Incorrect

    • An operation to remove a segment of the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy is complicated when a tear develops in a large venous structure in the posterior mediastinum that empties into the superior vena cava. Which of the following structures is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is formed by the union of the right subcostal veins and the ascending lumbar veins at the level of the 12th thoracic vertebra. It enters the thorax through the aortic hiatus to ascend in the posterior mediastinum and arching over the right main bronchus posteriorly at the root of the right lung to join the superior vena cava before it pierces the pericardium.

      The basilic vein is a vein on the medial aspect of the arm that ascends to become the axillary vein.

      The cephalic vein is also a vein of the arm.

      The external jugular and brachiocephalic vein are not in the posterior mediastinum.

      The median cubital vein is found in the cubital fossa of the arm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (36/40) 90%
Pelvis (3/3) 100%
Neurology (6/7) 86%
Pathology (20/26) 77%
Lower Limb (4/6) 67%
Abdomen (7/8) 88%
Thorax (5/5) 100%
Physiology (30/33) 91%
Upper Limb (6/6) 100%
Microbiology (3/4) 75%
General (6/7) 86%
Respiratory (4/4) 100%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Head & Neck (10/10) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (7/9) 78%
Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (3/4) 75%
Renal (6/6) 100%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Urology (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (1/2) 50%
Passmed