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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?

      Your Answer: Parental unemployment

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for neonatal death and stillbirth (weak predictive value):- African American race- Advanced maternal age- History of fetal demise- Maternal infertility- History of small for gestational age infant- Small for gestational age infant- Obesity- Paternal age- Poverty and poor quality of careSo in this case the risk factor is the parental unemployment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein has significance primarily as a tumour marker, but maternal levels are frequently measured to detect some of the congenital abnormalities, in which the levels of alpha-fetoprotein are either increased or decreased. The conditions associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels are: spina bifida, anencephaly, myelomeningocele, oesophageal atresia, congenital nephrotic syndrome, and turner’s syndrome. Down’s syndrome or trisomy 21 is associated with low levels of maternal alpha-fetoprotein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old boy presents with increasing unsteadiness on his feet. He also complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with increasing unsteadiness on his feet. He also complains that he is unable to see the board at school. His mother notices that he sleeps with his light on these days and stumbles a lot in low light. Which of the following symptoms would suggest that the boy has a peroxisomal disorder?

      Your Answer: Sweet smelling urine, lethargy and seizures

      Correct Answer: Anosmia, hearing problems and itchy skin

      Explanation:

      From the given clinical scenario, the peroxisomal disorder in question is Refsum’s disease.It is characterised by anosmia, early-onset retinitis pigmentosa (night blindness), chronic ataxia, variable neuropathy, deafness and ichthyosis. It is an inherited disorder of fatty acid oxidation with phytanic acid accumulation in the blood and tissues. This leads to the motor and sensory neuropathy. Other options:- Loss of sensation in extremities, dysarthria and diabetes is suggestive of Friedrich’s Ataxia. It is the most common autosomal recessive cause of ataxia. Associated features include dysarthria, scoliosis, diabetes and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. – Numbness of the limbs, seizures and developmental delay suggests mitochondrial cytopathy such as NARP (Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa). Learning difficulties, developmental delays and convulsions are not uncommon, as with many mitochondrial disorders. – Rapid, chaotic eye movements, behaviour change and irritability, suggest opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome. It is thought to be a Para infectious or paraneoplastic condition (secondary to neuroblastoma) linked to an abnormal immune response. Children present unwell with altered behaviour, irritability, ataxia, random chaotic eye movements and later myoclonus. – Sweet-smelling urine, lethargy and seizures suggest Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD). It is an autosomal recessive organic acidaemia. There is a distinct sweet odour to the urine of affected individuals, particularly at times of acute illness. Without treatment, MSUD can lead to seizures, brain damage, coma and death. The most common and classic form affects babies shortly after birth, but variant forms may not be evident until later childhood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old visibly anxious female, known to have HIV, presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old visibly anxious female, known to have HIV, presents to the clinic with blurring of vision and blind spots in her field of vision. Her last CD4 count was reported to be 45 cells/mL. Which of the following complications of HIV has most likely occurred that has resulted in her ocular damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

      Explanation:

      The most common etiological agent for retinitis in HIV infected patients is cytomegalovirus (88.63% of retinitis in HIV/AIDS patients). Most patients have a CD4 lymphocyte count less than 50/μL, which can represent the susceptibility to this type of retinitis when lymphocyte count falls below this threshold. The treatment consists of systemic intravenous administration of Ganciclovir or Foscarnet at a first stage of induction, followed by the maintenance treatment with oral administration of Ganciclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?...

    Incorrect

    • Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Treacher Collins syndrome is a congenital disorder transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. The basic abnormality is the TCOF 1 gene mutation, which leads to a multitude of clinical features, of which the most striking is the symmetrical craniofacial deformities. Important clinical features include conductive deafness, coloboma of lower eyelids, cleft palate, antimongoloid (short and downward slanting) palpebral fissures, deformed or absent ears, sleep apnoea, and airway issues. Hirsutism is not a recognized feature of this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 6 - A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth...

    Incorrect

    • A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth philtrum. He was monitored closely throughout pregnancy for intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR) and a ventricular septal defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a common yet under-recognized condition resulting from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is based on findings in the following 3 areas: (1) characteristic facial anomalies (see image below), (2) growth retardation (intrauterine growth restriction and failure to have catch-up growth), and (3) CNS involvement (cognitive impairment, learning disabilities, or behavioural abnormalities).Key characteristic craniofacial abnormalities include the following:- Smooth philtrum- Thin, smooth vermilion border of the upper lipShort palpebral fissures (< 10th percentile for age)Other craniofacial abnormalities are as follows:- Midface hypoplasia- Microphthalmia- Strabismus- PtosisCNS and neurobehavioral abnormalities include the following:- Microcephaly- Intellectual impairment (mild-to-moderate mental retardation)- Cognitive impairment- Developmental delay- Irritability in infancy- Hyperactivity in childhood or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)- Seizures- Delayed or deficient myelination- Agenesis or hypoplasia of the corpus callosumSkeletal abnormalities include the following:- Radioulnar synostosis- Flexion contractures- Camptodactyly- Aberrant palmar creases, especially hockey-stick palmar crease- Clinodactyly- Klippel-Feil anomaly- Hemivertebrae- Scoliosis- Dislocated jointsOther major congenital anomalies include the following:- Cleft palate- Heart defects- Renal anomalies- DiGeorge sequenceFunctional problems include the following:- Refractive problems (e.g., myopia, astigmatism)- Hearing lossGrowth deficiency includes the following:- Infant small for gestational age (< 10th percentile for weight or length)- Postnatal growth deficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 7 - A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age

      Explanation:

      Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 8 - A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are...

    Incorrect

    • A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medulla of the thymus

      Explanation:

      Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Moro reflex is absent

      Explanation:

      Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 10 - A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg...

    Incorrect

    • A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 11 - An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn’t passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
      • Right atrium 7 mmHg; Saturation 60 %
      • Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
      • Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
      • Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg; Saturation 98 %
      • Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 87 %
      • Aorta 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 76 %
      All of the following abnormalities are present in this patient, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Key Observations:

      1. Cyanosis and Low Oxygen Saturation:
        • Central cyanosis indicates mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
        • The aortic oxygen saturation is low (76%), indicating a significant amount of deoxygenated blood entering systemic circulation.
      2. Pressure Analysis:
        • The right ventricle pressure is significantly elevated (110/6 mmHg), suggesting an obstructive lesion like pulmonary stenosis or an increased volume load due to a shunt.
        • The pulmonary artery pressure is low (20/5 mmHg) despite the high right ventricular pressure, suggesting an obstruction to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, consistent with pulmonary stenosis.
      3. Oxygen Saturation Analysis:
        • There is a notable drop in oxygen saturation from the left ventricle (87%) to the aorta (76%), indicating a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation, suggestive of a right-to-left shunt.

      Differential Diagnosis:

      1. Pulmonary Stenosis:
        • Supported by elevated right ventricular pressure and low pulmonary artery pressure.
      2. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):
        • Would typically cause left-to-right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and higher oxygen saturation in the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, which is not observed here.
      3. Over-riding Aorta:
        • Seen in conditions like Tetralogy of Fallot where the aorta receives blood from both the right and left ventricles, leading to mixed oxygen saturation.
      4. Right-to-Left Shunt:
        • The data indicates a right-to-left shunt, with low oxygen saturation in the aorta, suggesting that deoxygenated blood is bypassing the lungs and entering systemic circulation.
      5. Aortic Stenosis:
        • Typically presents with high left ventricular pressure and a pressure gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is not observed here.

      Conclusion:

      Given the data, the most likely abnormalities present in this patient are Pulmonary Stenosis, Right-to-Left Shunt, and Over-riding Aorta. These findings are consistent with a condition like Tetralogy of Fallot, where all these features are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 14 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 6 year old male presented in the OPD with the complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old male presented in the OPD with the complaint of nasal bleeding which started 3 days before. Now on examination, there is no bleeding and only slight redness of the anterior mucosa is present. Which of the following steps is the most suitable now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      Epistaxis is common in younger children usually due to nose picking. After the episode is over no active management is required and reassurance should be given to the patient and his attendants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 16 - A 12-year-old child has hypertrophic villi found on biopsy. The most possible diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has hypertrophic villi found on biopsy. The most possible diagnosis is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic villi is a response to chronic irritation by allergic reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Xanthomas

      Explanation:

      CUTANEOUS DISORDERS OR DERMATOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH IBD- Psoriasis- Secondary amyloidosis- Vitiligo- Acquired epidermolysis bullosaIn some cases, non-granulomatous skin disorders occur as a reaction to the intestinal disease. These include:- Pyoderma gangrenosum- Neutrophilic dermatosis / Sweet syndrome, typically with pustules- Pyodermatitis-pyostomatitis vegetans, a purulent erosive dermatosis characterised by snail-track ulcers- Erythema multiforme- Erythema nodosum- Acneiform eruptions including nodulocystic acne, hidradenitis suppurativa and folliculitis- Palisaded neutrophilic and granulomatous dermatitis- Necrotizing and granulomatous small vessel vasculitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy was brought by his mother due to his recent clumsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought by his mother due to his recent clumsy behaviour. She observes that he has an increased tendency to trip over while running. On examination, his calves were relatively slim, and the soles of his feet were arched. Ankle dorsiflexors were noted to be weak, and the deep tendon reflexes were absent. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical presentation is highly suggestive of Charcot–Marie–Tooth syndrome.It is a hereditary sensory and motor neuropathy. It is also the commonest cause of inherited peripheral neuropathy. The lower motor neuron signs are usually mild in childhood, the age of onset is very variable, and the distal weakness can take years to progress. It is not fatal and does not affect the normal life expectancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 13-year-old male presented in the OPD with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old male presented in the OPD with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, his BP was normal. Urinalysis showed a high degree of proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minimal change GN

      Explanation:

      Minimal change disease is a type of glomerulonephritis that mostly affects younger children. Proteinuria is present which leads to body oedema. But in these patients blood pressure is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 20 - A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an unrelated problem ten months later, the wound site was found to be covered by a shiny dark protuberant scar tissue that projects beyond the margins of the skin incision. Which of the following best describes this skin lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keloid scar

      Explanation:

      The skin lesion described is the typical presentation of a keloid scar.Keloid scars extend beyond the limits of the incision.Note:Surgical wounds are either incisional or excisional and either clean, clean-contaminated or dirty. The main stages of wound healing include:- Haemostasis:It occurs minutes to hours following injury. It is characterised by the vasospasm in adjacent vessels, platelet plug formation and generation of fibrin rich clot.- Inflammation: It occurs typically 1-5 days after the injury. Neutrophils migrate into the wound (this is often impaired in diabetes). Growth factors, including basic fibroblast growth factor and vascular endothelial growth factor, are released in this phase. Fibroblasts replicate within the adjacent matrix and migrate into wound, while macrophages and fibroblasts couple matrix regeneration and clot substitution.- Regeneration: It occurs typically between 7-56 days after the injury. The factors that stimulate this phase are platelet-derived growth factor and transforming growth factor. They stimulate fibroblasts and epithelial cells. Fibroblasts produce a collagen network. Furthermore, they cause angiogenesis and thus wound healing.- Remodelling: This is considered the longest phase of the healing process and may last up to one year (or longer). During this phase, fibroblasts become differentiated (myofibroblasts), and these facilitate wound contraction. Collagen fibres are remodelled, and microvessels regress, leaving a pale scar.Clinical correlation:Abnormal scar formation:- Hypertrophic scars:It is the condition where excessive amounts of collagen are produced within a scar. Nodules may be present histologically containing randomly arranged fibrils within and parallel fibres on the surface. The tissue itself is confined to the extent of the wound itself and is usually the result of a full-thickness dermal injury. They may go on to develop contractures.- Keloid scars: This is also a condition where excessive amounts of collagen occur within a scar. A keloid scar will typically pass beyond the boundaries of the original injury. They do not contain nodules and may occur following even trivial injury. They do not regress over time and may recur following removal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neonatology (2/2) 100%
Child Development (0/1) 0%
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