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  • Question 1 - Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?...

    Incorrect

    • Branches V2 and V3 of the Trigeminal nerve develop from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 2nd

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      1st Arch = Trigeminal V2 & V3 (CN V) 2nd Arch = Facial (CN VII) 3rd Arch = Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) 4th and 6th Arches = Vagus (CN X)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      108.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has...

    Correct

    • A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine; and they are planning to have a baby in next three months.

      What will be the most appropriate management in this patient during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and continue sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis and its prognosis during pregnancy are highly unpredictable, as the disease can improve in 75% of the cases and gets worse in 25%. During conception and pregnancy, it is advisable to avoid those rheumatoid arthritis medications which possess high risk in causing congenital disabilities. Most common such contraindicated remedies include methotrexate and leflunomide.
      Drugs like Prednisone, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and TNF inhibitors are also not considered safe during pregnancy, so if required these should be used under specialist supervision.

      Sulfasalazine and Antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine are safe and can be used without much complications during pregnancy. In this given case, the patient should be advised to stop methotrexate and to continue sulfasalazine during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 53 year old female presents with hot flushes and night sweats. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 53 year old female presents with hot flushes and night sweats. Her last menstrual period was last year. She had MI recently. Choose the most appropriate management for this patient.

      Your Answer: Evening primrose

      Correct Answer: Clonidine

      Explanation:

      With a history of MI, oestrogen and COCP should be avoided. Evening primrose is also not suitable for post-menopausal symptoms. Raloxifene is a SERM – these make hot flushes worse. Clonidine will help improve the hot flushes and the vasomotor symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually...

    Correct

    • You review a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant. She complains of gradually worsening itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. You order some bloods. Which of the following would you normally expect to increase in the 3rd trimester?

      Your Answer: ALP

      Explanation:

      ALP can rise to up to 3 times the normal non-pregnant value in the 3rd trimester. All of the other tests above typically decrease during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is responsible for the let down mechanism that occurs during breast feeding in which the myothelial cells contract and push the milk into the ductules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk?

      Your Answer: Older age at menarche

      Correct Answer: Taking statins

      Explanation:

      Factors shown to decrease risk of ovarian cancer are:
      – Oral contraceptive use
      – Higher Parity
      – Breast feeding
      – Hysterectomy
      – Tubal Ligation
      – Statins
      – SLE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Where is Glucagon produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is Glucagon produced?

      Your Answer: Islet alpha cells

      Explanation:

      The alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production and secretion of glucagon. The B cells secrete insulin, the D cells secrete somatostatin, and the F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide. The B cells, which are the most common and account for 60–75% of the cells in the islets, are generally located in the centre of each islet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In girls what is the first sign of puberty? ...

    Incorrect

    • In girls what is the first sign of puberty?

      Your Answer: Menarche

      Correct Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of puberty in females is the development of breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on...

    Correct

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac is typically visible from 31 days gestation by transvaginal ultrasound and a week later (38 days) on transabdominal ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones? ...

    Incorrect

    • Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer: Atosiban

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding facilitates the production of Oxytocin by the hypothalamus which is stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
      Ergometrine is an ergoline derivative that can be used to increase uterine tone.
      Atosiban is an antagonist of Oxytocin receptors
      ADH is another posterior pituitary hormone.
      Prostaglandin E2 plays an important role in cervical ripening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Early menarche

      Explanation:

      Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous oestrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin.

      Early age at menarche is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma in some studies; late menopause is less consistently associated with an increased risk of the disease. Both of these factors result in prolonged oestrogen stimulation and at times of the reproductive years during which anovulatory cycles are common

      Other risk factors include
      obesity,
      nulliparity,
      diabetes mellitus, and
      hypertension.

      The risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma with oestrogen therapy can be significantly reduced by the concomitant administration of a progestin. In general, combined oestrogen-progestin preparations do not increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.

      Endometrial carcinoma usually occurs in postmenopausal women (mean age at diagnosis is 62 years). Women under age 50 who develop endometrial cancer often have risk factors such as obesity or chronic anovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      80
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia with incidence rates in the UK approximately 30 per 100,000 The majority of patients are postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      102.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?

      Your Answer: Starting HRT in a woman who clearly has advanced AD is of value in reducing the severity of the disease.

      Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
      Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
      Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.

      Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
      GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.

      Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
      If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      150.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?

      Your Answer: Order Ca125

      Correct Answer: Discharge with no follow up

      Explanation:

      As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      390.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The yolk sac reaches its maximum diameter at what week of gestation? ...

    Correct

    • The yolk sac reaches its maximum diameter at what week of gestation?

      Your Answer: 10 weeks

      Explanation:

      The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary gonadotropins

      Explanation:

      There is marked elevation of FSH and LH in ovarian dysgenesis, produced by the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      154.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A chronic alcoholic lady presented to the medical clinic with complaints of an...

    Correct

    • A chronic alcoholic lady presented to the medical clinic with complaints of an increase in abdominal size. Ultrasound was performed and revealed a foetus in which parameters correspond to 32 weeks of gestation. Upon history taking, it was noted that she works in a pub and occasionally takes marijuana, cocaine, amphetamine and opioid.

      Which of the following is considered to have the most teratogenic effect to the foetus?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      All of the conditions that comprise fetal alcohol spectrum disorders stem from one common cause, which is prenatal exposure to alcohol. Alcohol is extremely teratogenic to a foetus. Its effects are wide-ranging and irreversible. Although higher amounts of prenatal alcohol exposure have been linked to increased incidence and severity of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, there are no studies that demonstrate a safe amount of alcohol that can be consumed during pregnancy. There is also no safe time during pregnancy in which alcohol can be consumed without risk to the foetus. Alcohol is teratogenic during all three trimesters. In summary, any amount of alcohol consumed at any point during pregnancy has the potential cause of irreversible damage that can lead to a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.

      In general, diagnoses within fetal alcohol spectrum disorders have one or more of the following features: abnormal facies, central nervous system abnormalities, and growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      120.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with...

    Correct

    • Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with no sub-nuclear vacuoles. The stroma is oedematous, & a tortuous gland contains secretions. These findings are consistent with which stage of the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Mid-secretory

      Explanation:

      During mid secretory phase, the endometrium cells undergo distension, become more tortuous and are lined by columnar cells.
      In the early proliferative phase, the glandular epithelium is cubo-columnar, while in the late proliferative phase, the glands increase in size, becoming tortuous and there is pseudostratification of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      136.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which is a false statement about endometriosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which is a false statement about endometriosis?

      Your Answer: The usual delay in diagnosis is 8 to 10 months with onset in adolescence

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!

      This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.

      All other options are true statements about endometriosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      643.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies?

      Your Answer: 99%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Human Papillomavirus has been is implicated in the development of genital warts as well as, head and neck, anogenital and cervical cancers, with the most important high-risk strains being 16 and 18. Over 50% of women worldwide are thought to possess antibodies against various strains of HPV after natural infection. Many infections are asymptomatic and are cleared within 2 years. Several vaccines have been formulated against HPV, one of which is Gardasil, a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV types 6,11, 16,18.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension,...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.

      Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      103.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - DEXA scans measure bone density by ...

    Correct

    • DEXA scans measure bone density by

      Your Answer: Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site

      Explanation:

      DEXA works by passing two low dose XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the patient’s bone. Some of the XRAY radiation will be absorbed (the greater the density the greater the absorption) whilst some will pass through to a detector. Soft tissue absorption is subtracted out and the BMD can be determined from the absorption of each beam. It is important to realise that two beams are used at each site when measuring bone density (hence ‘dual’). Although two sites are typically used (spine and femoral neck) when measuring bone density this is not why the term dual is used Computer analysis of multiple X-ray beams taken from different angles and geographical digital processing are features of CT scanning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      269.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain from the parts of the vagina as follows:
      • Superior part: to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes.
      • Middle part: to the internal iliac lymph nodes.
      • Inferior part: to the sacral and common iliac nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy.

      Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Regular ovulatory periods

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.

      Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.

      Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      128.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
      – An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
      – When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
      – Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
      – Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
      – If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.

      There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor (diaphragm)?

      Your Answer: Piriformis

      Explanation:

      The pelvic floor or diaphragm is composed of Coccygeus and Levator Ani. Levitator Ani is composed of 3 muscles: puborectalis, pubococcygeus and iliococcygeal. Although Piriformis assists in closing the posterior pelvic outlet it is not considered a component of the pelvic floor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      189.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways?

      Your Answer: Releases cAMP that triggers intracellular Calcium ion release

      Correct Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin activates phospholipase C to produce inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3), which releases Ca2+ from intracellular stores. There are thought to be other mechanisms by which myometrium is stimulated by Oxytocin including increased sensitisation of the myometrium and increased calcium entry into cells. cAMP and Protein Kinase A inhibit myometrial contractility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      139.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      97.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
      Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.

      Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
      – Dry vaginal skin
      – Vaginal inflammation or burning
      – Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
      – Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
      – Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
      – Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
      – A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
      – Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which one of the following has the most significant effect on slowing drug...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following has the most significant effect on slowing drug metabolism in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Lower albumin concentration

      Correct Answer: Progesterone effect on gastric motility

      Explanation:

      Progesterone down regulates gastric motility meaning drugs are absorbed and metabolised more slowly, thus drugs are absorbed, metabolised and cleared more slowly. Most of the drugs are transported after binding to the albumin.
      Lower albumin levels mean a greater unbound drug fraction but as this may be thought to increase drug concentrations it actually leaves more available for hepatic clearance or renal excretion so overall drug concentrations are unchanged and metabolism increased.
      Increase in hepatic flow will increase the metabolism of the drug as the drug will be transported faster.
      Increased renal blood flow will result in the faster clearance of the drug from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      110.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last week during a routine physical examination. Two years ago, the patient had bilateral reduction mammoplasty for breast hyperplasia. Her paternal grandmother died of breast cancer at the age of 65, thus she doesn't take any drugs or have any allergies.

      A fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is palpated during a breast examination. In the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, mammography reveals a 3 × 3-cm spiculated tumour with coarse calcifications. A hyperechoic mass can be seen on ultrasonography of the breast. The mass is removed with concordant pathologic findings, and a core biopsy reveals foamy macrophages and fat globules.

      Which of the following is the best plan of action for this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is a benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that can develop when an area of fatty breast tissue is injured. It can also develop after breast surgery or radiation treatment.

      There are different stages of fat necrosis. As the fat cells die, they release their contents, forming a sac-like collection of greasy fluid called an oil cyst. Over time, calcifications (small deposits of calcium) can form around the walls of the cyst, which can often be seen on mammograms. As the body continues to repair the damaged breast tissue, it’s usually replaced by denser scar tissue. Oil cysts and areas of fat necrosis can form a lump that can be felt, but it usually doesn’t hurt. The skin around the lump might look thicker, red, or bruised. Sometimes these changes can be hard to tell apart from cancers on a breast exam or even a mammogram. If this is the case, a breast biopsy (removing all or part of the lump to look at the tissue under the microscope) might be needed to find out if the lump contains cancer cells. These breast changes do not affect your risk for breast cancer.

      Mastectomy, axillary node dissection and radiation therapy are all management options for malignancy which this patient doesn’t have.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      103.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which...

    Correct

    • Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which stage of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 6-12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge....

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The treatment of Chlamydia includes avoidance of intercourse, use of condoms and antibiotic treatment. Erythromycin 500mg orally QID for 7 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7 days or Ofloxacin 200mg orally BD for 7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 110 g/l

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Anaemia in pregnancy is defined by the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidance: 1st trimester Hb < 110 g/l 2nd and 3rd trimester Hb < 105 g/l Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Villamentous insertion of placenta

      Correct Answer: Clotting factor problem

      Explanation:

      Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      283.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
    Her...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
      Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
      What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks

      Explanation:

      Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
      An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.

      It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.

      Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.

      Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      249.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple accompanied by redness, excoriations, and severe itchiness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast is a type of cancer that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast. Symptoms may include redness of the nipple skin and crusting may occur around the area. In more advance cases, symptoms may include itching or a burning pain in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 26 year old patient with a past medical history of 2 terminations...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old patient with a past medical history of 2 terminations of pregnancies over the past 2 years, presents to the emergency centre complaining of severe abdominal pain and some vaginal bleeding. She has a regular 28 day cycle, and is on an oral contraceptive pill, but missed last month's period. Her last termination was over 6 months ago. She smokes almost a pack of cigarettes a day.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture demonstrated is most likely that of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The period of amenorrhea may point to pregnancy, while the past medical history of 2 recent terminations of pregnancy may indicate a failure of her current contraceptive method. Smoking cigarettes have been shown to not only decrease the efficacy of OCPs, but also serve as a known risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. The lady is unlikely to have endometritis as her last termination was over 6 months ago. The lack of fever helps to make appendicitis, PID and pyelonephritis less likely, though they are still possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      86.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as she is concerned about having gained 4.5 kg over the last year. She believes that the gain is related to her oral contraceptive pills. 

      Patient takes low-dose ethinyl estradiol
      orethindrone daily. Prior to starting the pills, she had regular but heavy periods lasting for 4-5 days.  Patient used to miss her school every month, on the first day of her period, due to severe cramping. Her pain symptoms resolved 3 months after starting the pills and she takes no other medications.  Patient's coitarche was at the age of 18 and she has had 2 partners since then. Patient and her current partner use condoms inconsistently. 

      On examination her vital signs are normal, with a BMI of 27 kg/m2 and physical examination is unremarkable. 

      Among the following which is the most appropriate advice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure that the weight gain is not related to combined OCPs

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, nausea, bloating, amenorrhea, hypertension, venous thromboembolic disease, increased risk of cervical cancer with decreased risk of ovarian & endometrial cancer, liver disorders like hepatic adenoma and increase in triglycerides due to estrogen component are the common side effects & risks of using combination oral contraceptives.

      Patient in the given case mentioned symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea, which is recurrent lower abdominal pain associated with menstruation. Combination estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are considered as the first-line treatment for dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients as OCPs help to reduce pain by thinning the endometrial lining, reducing prostaglandin release and by decreasing uterine contractions.
      Nausea, bloating and breast tenderness, are considered as the early side effects of OCPs and will usually improve with continued use. The most common side effect is breakthrough bleeding which is usually associated with lower estrogen doses and other adverse effects caused by the pills include hypertension, increased risk of cervical cancer and venous thromboembolism. Although common perception considers weight gain as a side effect, several studies have shown that no significant weight gain is associated with OCPs, particularly with low-dose formulations.  Considering this, the patient should be reassured that her weight gain is not associated with regular use of OCPs.

      In patients who are not sexually active, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are considered as the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea. As stopping contraception will increase this Patient’s risk of unintended pregnancy this is not advisable to her.

      Switching the patient to a copper intrauterine device (IUD) will decrease systemic side effects, but as its inflammatory reaction in the uterus may increase pain symptoms, copper IUD is not recommended for patients with dysmenorrhea.

      As Medroxyprogesterone will increase body fat and decrease lean muscle mass resulting in weight gain is not a good option for this patient. Also medroxyprogesterone due to its risk of significant loss of bone mineral density, is not recommended for adolescents or young women. So it can be used in this age group only if other options are unacceptable.

      Presence of estrogen component is the main reason behind the side effects of combination OCPs. Progesterone-only pills have relatively fewer side effects but as they do not inhibit ovulation, they are less effective for treating dysmenorrhea and for contraception.

      Combination oral contraceptive pills are the first-line therapy for primary dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients.  Its side effects include breakthrough bleeding, hypertension, and increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Researches proves that weight gain is usually not an adverse effect of OCPs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.

      Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.

      Explanation:

      There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.

      Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.

      Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged...

    Incorrect

    • You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged 1st stage of labour. You note the fetal head start to retract after being tightly applied to the vulva (turtle-neck sign). What is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: C-section

      Correct Answer: McRoberts' manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Signs of shoulder dystocia:
      – Difficulty with delivery of the face and chin
      – The head remaining tightly applied to the vulva or even retracting (turtle-neck sign)
      – Failure of restitution of the fetal head
      – Failure of the shoulders to descend
      Upon identifying shoulder dystocia additional help should be called and McRoberts manoeuvre (flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, positioning the maternal thighs on her abdomen) should be performed first. Fundal pressure is associated with uterine rupture and should not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      199.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Incorrect

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.

      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device

      Explanation:

      Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

      If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.

      Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.

      Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.

      Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).

      The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A woman visited the OPD with complaints of severe abdominal pain and light-headedness....

    Incorrect

    • A woman visited the OPD with complaints of severe abdominal pain and light-headedness. There is history of fainting three days prior to consultation. She also has vaginal bleeding. In this case, which of the following investigations should be ordered to reach the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Testing for beta hCG should be the first test in this case. It will rule out any pregnancy that is strongly suspected based on the patient’s history and physical examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The Ovaries lymph drains primarily to the lateral para-aortic lymph nodes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Usually presents with primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea, have non functional or streak ovaries and cant conceive. They are 45X genetically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.

      Explanation:

      The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
      Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All are correct

      Explanation:

      LH surge occurs around ovulation and it is this LH surge which results in completion of the 1st meiotic division and ovulation occurs. It enhances the production of androgens and also luteinizes the granulosa cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 30 year old patient attends for non-invasive pre-natal screening for Down's syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old patient attends for non-invasive pre-natal screening for Down's syndrome. You advise her that the result will take the form of a risk score and higher risk results will be offered CVS or amniocentesis. What is the cut-off figure between low and high risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 150

      Explanation:

      1 in 150 is the cut off. Where pre-natal screening shows a risk of 1 in 150 or greater invasive testing is typically offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - At what gestation does a mother typically first become aware of fetal movements?...

    Incorrect

    • At what gestation does a mother typically first become aware of fetal movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18-20 weeks

      Explanation:

      Typically fetal movements become apparent by 18-20 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Under the influence of prolactin, oestrogen and progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL), the mammary epithelium proliferates but remains presecretory during mammogenesis. Lactogenesis is inhibited by high circulating levels of progesterone and oestrogen which block cortisol binding sites. Cortisol would have otherwise have worked synergistically with prolactin in milk production. A sharp decrease in progesterone levels after delivery allows prolactin and oxytocin to stimulate milk production and the milk ejection reflex in response to suckling. Prolactin continues to maintain milk production in galactopoiesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Physiological changes in the reproductive system include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Physiological changes in the reproductive system include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The uterus 1st enlarges by hyperplasia then by hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Although uterine growth during the first few weeks of pregnancy is accomplished by increased numbers of smooth muscle cells (i.e. hyperplasia) and a smaller contribution from increased cell size (i.e. hypertrophy), the predominant growth of the uterus during pregnancy is by way of stretch‐induced myometrial hypertrophy. This ongoing process of stretch‐induced tissue remodelling and smooth muscle hypertrophy is accompanied by the lack of uterine contractions during most of gestation to accommodate the developing foetus (phase 0 of parturition). Phase 1 of parturition represents myometrial activation. The final stages of pregnancy are characterized by increases in spontaneous low‐amplitude contractions that gradually increase in frequency, rhythmicity and strength, normally culminating in labour and delivery of the foetus at term (phase 2 of parturition).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The etonogestrel/ethinyl oestradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing)

      Explanation:

      Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate and the combination contraceptive vaginal ring are the most effective hormonal contraceptives for obese women because they do not appear to be affected by body weight. Women using the combination contraceptive patch who weight 90 kg may experience decreased contraceptive efficacy. Obese women using oral contraceptives may also have an increased risk of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atosiban

      Explanation:

      Atosiban is a modified form of oxytocin that is administered by intravenous infusion for 2–48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from the nearest tertiary obstetric hospital, is referred due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which occurred 2 days ago. This is her first pregnancy, which had been progressing normally until the rupture of membranes. Over the last 48 hours, she did not have any contractions. Transfer was made to the tertiary referral obstetric hospital where she was started on glucocorticoid therapy. Cervical swabs were taken and she underwent ultrasound and cardiotocography assessments. She was also started on prophylactic antibiotics. Cervical swabs only showed growth of normal vaginal flora whereas the abdominal ultrasound found almost no liquor. CTG was normal and reactive.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The white cell count (WCC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels should be assessed every 2-3 days.

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with PROM at 27 weeks of gestation, her management plan would have to include:

      1) Cervical swabs to rule out infection
      2) Commencement of prophylactic antibiotics such as erythromycin until results from the swabs are available
      -If only normal vaginal flora are seen, prophylactic antibiotics can be stopped.
      3) Administration of glucocorticoid- usually for 48 hours to promote maturity of the fetal lung and lower the chance of intracranial bleeding if the foetus has to be delivered prematurely
      4) Transfer to a healthcare centre that has neonatal intensive care facilities to ensure if intensive care is needed post-delivery, the healthcare staff are prepared
      5) Blood profile (particularly white cell count) and inflammatory markers (CRP) to look for any signs of chorioamnionitis
      6) CTG assessment every 2-3 days. Abnormalities found on the CTG tracing are often the first evidence of problems such as a subclinical chorioamnionitis
      7) Tocolysis with tocolytics such as IV salbutamol or nifedipine if contractions start before the course of glucocorticoid therapy is finished. Post-glucocorticoid therapy, tocolysis would not be often employed since there is a risk of masking contractions that occur due to an infection. In those cases, it is better to deliver the baby rather than to prolong the pregnancy. If there is no infection, the management plan should aim to prolong the pregnancy and delay delivery of a very premature baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses? ...

    Incorrect

    • Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Togaviruses

      Explanation:

      The Rubella virus, also known as German measles, is found in the Togavirus family and is a single-stranded RNA virus. The virus, which is acquired through contact with respiratory secretions, primarily replicates in the nasopharynx and lymph nodes, and produces a mild and self-limiting illness. Congenital infection, however, is associated with several anomalies including sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - What epithelium cell type lines the ureters? ...

    Incorrect

    • What epithelium cell type lines the ureters?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional

      Explanation:

      Uterus is lines by a single layer of columnar epithelium. The endometrium goes through changes during the menstrual cycles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroxin-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Thyroid function in pregnancy is altered in two ways; the circulating levels of the thyroid binding proteins are increased, resulting in an increase in the total circulating levels of thyroid hormones (but a slight fall in the free component).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very foul smell. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. In women, trichomoniasis can cause a foul-smelling vaginal discharge which might be white, grey, yellow or green, genital itching and painful urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primrose oil

      Explanation:

      PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.

      Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
      SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
      Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery to repair an episiotomy. Which spinal segments form the pudendal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S2, S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve provides sensory innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. Pudendal nerve blocks are indicated for analgesia of the second stage of labour, repair of an episiotomy or perineal laceration, and for minor surgeries of the lower vagina and perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where...

    Incorrect

    • The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilium

      Explanation:

      Arcuate means ‘bow shaped’ and there are different arcuate lines in anatomical terms. Regarding the pelvic brim this is composed of the arcuate line of the ilium, pectineal line and prominences of sacrum and pubic symphysis (as demonstrated in the images below). As can be seen the arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium inferior to the iliac fossa and Iliacus. Image sourced from Wikipedia Note: The pelvic outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1,L2

      Explanation:

      The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External, Internal and Common iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the common iliac nodes via the internal iliac nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - What is the most common causative organism in Fitzhugh Curtis syndrome and ophthalmic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common causative organism in Fitzhugh Curtis syndrome and ophthalmic neonatorum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      A rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease is Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome which is perihepatitis leading to the formation of adhesions between the liver and the peritoneal surface. It is most commonly caused by chlamydia and gonorrhoea. Ophthalmia neonatorum is conjunctivitis which is also caused by these pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fascia lata

      Explanation:

      Boundaries of the Femoral Triangle: Superior: Inguinal ligament Medial: Medial border of the adductor longus Lateral: Medial border of the sartorius Floor: Pectineus, Adductor longus and Iliopsoas muscles Roof: Fascia Lata (cribriform fascia at the saphenous opening) Trasversalis fascia forms part of the roof of the inguinal canal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended...

    Incorrect

    • According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non-pregnant state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic Acid

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid should be increased in diet of a pregnant women. Deficiency will lead to neural tube defects i.e. spina bifida.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A fibroid is a type of ...

    Incorrect

    • A fibroid is a type of

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leiomyoma

      Explanation:

      A fibroid is a benign smooth muscle tumour or Leiomyoma. As such it is something of a misnomer. Leiomyosarcoma and Angioleiomyoma are malignant tumours of smooth muscle under the WHO sort tissue tumour classification Rhabdomyoma is a skeletal muscle tumour Myofibroma is seen in fibromatosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 70 year old patient is being reviewed in clinic for post menopausal...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old patient is being reviewed in clinic for post menopausal bleeding. Examination reveals a lesion of the vaginal wall. Which is the most common type of primary vaginal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The vaginal epithelium is made of squamous cells. Hence the most common carcinoma that occurs in the Vagina is squamous cell carcinoma. Diagnosis is made with vaginal biopsy. Usually the pain only presents if the disease extends beyond the vagina involving the perineal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 73 - Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High polyunsaturated fat intake

      Explanation:

      There are several risk factors for gestational diabetes:
      Increasing age
      – Certain ethnic groups (Asian, African Americans, Hispanic/Latino Americans and Pima Indians)
      – High BMI before pregnancy (three-fold risk for obese women compared to non-obese women)
      – Smoking doubles the risk of GDM
      – Change in weight between pregnancies – an inter-pregnancy gain of more than three units (of BMI) doubles the risk of GDM
      – Short interval between pregnancies
      – Previous unexplained stillbirth
      – Previous macrosomia
      – Family history of type 2 diabetes or GDM – more relevant in nulliparous than parous women

      High polyunsaturated fat intake has been shown in some studies to be protective against gestational diabetes. Physical activity is also thought to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 74 - A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice as she was recently exposed to chickenpox. Regarding fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) which of the following statements is correct regarding maternal varicella infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection within the 1st 20 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      (13-20 weeks). If a mother has chickenpox in late pregnancy (5 days prior to delivery) then there is risk of neonatal varicella infection which may be severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks. She has some concerns after a family member recently gave birth to a baby with profound hearing loss due to an infection. Which of the following would you describe to her as the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. Babies born with congenital CMV are either symptomatic or develop symptoms later in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 76 - A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for at your clinic. She describes bilateral pain that began gradually and was accompanied by fever, vaginal discharge, and mild dysuria.

      Her pelvic examination demonstrates uterine, adnexal, and cervical motion tenderness.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) refers to acute and subclinical infection of the upper genital tract in women, involving any or all of the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries; this is often accompanied by involvement of the neighbouring pelvic organs. It results in endometritis, salpingitis, oophoritis, peritonitis, perihepatitis, and/or tubo-ovarian abscess.

      Lower abdominal pain is the cardinal presenting symptom in women with PID. The abdominal pain is usually bilateral and rarely of more than two weeks’ duration. The character of the pain is variable, and in some cases, may be quite subtle. The recent onset of pain that worsens during coitus or with jarring movement may be the only presenting symptom of PID. The onset of pain during or shortly after menses is particularly suggestive.

      Other non-specific complaints include urinary frequency and abnormal vaginal discharge.

      Ovarian cyst, uterine leiomyoma, appendicitis or ectopic pregnancy do not present with fever and vaginal discharge although tenderness is noted in appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, these options do not explain the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 77 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      6 and 11 are considered low risk and are commonly associated with genital warts and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (can correspond cytologically to CIN 1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
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  • Question 78 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 79 - The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the femoral triangles are femoral nerve, artery and the vein. Along with the femoral sheath and lymphatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 80 - The ovarian artery is a branch of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The ovarian artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The ovarian artery is an artery that supplies oxygenated blood to the ovary in females. It arises from the abdominal aorta below the renal artery. It can be found in the suspensory ligament of the ovary, anterior to the ovarian vein and ureter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 81 - A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish.

      What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
      Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.

      In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.

      The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
      To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 82 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 83 - A 47 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that shows a partially...

    Incorrect

    • A 47 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that shows a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mature teratoma

      Explanation:

      These are the most common ovarian tumours in young women. The most common form is the mature dermoid cyst (cystic teratoma). It can consist of a combination of all the type of tissues (mesenchymal, stromal and epithelial). Any mature tissue type can be present such as muscle, cartilage, bone, teeth and often hair. Treatment is cystectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
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  • Question 84 - Regarding oogenesis & ovulation: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding oogenesis & ovulation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The 1st meiotic division is arrested in the diplotene stage until just before ovulation

      Explanation:

      The oocyte (eggs, ova, ovum) is arrested at an early stage of the first meiosis (first meiotic) division as a primary oocyte (primordial follicle) within the ovary. Following puberty, during each menstrual cycle, pituitary gonadotrophin stimulates completion of meiosis 1 the day before ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
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  • Question 85 - A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month ago. There were no cervical abnormalities visualised at the time of the smear. She has no symptoms of unusual vaginal bleeding and her previous smear results have always been negative. She received the following report: 'Your recent smear was negative with no evidence of nuclear abnormalities.' When will she be routinely recalled for her next smear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Women aged 25-49 years living in England are routinely recalled for screening every three years. Women receive their first invitation for cervical screening at 25 years of age. They are not invited earlier as changes in the young cervix can be normal and result in unnecessary treatment. Provided the smears remain negative and there are no symptoms to suggest cervical cancer, the routine recall is three years for women aged 25-49 years. Women aged 50-64 years old are routinely recalled for a smear every five years. After the age of 65 years, women are only screened if they have not had a smear since the age of 50 years (including those who have never had a smear) or those who have had recent abnormal smears. This is because due to the natural history and progression of cervical cancer, it is highly unlikely that women over 65 years old will go on to develop the disease. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 86 - A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event.

      On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
      Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
      – Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
      – Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
      -Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
      – Uterine tenderness
      – Change in uterine shape and contour
      – Easily palpable fetal parts
      – No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
      – Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.

      Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.

      Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.

      Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.

      Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 87 - A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.

      Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.

      Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.

      Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.

      Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 88 - The broad ligament contains which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The broad ligament contains which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine artery

      Explanation:

      The contents of the broad ligament:
      Fallopian tubes
      Ovarian artery
      Uterine artery
      Ovarian ligament
      Round ligament of uterus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 89 - Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome patients have 46XY chromosomes. They are males by genotype but appear as female because of insensitivity to male hormones. It is advisable to perform gonadectomy in these patients after puberty because these patients are at increased risk of developing malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 90 - A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing of her progesterone blood test. She has regular 35 day menstrual cycles. When testing for ovulation what day of her cycle should she have the test on?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 28

      Explanation:

      The mid-luteal progesterone sample should be taken 7 days before the expected period i.e. day 21 in a 28-day cycle or day 28 of a 35 day cycle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
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  • Question 91 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Incorrect

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 92 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-Jul

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the morula enters the uterus, around the 4th day after fertilization, a clear cystic cavity starts forming inside the morula. The fluid passes through the zona pellucida from the uterine cavity and hence forms the blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
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  • Question 93 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They have no uterus

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
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  • Question 94 - A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
      What is the most suitable advice for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
      Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.

      Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
      Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 95 - A 29-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a refill on her oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a refill on her oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30®). You discover she has a blood pressure of 160/100mmHg during your examination, which is confirmed by a second reading 20 minutes later. Her husband and she are expecting a child in six months.

      Which of the following recommendations is the best for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should stop OCP, use condoms for contraception and reassess her blood pressure in 3 months

      Explanation:

      Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor.

      These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.

      All other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 96 - Regarding placental anatomy: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding placental anatomy:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal blood vessels develop in the mesenchymal core of the chorionic villi

      Explanation:

      The chorionic plate represents the fetal surface of the placenta, which in turn is covered by the amnion. The amnion is composed of a single layered epithelium and the amnionic mesenchyme, an avascular connective tissue. The amnionic mesenchyme is only weakly attached to the chorionic mesenchyme and can easily be removed from the delivered placenta. The chorionic mesenchyme contains the chorionic vessels that are continuous with the vessels of the umbilical cord. Within the mesoderm of secondary villi, haematopoietic progenitor cells develop and start to differentiate. At about day 20 post-conception, first placental blood cells and endothelial cells develop independent of the vascular system of the embryo proper.13 14 The development of first placental vessels transforms the respective villi into tertiary villi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 97 - A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding per vagina for the last 3 months. Her past medical history is not significant and she went through menopause around a decade ago.
      A cervical screening test is performed and comes back normal. PCR for chlamydia is also negative. Endometrial thickness of around 8mm is seen on transvaginal ultrasound.
      What would be the next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to the gynaecologist for endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      This patient had postmenopausal vaginal haemorrhage and an 8mm endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness of 4mm or more in a postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding necessitates an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer, and this patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for this procedure.
      All of the other choices are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 98 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.

      Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iodine

      Explanation:

      There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.

      The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.

      Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 99 - A couple comes to your clinic because they haven't been able to conceive...

    Incorrect

    • A couple comes to your clinic because they haven't been able to conceive despite having had frequent sexual activity in the previous 12 months. The female partner is 35 years old and has regular menstrual cycles. The male partner is 38 years old and otherwise normal.

      Which of the following studies would you do next to forecast ovulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum progesterone

      Explanation:

      This patient has a regular and long menstrual period. The most crucial thing in this case is to rule out anovulation.
      Serum progesterone concentration is the best test for detecting ovulation.
      Ovulation has occurred if the level is greater than 20nmol/L.
      This test should be performed 3 to 10 days prior to the start of the next anticipated period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 100 - Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amsel's criteria

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis can be made using the Amsel’s criteria:
      1. Presence of clue cells on microscopic examination (these cells are epithelial cells covered with the bacteria).
      2. Creamy greyish discharge.
      3. Vaginal pH of more than 4.5.
      5. Positive whiff test – release of fishy odour on addition of alkali solution. Other criteria include the nugent score and the Hay/Ison criteria. The Nugent score estimates the relative proportions of bacterial morphotypes to give a score between 0 and 10 (<4 = normal, 4-6 = intermediate, >6 = BV)
      The Hay/Ison criteria
      Grade 1 (Normal): Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
      Grade 2 (Intermediate): Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
      Grade 3 (BV): Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes. Few or absent Lactobacilli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (6/7) 86%
Gynaecology (6/9) 67%
Clinical Management (4/9) 44%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Biophysics (3/3) 100%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed