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  • Question 1 - Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta?

      Your Answer: Ovarian

      Explanation:

      The ovarian artery takes its origin directly from the aorta. While the uterine and the vaginal arteries are all branches of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.

      On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.

      Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Placenta previa

      Correct Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: FEV1

      Explanation:

      FEV1 and FVC are unchanged. FEV1/FVC ratio remains the same in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56 year old lady presents with a vulval itch and discolouration. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old lady presents with a vulval itch and discolouration. A biopsy conforms Lichen Sclerosis (LS). What is the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma compared to patients with a normal vulval biopsy?

      Your Answer: 5-15%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Lichen Sclerosis is a destructive inflammatory condition that effects the anogenital region of women. It effects around 1 in 300 women. It destroys the subdermal layers of the skin resulting in hyalinization of the skin leading to parchment paper appearance of the skin. It is associated with vulval cancer and it is estimated that the risk of developing vulval cancer after lichen sclerosis is around 3-5%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding the round ligament, it leaves the pelvis via which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the round ligament, it leaves the pelvis via which structure?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal ring

      Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      The round ligament is a band of fibromuscular connective tissue attached to the cornua of the uterus, near the attachment of the ovaries. On each side of the body, the ligament exits the pelvis through the deep inguinal ring, travels through the inguinal canal and enters the labia majora where its fibres terminate at the mons pubis. It is also important to know the embryological origins of the round ligament from the gubernaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In girls what is the first sign of puberty? ...

    Correct

    • In girls what is the first sign of puberty?

      Your Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of puberty in females is the development of breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Presence of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hyperchromatism on cervical smear indicates? ...

    Correct

    • Presence of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hyperchromatism on cervical smear indicates?

      Your Answer: Dysplasia

      Explanation:

      Dysplasia has 4 microscopic characteristics:
      Anisocytosis (unequal cell size)
      Poikilocytosis (abnormal cell shape)
      Hyperchromatism (pigmentation)
      Mitotic figures (increased cells currently dividing)

      Hyperplasia and hypertrophy is characterised by increase in cell number and increase in cell size respectively, whereas atrophy means decrease in cell size.
      Metaplasia is characterised by change of one form of cell to another type e.g. changes of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Increase cervical mucous

      Correct Answer: Prevention of thrombosis

      Explanation:

      The properties of oestrogen:
      Structure: Stimulates endometrial growth, maintenance of vessels and skin,
      reduces bone resorption, increases bone formation, increases uterine growth
      Protein synthesis: Increases hepatic synthesis of binding proteins
      Coagulation: Increases circulating levels of factors II, VII, IX, X, antithrombin III and plasminogen; increases platelet adhesiveness
      Lipid: Increases HDL and reduces LDL,increases triglycerides, reduces
      ketone formation, increases fat deposition
      Fluid balance: Salt and water retention
      Gastrointestinal: Reduces bowel motility, increases cholesterol in bile

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A sure sign of pregnancy is: ...

    Correct

    • A sure sign of pregnancy is:

      Your Answer: Auscultation of fetal heart

      Explanation:

      Classifications of Pregnancy Signs:
      Presumptive signs — possibility of pregnancy
      Probable signs — most likelihood of indicating pregnancy
      Positive signs — confirmation of pregnancy
      Auscultation of fetal heart is the only positive sign amongst the rest of the answers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A pregnant patient who is needle phobic has her nuchal translucency (NT) scan...

    Correct

    • A pregnant patient who is needle phobic has her nuchal translucency (NT) scan but refuses serum markers. You advise her the False Positive Rate of the scan is 5%. What would you advise the mother regarding the detection rate of Down Syndrome using NT alone?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      The nuchal lucency measurement is the measure of the nuchal pad thickness. Children with down syndrome have an increased thickness of the nuchal pad. The risk of down’s syndrome increases with maternal age. The nuchal lucency test has an accuracy rate of 70%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - DHEA is synthesized from which molecule? ...

    Correct

    • DHEA is synthesized from which molecule?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone is an androgen precursor produced primarily by the adrenal glands in women. The steroid hormone is produced from cholesterol at birth by the fetal adrenal glands, after which its output reduces. DHEA production picks up again from the age of 5-7 years and peaks between the ages of 20-30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.

      She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma

      Correct Answer: Ovarian teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.

      Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.

      Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.

      Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with her second child. She is worried about infections in this pregnancy as her daughter was born with a 'blueberry muffin rash' and was soon found to have sensorineural deafness due to an infection. Which of the following infections is most likely?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Congenital infections can be the cause of various congenital abnormalities. Infection with the Rubella virus, part of the TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, other organisms, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex), can lead to cardiac abnormalities, ophthalmic defects, sensorineural deafness and neurodevelopmental delays. At birth congenital rubella syndrome presents with a petechial rash characteristically dubbed a blueberry muffin rash, and hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice. Immunization of the mother against measles is an effective way of reducing the occurrence of congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The following are true for dizygotic twins EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • The following are true for dizygotic twins EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Both twins are identical & of the same sex

      Explanation:

      Dizygotic means two (di) fertilized eggs (zygotes). Dizygotic twins occur when two eggs are fertilized by two separate sperm. Dizygotic twins are also known as fraternal or non-identical twins. They are the most common type of twins.

      Unlike monozygotic twins (also known as identical twins), dizygotic twins do not share the same genes. Monozygotic twins share 100 percent of each other genes. Dizygotic twins share only 50 percent. This is the same genetic similarity found between siblings conceived and born at different times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the...

    Correct

    • In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      The Corpus Luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes two steroid hormones: 1. Progesterone (17a Hydroxyprogesterone) and 2. Oestradiol. The corpus luteum also secretes Inhibin A. In the menstrual cycle if fertilisation doesn’t occur the corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone and degenerates into a corpus albicans. If fertilisation occurs hCG signals the corpus to continue progesterone production and it is then termed the corpus luteum graviditatis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a positive group B Streptococcus vaginal swab.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Correct Answer: No treatment needed before labour

      Explanation:

      About 1 in 4 pregnant women carry GBS bacteria in their body. Doctors should test pregnant woman for GBS bacteria when they are 36 through 37 weeks pregnant.

      Giving pregnant women antibiotics through the vein (IV) during labour can prevent most early-onset GBS disease in newborns. A pregnant woman who tests positive for GBS bacteria and gets antibiotics during labour has only a 1 in 4,000 chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease. If she does not receive antibiotics during labour, her chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease is 1 in 200.

      Pregnant women cannot take antibiotics to prevent early-onset GBS disease in newborns before labour. The bacteria can grow back quickly. The antibiotics only help during labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Polyhydramnios is frequently present

      Correct Answer: The 1st commonly presents as breech

      Explanation:

      The 1st commonly presents as cephalic. Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the typical weight of a term uterus? ...

    Correct

    • What is the typical weight of a term uterus?

      Your Answer: 1200g

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium. Weight of the uterus increases from 50–60 g prior to pregnancy to 1000 g by term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal discharge. Which facultative anaerobic bacteria is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common infection of the vagina caused by the overgrowth of atypical bacteria, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis, a gram indeterminate bacteria, which is also a facultative anaerobe. Patients often complain of foul-smelling fishy discharge and dysuria. In diagnosing BV, a swab is taken for microscopy, often revealing clue cells. Of the other organisms listed in the options, Neisseria is an obligate anaerobe, while Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular aerobe. Treponema Pallidum is an aerophilic bacteria and Mycoplasma hominis is a pleomorphic parasitic bacterium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Inguinal canal

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.

      On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?

      Your Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.

      Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.

      A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.

      Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption

      Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.

      The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up.
      On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm.
      which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.

      For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.

      A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
      – Dating errors which is the most common cause
      – Twin pregnancy
      – Gestational diabetes
      – Polyhydramnios
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined...

    Correct

    • The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined by which of the following indications?

      Your Answer: 2 or more consecutive prior second trimester pregnancy losses

      Explanation:

      Cervical cerclage is performed as an attempt to prolong pregnancy in certain women who are at higher risk of preterm delivery.

      There are three well-accepted indications for cervical cerclage placement. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG), a history-indicated or prophylactic cerclage may be placed when there is a “history of one or more second-trimester pregnancy losses related to painless cervical dilation and in the absence of labour or abruptio placentae,” or if the woman had a prior cerclage placed due to cervical insufficiency in the second trimester.

      An ultrasound-indicated cerclage may be considered for women who have a history of spontaneous loss or preterm birth at less than 34 weeks gestation if the cervical length in a current singleton pregnancy is noted to be less than 25 mm before 24 weeks of gestation. It is important to note that this recommendation is invalidated without the history of preterm birth.

      Physical examination-indicated cerclage (also known as emergency or rescue cerclage) should be considered for patients with a singleton pregnancy at less than 24 weeks gestation with advanced cervical dilation in the absence of contractions, intraamniotic infection or placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.

      These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.

      She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.

      On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.

      Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.

      From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.

      Your Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.

      Explanation:

      The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.

      Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.

      If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.

      Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?

      Your Answer: 8%

      Correct Answer: 18%

      Explanation:

      This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
      Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
      The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
      The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She has not been on oestrogen replacement therapy and now desires to start due to concerns about osteoporosis. On routine pelvic exam, you palpate a small uterus and cervix along with palpable ovaries bilaterally. Of the following, your next step in the management of this patient should be:

      Your Answer: Dual photon densitometry for evaluation of bone density

      Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      In a postmenopausal woman, the ovaries should not be palpable; if they are, it should raise the concern that an ovarian malignancy is present. Before one would perform an operative evaluation, radiologic assessment should be done.

      – Although this is an accepted regimen for oestrogen replacement therapy, the palpable ovaries need to be evaluated to rule out malignancy.
      – Dual photon densitometry will give a reliable measure of bone density. Again, however, the palpable ovary is the first thing that needs to be worked up.
      – Although surgical exploration may be warranted, initial workup of the adnexal mass should include an ultrasound along with tumour markers. A CT scan may also be warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Correct

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications.

      What is the best piece of advice?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms

      Explanation:

      OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.

      Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.

      OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.

      It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation.

      The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.

      With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.

      PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:

      Anger or irritability.
      Anxiety and panic attacks.
      Depression and suicidal thoughts.
      Difficulty concentrating.
      Fatigue and low energy.
      Food cravings or binge eating.
      Headaches.
      Insomnia.
      Mood swings.

      The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:

      Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
      The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
      The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
      Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
      Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because? ...

    Correct

    • During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because?

      Your Answer: Less extension of the incision

      Explanation:

      Mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because there is less extension of the incision and decreased chances of injury to the anal sphincter and rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Herpes Simplex is which type of virus ...

    Correct

    • Herpes Simplex is which type of virus

      Your Answer: double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex is a double stranded DNA virus. There are two viral types, HSV-1 and HSV-2. The majority of orolabial infections are caused by HSV-1. These infections are usually acquired during childhood through direct physical contact such as kissing. Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection and is most commonly caused by HSV-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is...

    Correct

    • A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is no history of VTE. What is the target INR?

      Your Answer: 2.5 - 3.5

      Explanation:

      With the use of warfarin, strict control of the INR is compulsory. After mitral valve replacement the INR should ideally be kept between 2.5-3.5. If the Ball and Cage or the Tilting Disc is used as a prosthetic valve then the target INR is 3.5, for bi-leaflets the target INR is 3.0 and for biological valves the target INR is 2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department. Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days. Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. 

      On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min. Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. 

      On systemic examination:
      Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. 
      Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. 
      The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. 
      There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally.  Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. 

      Laboratory results are as follows:
      a) Complete blood count shows
      - Hematocrit: 33%
      - Platelets: 140,000/mm3
      - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3
      b) Serum chemistry
      - Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Chloride: 96 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L
      - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L
      - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L
      - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L
      c) Urinalysis
      - Protein: none
      - Ketones: present

      CT scan of the head is normal. 

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count syndrome

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk?

      Your Answer: Taking statins

      Explanation:

      Factors shown to decrease risk of ovarian cancer are:
      – Oral contraceptive use
      – Higher Parity
      – Breast feeding
      – Hysterectomy
      – Tubal Ligation
      – Statins
      – SLE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following factors causes the greatest increase in risk of developing...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors causes the greatest increase in risk of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is most commonly caused by cigarette smoke. Other risk factors include naphthylamine, azodyes and long term cyclophosphamide use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - During normal pregnancy, a weight gain is anticipated. The average weight gain is...

    Correct

    • During normal pregnancy, a weight gain is anticipated. The average weight gain is approximately:

      Your Answer: 10-15 kg

      Explanation:

      Institute of Medicine Weight Gain Recommendations for Pregnancy: Recommends a gestational weight gain of 16.8–24.5 kg (37–54 lb) for women of normal weight, 14.1–22.7 kg (31–50 lb) for overweight women, and 11.3–19.1 kg (25–42 lb) for obese women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Regarding the biophysical profile: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the biophysical profile:

      Your Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid

      Explanation:

      The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female books an appointment at the antenatal clinic at 13 weeks gestation.

      One week ago, she had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done which showed grade 3 cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN3).

      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in her management is a colposcopy.

      Patients diagnosed with high-grade lesions (CIN 2 or 3) or adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS) during pregnancy should undergo surveillance via colposcopy and age-based testing (cytology/HPV) every 12-24 weeks.

      Cone biopsy and long loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ biopsy) are not recommended if the lesion extends up the canal and out of the vision of the colposcope.
      It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy.

      Because repeat colposcopic examination during pregnancy offers all of the information needed, the repeat Pap smear is best done after the pregnancy has ended.

      Unless colposcopy indicates aggressive cancer at an earlier time, the ultimate therapy required is usually not decided until the postpartum visit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?

      Your Answer: Retained POC

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What type of virus is the Rubella virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of virus is the Rubella virus?

      Your Answer: Single stranded DNA (ssDNA)

      Correct Answer: Single stranded RNA (ssRNA)

      Explanation:

      Rubella virus is the only member of the genus Rubivirus and is a type of Togavirus (Togaviridae). It is a single stranded RNA virus. Note for the exam if you are unsure – most RNA viruses encountered in clinical practice are single stranded. The exception is rotavirus which is dsRNA virus. RNA viruses that use DNA during their replication are classed as retroviruses (HIV is an example)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after 18 months of regular sexual activity. She inquires about the possible outcomes for the treatment of various aetiologies during the discussion on aetiology, further work-up, and treatment.

      Which of the following conditions has the best chance of being treated?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Treatment for infertility caused by ovulation issues has had the best results by far. PCOS, also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is marked by hyperandrogenism, tiny cysts in the ovaries, acne, and hirsutism, as well as ovulation issues that result in anovulatory cycles due to hormonal imbalance.

      70% of females with anovulatory periods begin ovulation under medical supervision, and 50% of those conceive within 6 to 9 months.

      Infertility can be caused by low or no sperm counts, poor sperm motility, or dysmorphic sperms. Treatment options include fertility medicines that promote sperm production, artificial insemination with donor sperm, and intracytoplasmic injection of sperm, but success rates are poor (less than 25 percent ). Following pelvic inflammatory disease, previous surgery, or tuberculosis, the Fallopian tubes become obstructed or damaged, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Tubal blockages and adhesions are treated by laparoscopic surgery. The success rate of conception varies greatly depending on the degree of the blockage, ranging from 10% to 70%.

      Turner syndrome is linked to infertility and ovarian dysgenesis. Treatment for gonadal dysgenesis and reversal of infertility is not an option. Because of the high likelihood of miscarriages, even after egg donation, the success rate is relatively low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following describes the change from cervical columnar epithelium to stratified...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes the change from cervical columnar epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium?

      Your Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Cells adapt to external stressors in a variety of ways. A cell can either undergo hypertrophy or hyperplasia to overcome the stress, or atrophy if unable to overcome the stress. Metaplasia occurs when fully differentiated cell lines transform into another fully differentiated cell type to adapt to a new external environment. The replacement of columnar epithelium of the cervix to a stratified squamous epithelium occurs in the squamocolumnar transformation zone in response to the exposure of an everted ectocervix to the acidic pH of the vagina at puberty and first pregnancy. Carcinoma in situ is thought to involve the immature metaplastic cells in this region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - During normal pregnancy, the renal glomerular filtrate rate (GFR) can increase as much...

    Correct

    • During normal pregnancy, the renal glomerular filtrate rate (GFR) can increase as much as:

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of which ant-epileptics induce cytochrome P450. Of the above Topiramate and Phenytoin are moderate and strong inducers respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 36 year old patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is parametrial involvement but it is confined within the pelvic wall and does not involve the lower 1/3 vagina. There is no evidence of hydronephrosis. What FIGO stage is this?

      Your Answer: 2B

      Explanation:

      It is stage 2B. Stage I: is strictly confined to the cervix; extension to the uterine corpus should be disregarded. The diagnosis of both Stages IA1 and IA2 should be based on microscopic examination of removed tissue, preferably a cone, which must include the entire lesion.
      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma:
      Stage IA: Invasive cancer identified only microscopically. Invasion is limited to measured stromal invasion with a maximum depth of 5 mm and no wider than 7 mm.
      Stage IA1: Measured invasion of the stroma no greater than 3 mm in depth and no wider than 7 mm diameter.
      Stage IA2: Measured invasion of stroma greater than 3 mm but no greater than 5 mm in depth and no wider than 7 mm in diameter.

      Stage IB: Clinical lesions confined to the cervix or preclinical lesions greater than Stage IA. All gross lesions even with superficial invasion are Stage IB cancers.
      Stage IB1: Clinical lesions no greater than 4 cm in size.
      Stage IB2: Clinical lesions greater than 4 cm in size.

      Stage II: carcinoma that extends beyond the cervix, but does not extend into the pelvic wall. The carcinoma involves the vagina, but not as far as the lower third.
      Stage IIA: No obvious parametrial involvement. Involvement of up to the upper two-thirds of the vagina.
      Stage IIB: Obvious parametrial involvement, but not into the pelvic sidewall.

      Stage III: carcinoma that has extended into the pelvic sidewall. On rectal examination, there is no cancer-free space between the tumour and the pelvic sidewall. The tumour involves the lower third of the vagina. All cases with hydronephrosis or a non-functioning kidney are Stage III cancers.
      Stage IIIA: No extension into the pelvic sidewall but involvement of the lower third of the vagina.
      Stage IIIB: Extension into the pelvic sidewall or hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney.

      Stage IV: carcinoma that has extended beyond the true pelvis or has clinically involved the mucosa of the bladder and/or rectum.
      Stage IVA: Spread of the tumour into adjacent pelvic organs.
      Stage IVB: Spread to distant organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient...

    Correct

    • You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient by your consultant. The pudendal nerve is formed from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer: S2,S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve has its origins form S2, S3 and S4 spinal segments. It provides sensation to the clitoris and labia along with the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone? ...

    Correct

    • Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The production of milk is regulated by the hormone Prolactin. Oxytocin on the other hand is responsible for the let down reflex that occurs during breast feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?

      Your Answer: Advise her that the mass is a physiologic cyst and that no treatment or further review is required.

      Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.

      Explanation:

      Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
      Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
      This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following situations are mini-pills unsafe to use?

      Your Answer: Biliary tract disease

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cysts

      Explanation:

      Progestin only pills increase the risk of developing follicular cysts. Sonographic studies have observed that follicular cysts are more common in POP users than women not using hormones. The follicular changes tend to increase and regress over time. No intervention is required in asymptomatic women, other than reassurance. POP users who have persistent concerns about ovarian follicular changes should be offered another method of contraception.

      All other options are not contraindications to the use of mini-pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of her pregnancy, complaining of a mild vaginal bleeding since last 12 hours along with mild but periodic pain.

      On vaginal examination, cervical os is found to be closed with mild discharge which contains blood clots. Ultrasound performed confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal foetal heart sound.

      What among the following will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      The case is most likely diagnosed a threatened miscarriage.
      A diagnosis of threatened miscarriage is made when there is uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix and is confirmed by the sonographic visualisation of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity. Miscarriages may not always follow even though there was multiple episodes or large amounts of bleeding, therefore the term “threatened” is used in these cases.
      At 7 to 11 weeks of gestation, about 90 to 96 percent cases of pregnancies, will not usually miscarry if they have presented with an intact fetal cardiac activity along with vaginal bleeding and if bleeding occurs at the later weeks of gestational age chances of success rate is higher.

      Topic review:
      – Inevitable miscarriages presents with a dilated cervix, increasing uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissues can often be felt or seen through the cervical os and its passage occurs within a short time.
      – In Incomplete miscarriage, the membranes will rupture passing the fetus out, but significant amounts of placental tissue will be retained. This occurs most commonly in late first trimester or early second trimester. On examination, the cervical os will be opened and the gestational tissue can be observed in the cervix, with a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age, but not well contracted. The amount of bleeding varies but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock. There will be painful cramps
      ontractions and ultrasound reveals tissue in the uterus.
      – A missed miscarriage refers to the in-utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20th week of gestation, with retention of the pregnancy for a prolonged period of time. In this case, women may notice that symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have abated and they don’t “feel pregnant” anymore.
      Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix usually remains closed. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
      – Complete miscarriage, usually occurs before 12 weeks of gestation and the entire contents of the uterus will be expelled resulting in a complete miscarriage. In this case, physical examination reveals a small, well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix with scanty vaginal bleeding and mild cramping. Ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus with no extra-uterine gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - The major cause of the increased risk of morbidity & mortality among twin...

    Correct

    • The major cause of the increased risk of morbidity & mortality among twin gestation is:

      Your Answer: Preterm delivery

      Explanation:

      Twin pregnancy is associated with a number of obstetric complications, some of them with serious perinatal consequences, especially for the second twin. The rate of perinatal mortality can be up to six times higher in twin compared to singleton pregnancies, largely due to higher rates of preterm delivery and fetal growth restriction seen in twin pregnancies. Preterm birth and birth weight are also significant determinants of morbidity and mortality into infancy and childhood. More than 50% of twins and almost all triplets are born before 37 weeks of gestation and about 15–20% of admissions to neonatal units are associated with preterm twins and triplets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & increased Prostaglandin E2

      Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.

      Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.

      Explanation:

      There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.

      Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.

      Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 26 year old lady comes to see you in the antenatal clinic....

    Correct

    • A 26 year old lady comes to see you in the antenatal clinic. She is 8 weeks pregnant and is concerned as she has a new cat and her friend told her she shouldn't be changing cat litter when pregnant. You send bloods which show high IgM for toxoplasmosis gondii. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Spiramycin

      Explanation:

      There are 2 treatment options: Spiramycin ASAP if foetus not infected or status of the foetus not known. This reduces risk of transplacental infection. This is continued until term, or until fetal infection is documented. Pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine and folic acid where fetal infection is known e.g. positive amniotic fluid PCR. Monitoring for haemotoxicity required. Pyrimethamine should be avoided in the 1st trimester as teratogenic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th week of gestation. An hour ago, she experienced constant abdominal pain for an hour and passed blood in her urine. What is the next best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Cardiotocograph

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography (CTG) helps to record the heartbeat of the foetus in parallel to measuring the contractions of the mother’s uterus, this is the most appropriate tool to assess this patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of the pelvis?

      Your Answer: Transverse diameter of the inlet

      Correct Answer: Shape of the pubic arch

      Explanation:

      During pelvimetry, the shape of the pubic arch is usually examined. It helps in determining the outcome of the type of fetal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - As part of your patient's infertility evaluation, you recommended a postcoital test.

    As...

    Correct

    • As part of your patient's infertility evaluation, you recommended a postcoital test.

      As part of postcoital testing, she and her partner should have sexual intercourse on which day of her menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Day 14

      Explanation:

      Post coital literally means “after intercourse” which is when this fertility test is conducted. The patient has intercourse at home usually between cycle days 12 and 15 (or a day around the LH surge as measured by urinary ovulation predictor kits). Afterwards, the female comes to the office and a sample of the cervical mucus is taken for microscopic examination.

      The post coital fertility test (PCT) allows for evaluation of sperm in the cervical mucus and to determine the consistency of the mucus. Sperm must swim through the cervical mucus from the vagina, through the cervix, and into the uterus. Normal sperm will be active and swim in approximate straight lines through the mucus. If the mucus is too thick, sperm impedance can be observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with: ...

    Correct

    • The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary gonadotropins

      Explanation:

      There is marked elevation of FSH and LH in ovarian dysgenesis, produced by the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 25 year old primigravida with a regular cycle had her last menstrual...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old primigravida with a regular cycle had her last menstrual period on June 30th. Therefore the expected date of delivery (EDD) is approximately when the following year:

      Your Answer: 7-Apr

      Explanation:

      Expected date of delivery (EDD) is a calculated from the first day of the woman’s last menstrual period. If her periods are regular i.e., 28-day menstrual cycle, Naegele’s rule may be used. Naegele’s rule involves a simple calculation: add seven days to the first day of your LMP and then subtract three months. e.g. 30 June + 7 days = 7 July, minus 3 months = 7 April.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - What is the normal range for variability in cardiotocography (CTG) analysis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the normal range for variability in cardiotocography (CTG) analysis?

      Your Answer: 5-25 bpm

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography, also known as the non-stress test is used to monitor fetal heartbeat and uterine contractions of the uterus. An abnormal CTG may indicate fetal distress and prompt an early intervention. Variability refers to the variation in the fetal heartbeat form one beat to another. Normal variability is between 5-25 beats per minute while an abnormal variability is less than 5 bpm for more than 50 minutes, or more than 25 bpm for more than 25 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive...

    Incorrect

    • A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive again. She has just completed chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

      Your Answer: 6 weeks from completion of treatment

      Correct Answer: 1 year from completion of treatment

      Explanation:

      According to the RCOG greentop guidelines, a women who have underdone chemotherapy for GTD are advised not to conceive for 1 years after completion of the chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at: ...

    Correct

    • The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at:

      Your Answer: 10 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, concentrations of hCG in the blood and urine usually double every 24 hours. Levels of the hormone typically peak at around 10 weeks, decline until 16 weeks, then remain constant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
      U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - What is meant by a barr body? ...

    Correct

    • What is meant by a barr body?

      Your Answer: It is the condensed non-functioning X chromosome

      Explanation:

      Barr body is an inactive and non functioning X chromosome found in female somatic cells and is presents with a rim around the nucleus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery,...

    Correct

    • All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?

      Your Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm

      Explanation:

      For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What percentage of patients with breast cancer have hypercalcaemia ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of patients with breast cancer have hypercalcaemia

      Your Answer: 2-3%

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      20% of the patients with breast cancer will have hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:

      Your Answer: Dating ultrasound together with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97%

      Explanation:

      Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.

      The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. What is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Methyldopa

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).

      Non-severe Hypertension and asymptomatic at ≥ 20w
      (BP ≥ 140/90 and < 160/110mmHg)
      • Urine dipstick analysis
      • Quantify 24hr urine protein excretion/U-PCR
      • Start Methyldopa 500mg 8hrly
      • Do Hb, Platelet count, s-Cr, AST/ALT, Urine specimen for MC&S
      • If gestational hypertension is diagnosed and BP is well controlled, continue antihypertensive therapy and plan delivery at 38 weeks if all remains well in the interim

      Hypertension with symptoms or severe features
      • Admit in High care unit and nurse in left lateral
      • Insert urinary catheter and IV line
      • Administer IV Ringers lactate (total volume of IV fluid administered should not exceed
      80mls/hr)
      • Start Magnesium Sulphate
      • Control BP
      • Perform an ultrasound (if indicated) or assess clinically to determine fetal viability,
      EFW (Estimated Fetal Weight) and liquor volume and, if possible
      • If GA ≥ 34/40 or EFW ≥ 2200g expedite delivery
      • If GA ≥ 26/40 and < 34/40, administer course of steroids to enhance fetal lung maturity
      • If patient is stabilised, offer expectant management if < 34 weeks and eligible

      Acute severe hypertension (DBP ≥ 110mmHg and or SBP ≥ 160mmHg)
      • Administer Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg per os immediately
      • Start maintenance therapy with Nifedipine (Adalat XL®) 30-60mg BD orally (maximum
      120mg/day)
      • Aim for DBP ≤ 110 and SBP ≤ 160mmHg
      • If BP is still high after 30 minutes, repeat Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg orally every 30
      minutes, for a maximum of three dosages or until BP < 160/110mmHg (contraindication:
      tachycardia > 120 bpm, unable to swallow, cardiac lesion).
      • If after 30 minutes BP is still high then give Labetalol 20, 40, 80, 80 and
      80mg (max 300mg) as bolus doses at 10 minute intervals, checking BP every 10
      minutes until BP < 160/110mmHg. Contra-indications: patients with asthma and
      ischaemic heart disease. If BP monitoring is not achievable at 10 minute intervals then
      patient should be transferred to ICU for a Labetalol infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form? ...

    Correct

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?

      Your Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what...

    Correct

    • In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what advice would you give regarding Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer: All RhD-negative women who are not alloimmunized should receive Anti-D IgG

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies within 72 hours following abortion. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical...

    Correct

    • At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?

      Your Answer: 60

      Explanation:

      The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur? ...

    Correct

    • In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur?

      Your Answer: 24-36 hours before ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation usually occurs on day 14 in a typical 28-day cycle. Luteinizing hormone levels spike as a result of increased oestrogen levels secreted from maturing follicles. This LH spike occurs about 24-36 hours before the release of the oocyte from the mature follicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Lowered haemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding which is mainly due...

    Correct

    • Lowered haemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding which is mainly due to:

      Your Answer: Increased plasma volume

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, anaemia increases more than fourfold from the first to third trimester. It is a well established fact that there is a physiological drop in haemoglobin (Hb) in the mid trimester. This physiological drop is attributed to increase of plasma volume and hence decrease of blood viscosity lead to better circulation in placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Hormones that increase during pregnancy and their roles:

      1. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG): Peaks between the eighth to tenth weeks of gestation and supports the corpus luteum to maintain progesterone production.
      2. Progesterone: Initially produced by the corpus luteum and later by the placenta, it rises steadily throughout pregnancy, suppressing the maternal immune response to fetal antigens and preparing the endometrium for implantation.
      3. Estrogen: Produced by the placenta from fetal and maternal precursors, estrogen levels increase to promote uterine growth and blood flow.
      4. Human Placental Lactogen (hPL): Rises significantly during pregnancy, influencing maternal metabolism by increasing insulin resistance and promoting lipolysis.
      5. Relaxin: Increases early in pregnancy to relax the uterine muscles, inhibit contractions, and prepare the cervix and pelvis for childbirth.
      6. Prolactin: Levels increase to prepare the breasts for lactation.
      7. Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH): Increases towards the end of pregnancy and is involved in the timing of labor.
      8. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH): Levels increase, contributing to elevated cortisol levels during pregnancy.
      9. Total Thyroxine (T4): Levels increase due to elevated thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) production stimulated by increased estrogen levels, meeting the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy.
      10. Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Levels increase to regulate calcium metabolism, ensuring adequate calcium for fetal bone development.
      11. Cortisol: Levels increase due to higher production by the adrenal glands and increased binding to cortisol-binding globulin (CBG), supporting glucose metabolism, managing stress, and aiding fetal development, particularly lung maturation.

      During pregnancy, some hormones either remain stable or do not increase significantly. These include:

      1. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH): Levels decrease due to the negative feedback from high levels of estrogen and progesterone.
      2. Luteinizing Hormone (LH): Levels also decrease due to negative feedback from elevated estrogen and progesterone.
      3. Growth Hormone (GH): Although a variant of growth hormone (hGH-V) is produced by the placenta and increases, the maternal pituitary GH levels may not significantly increase.
      4. Melatonin: Generally remains stable during pregnancy, though some studies suggest there may be slight fluctuations.
      5. Insulin: While insulin resistance increases due to hPL and other factors, the actual levels of insulin may not increase proportionally; instead, pancreatic beta-cell function adapts to meet the increased demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type...

    Incorrect

    • Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

      Your Answer: Exocrine

      Correct Answer: Endocrine

      Explanation:

      Endocrine hormones are released from their site of origin and travel through the blood to act on other distant target organs. Autocrine hormones act within the same cell and exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old...

    Correct

    • The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is:

      Your Answer: Mixed vaginal flora

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora- Mixed vaginal flora is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than – albicans and T. vaginalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding facilitates the production of Oxytocin by the hypothalamus which is stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
      Ergometrine is an ergoline derivative that can be used to increase uterine tone.
      Atosiban is an antagonist of Oxytocin receptors
      ADH is another posterior pituitary hormone.
      Prostaglandin E2 plays an important role in cervical ripening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease.

      Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy.

      Explanation:

      This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.

      The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A midwife is concerned regarding CTG changes and suggests a fetal blood sample...

    Correct

    • A midwife is concerned regarding CTG changes and suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?

      Your Answer: Less than 3cm

      Explanation:

      Fetal Blood Sampling (FBS) should only be performed when the cervix is >3cm dilated.

      Indications for FBS:
      1. Pathological CTG in labour
      2. Suspected acidosis in labour

      Contraindications to FBS
      – Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
      – Known fetal coagulopathy
      – Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
      – Acute fetal compromise

      Interpretation of FBS results:
      pH >7.25 = Normal -Repeat in 1 hour if CTG remains abnormal
      7.21 to 7.24 = Borderline – Repeat in 30 minutes
      <7.20 = Abnormal - Consider delivery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 27-year-old woman complains of a lump in her right breast after a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman complains of a lump in her right breast after a history of trauma to her right breast 2 weeks ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis may occur following a traumatic injury to the breast. The lump is usually firm, round, and painless.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - What is the main reason for the active management of the third stage...

    Correct

    • What is the main reason for the active management of the third stage of labour?

      Your Answer: Prevent postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      According to the WHO, active management of the third stage of labour has been shown to decrease the risk of postpartum haemorrhage in vaginal births worldwide. Per the guidelines from the International Federation of Gynaecologists and Obstetricians (FIGO), the active management of the third stage is summarised as follows:
      1. The administration of a uterotonic (oxytocin, ergometrine or misoprostol), within one minute of fetal delivery,
      2.Controlled cord traction with manual support to the uterus until placental delivery
      3. Fundal massage immediately after placental delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - In the foetus where is the principle site of alpha fetoprotein (AFP) production...

    Correct

    • In the foetus where is the principle site of alpha fetoprotein (AFP) production

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      AFP is a glycoprotein that is synthesized in the fetal liver (primarily), umbilical vesicles and the gut. It is found in elevated quantities in the fetal serum and peaks at around 14 week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 61 year old patient undergoes laparotomy for a suspicious left sided ovarian...

    Correct

    • A 61 year old patient undergoes laparotomy for a suspicious left sided ovarian mass. Following histology the patient is diagnosed with a stage 1A ovarian epithelial cancer. What is the 5 year survival for stage 1 ovarian cancers?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      The five year survival of stage 1 ovarian cancer is 70-90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has...

    Correct

    • A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine; and they are planning to have a baby in next three months.

      What will be the most appropriate management in this patient during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and continue sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis and its prognosis during pregnancy are highly unpredictable, as the disease can improve in 75% of the cases and gets worse in 25%. During conception and pregnancy, it is advisable to avoid those rheumatoid arthritis medications which possess high risk in causing congenital disabilities. Most common such contraindicated remedies include methotrexate and leflunomide.
      Drugs like Prednisone, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and TNF inhibitors are also not considered safe during pregnancy, so if required these should be used under specialist supervision.

      Sulfasalazine and Antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine are safe and can be used without much complications during pregnancy. In this given case, the patient should be advised to stop methotrexate and to continue sulfasalazine during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It is surrounded by the sella turcica

      Explanation:

      The Sella turcica is composed of three parts:
      1. The tuberculum sellae (horn of saddle): a variable slight to prominent median elevation forming the posterior
      boundary of the prechiasmatic sulcus and the anterior boundary of the hypophysial fossa.
      2. The hypophysial fossa (pituitary fossa): a median depression (seat of saddle) in the body of the sphenoid that accommodates the pituitary gland (L. hypophysis).
      3. The dorsum sellae (back of saddle): a square plate of bone projecting superiorly from the body of the sphenoid.
      It forms the posterior boundary of the Sella turcica, and its prominent superolateral angles make up the posterior clinoid processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Correct

    • What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The perineal membrane is a tough fascial sheet that attaches to the sides of the urogenital triangle. it forms the inferior border of the deep pouch which lies between this and the levator ani and the superior border of the superficial pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every: ...

    Correct

    • In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      During early pregnancy, hCG can be detected in the maternal serum as early as 6 to 8 days after fertilization. hCG levels are dynamically increased and doubled every 48 h in most normal pregnancies, and this pattern is similar in both in vivo or in vitro (IVF) conceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Pain is absent and upon examination, the following are found: abdomen soft and relaxed, uterus size is equal to dates and CTG reactive. What is the single most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placenta previa

      Explanation:

      Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding usually in the second to third trimester. Although it’s a condition that sometimes resolves by itself, bleeding may result in serious complications for the mother and the baby and so it should be managed as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation.
      She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation.

      Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending.

      From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
      As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.

      Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.

      In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia/TE fistula may be suspected prenatally with ultrasound findings of polyhydramnios, absence of fluid in the stomach, small sized abdomen, or the presence of a dilated proximal oesophageal pouch. An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends your clinic. She is planning for a pregnancy in the next few months and feels well generally.
      What would be your advice?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy is contraindicated in her condition

      Explanation:

      From the options given, option A is correct as primary pulmonary hypertension is considered a contraindication to pregnancy.
      The patient should be educated about the possible risks and increased maternal mortality in such cases. This restriction is due to the fact that symptoms of Pulmonary hypertension gets worse during pregnancy which results in high maternal mortality.
      Termination of pregnancy may be advisable in these circumstances mostly to preserve the life of the mother.
      Sudden death secondary to hypotension is also a commonly dreaded complication among patients with pulmonary hypertension during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - When a 75-year-old lady laughs, sneezes, coughs, or lifts big weights, she leaks...

    Incorrect

    • When a 75-year-old lady laughs, sneezes, coughs, or lifts big weights, she leaks pee. She also claims that she has the urge to pass pee 10-12 times a day, and that she can't go to the restroom half of the time. She appears to have a harder time with urgency. Infections are not found in a urine test. Except for a residual amount of 125cc, an ultrasound scan of the bladder, ureter, and kidneys is inconclusive.

      Which of the following treatment options is the best fit for her?

      Your Answer: Anticholinergic medications

      Correct Answer: Bladder training

      Explanation:

      This woman has mixed incontinence, which includes signs and symptoms of both stresses and urges incontinence. The urge, on the other hand, irritates her. Bladder training would be the most appropriate management approach to investigate first for women with urge incontinence as the most troublesome symptom. The objectives are:
      – Using a bladder diary to establish a baseline
      – Creating a voiding schedule
      – Over a long period, gradually increase the voiding interval in increments of 2- 5 minutes, to void every 3 hours.
      – Other important strategies to consider are lifestyle changes like reducing fluid intake, losing weight, and avoiding diuretics-producing foods and beverages (e.g., alcoholic beverages, caffeine, etc).

      When urge incontinence does not respond to physical or behavioural therapy, anticholinergics along with ongoing bladder training are an alternative. A 4- to 6-week trial is employed. At six months, risk and benefit are weighed to see if treatment should be continued for those who react. Patients should be informed about anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth and constipation, as well as how to control them.

      Anterior colporrhaphy is a treatment for cystocele that involves repairing the front vaginal wall. It can help people with urine incontinence. If you don’t have a cystocele, bladder neck suspension is the best option.
      Retropubic bladder suspension is a more intrusive surgery for treating stress urinary incontinence in patients who haven’t responded to less invasive treatments like pelvic floor exercise.

      The most essential initial conservative therapy to explore for patients with real stress incontinence and mixed (both stress and urge) urine incontinence when stress incontinence is the more prominent symptom is pelvic floor muscle exercise (e.g. Kegel exercise). For urge incontinence, more difficult training can be applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does meconium first appear in the fetal terminal ilium?

      Your Answer: 2-4 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: 10-16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Meconium first appears in the fetal ilium at 10-16 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last...

    Correct

    • A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last and only pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 3 years ago. Contractions are 6 minutes apart and on examination and the cervix is 6cm dilated. She wants to know the chances of a successful vaginal delivery if she proceeds with a vaginal delivery after C-section(VBAC). What is the chance of successful delivery with VBAC?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      There is 70% chance that a women who has had a C-section can deliver via spontaneous vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?

      Your Answer: Prolactin levels increase after ingesting high glucose containing meals

      Correct Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      33.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (8/11) 73%
Obstetrics (13/21) 62%
Physiology (9/11) 82%
Clinical Management (8/10) 80%
Endocrinology (4/7) 57%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology (10/15) 67%
Microbiology (3/5) 60%
Embryology (3/5) 60%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (3/3) 100%
Biophysics (2/2) 100%
Data Interpretation (2/2) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Passmed