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  • Question 1 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

      Sumatriptan acts as an agonist on 5-HT1B/1D receptors by inducing vasoconstriction in the basilar artery and blood vessels within the dura mater. The drug reduces peripheral nociception either by selective cranial vasoconstriction or by affecting trigeminovascular nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

      The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:• Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos• Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX• Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate• Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon• Herbicides – merphos• Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphateSigns and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:• Muscarinic effects:o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotensiono Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distresso Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinenceo Genitourinary – Incontinenceo Ocular – Blurred vision, miosiso Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis• Nicotinic effects:o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.• Central nervous system (CNS) effects:o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoeaMainstay Treatment:• Decontamination• Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation• Atropine• Pralidoxime• Benzodiazepines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination

      Explanation:

      Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:

      • When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) there is increased risk of psychosis.
      • Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      • Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      • Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.
      • Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Explanation:

      Confusion and pink mucosae are typical features of CO poisoning.The patient often presents, most commonly with headaches, and other symptoms like malaise, nausea, and dizziness.Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Features of carbon monoxide toxicity- Headache: 90% of cases- Nausea and vomiting: 50%- Vertigo: 50%- Confusion: 30%- Subjective weakness: 20%- Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathTreatment:Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treating mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity. Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemiaManagement of these patients should be done in the following manner:• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation• Supportive therapy• GI decontamination• Urinary excretion and alkalization• Haemodialysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house fire. He complained of feeling dizzy and having a worsening headache. On examination, he was dyspnoeic, drowsy and confused. There was no evidence of facial burns and no stridor. He was normotensive, tachycardic (pulse rate: 102 bpm), tachypnoeic (respiratory rate: 35/min) and had O2 saturation of 100% in room air. His venous blood gas results are given below: pH - 7.28pCO2 - 3.5 kPapO2 - 15.9 kPaNa+ - 139 mmol/LK+ - 4.5 mmol/LBicarbonate - 11 mmol/LChloride - 113 mmol/LLactate - 13.6 mmol/LKeeping in mind the likely diagnosis, which among the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate intervention in this patient is intravenous hydroxocobalamin.The clinical scenario provided is suggestive of acute cyanide toxicity secondary to burning plastics in the house fire. Cyanide ions inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, preventing aerobic respiration. This manifests in normal oxygen saturations, a high pO2 and flushing (or ‘brick red’ skin) brought on by the excess oxygenation of venous blood. In the question above it is important to note that the blood gas sample given is venous rather than arterial. His blood gas also demonstrates an increased anion gap, consistent with his high lactate (generated by anaerobic respiration due to the inability to use available oxygen).The recommended treatment for moderate cyanide toxicity in the UK is one of three options: sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin or dicobalt edetate. Among the options given is hydroxocobalamin and this is, therefore, the correct answer. Hydroxocobalamin additionally has the best side-effect profile and speed of onset compared with other treatments for cyanide poisoning.Other options:- Intubation would be appropriate treatment in the context of airway burns but this patient has no evidence of these, although close monitoring would be advised. – High-flow oxygen is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning – a sensible differential, but this man’s very high lactate and high venous pO2 fit better with cyanide toxicity. Intravenous dexamethasone would be another treatment for airway oedema once an endotracheal tube had been placed. – Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a treatment for high blood pressure that can cause cyanide poisoning, and would, therefore, be inappropriate.Note:Cyanide may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals. Toxicity results from reversible inhibition of cellular oxidizing enzymesClinical presentation:Classical features: brick-red skin, the smell of bitter almondsAcute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusionChronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitisManagement:Supportive measures: 100% oxygenDefinitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also a combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Although rare, ocular toxicity in the form of optic neuritis (most commonly retrobulbar neuritis) has been well documented as a side effect of ethambutol. It is renally excreted and not associated with hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old female was brought to the ER in a confused state. The...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female was brought to the ER in a confused state. The patient works in a photograph development laboratory. On admission, she was hypoxic and hypotensive. A provisional diagnosis of cyanide poisoning was made. What is the definitive treatment?

      Your Answer: Hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      Cyanide poisoning: Aetiology:Smoke inhalation, suicidal ingestion, and industrial exposure (specific industrial processes involving cyanide include metal cleaning, reclaiming, or hardening; fumigation; electroplating; and photo processing) are the most frequent sources of cyanide poisoning. Treatment with sodium nitroprusside or long-term consumption of cyanide-containing foods is a possible source.Cyanide exposure most often occurs via inhalation or ingestion, but liquid cyanide can be absorbed through the skin or eyes. Once absorbed, cyanide enters the blood stream and is distributed rapidly to all organs and tissues in the body. Pathophysiology:Inside cells, cyanide attaches itself to ubiquitous metalloenzymes, rendering them inactive. Its principal toxicity results from inactivation of cytochrome oxidase (at cytochrome a3), thus uncoupling mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and inhibiting cellular respiration, even in the presence of adequate oxygen stores.Presentation:• ‘Classical’ features: brick-red skin, smell of bitter almonds• Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion• Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitisManagement:• Supportive measures: 100% oxygen, ventilatory assistance in the form of intubation if required.• Definitive: Hydroxocobalamin (iv) is considered the drug of choice and is approved by the FDA for treating known or suspected cyanide poisoning. • Coadministration of sodium thiosulfate (through a separate line or sequentially) has been suggested to have a synergistic effect on detoxification.Mechanism of action of hydroxocobalamin: • Hydroxocobalamin combines with cyanide to form cyanocobalamin (vitamin B-12), which is renally cleared.• Alternatively, cyanocobalamin may dissociate from cyanide at a slow enough rate to allow for cyanide detoxification by the mitochondrial enzyme rhodanese.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.3
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?

      Your Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. She weighs 61kg. What should her immediate management consist of?

      Your Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion. The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates?

      Your Answer: Inhibit osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are analogues of pyrophosphate, a molecule which decreases demineralisation in bone. They inhibit osteoclasts by reducing recruitment and promoting apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.6
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend. Though there is little previous history, the friend believes that he has been suffering from depression for several years, and his medications have been changed by his general practitioner quite recently.On examination the patient is agitated and confused, his pupils are dilated. He also has tremors, excessive sweating, and grinding of teeth. His heart rate is 118 beats/min, which is regular, and is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is serotonin syndrome.The serotonin syndrome is a cluster of symptoms and signs (range from barely perceptible tremor to life-threatening hyperthermia and shock). It may occur when SSRIs such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline that impair the reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron are taken in combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants. It has also been reported following an overdose of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) alone.Treatment:Most cases of serotonin syndrome are mild and will resolve with removal of the offending drug alone. After stopping all serotonergic drugs, management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing complications. Patients frequently require sedation, which is best facilitated with benzodiazepines.Antipsychotics should be avoided because of their anticholinergic properties, which may inhibit sweating and heat dissipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.8
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre. Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.Management of alcoholism:Nutritional support: – Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.Pharmacological management:- Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal- Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.- Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion....

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed:Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/lNa+: 136 mmol/lK+: 4.6 mmol/lUrea: 8.1 mmol/lCreatinine: 99 µmol/lBicarbonate: 18 mmol/lWhat is the most appropriate management for the patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient is typical of chronic lithium toxicity (due to the presence of mainly neurological manifestations). Additional to the blood investigations mentioned, urine analysis, electrolyte levels, and renal function should also be performed. A low urine Anion gap and a low urine specific gravity are highly suggestive of lithium toxicity.ECG obtained in this patient is likely to show: nonspecific, diffuse ST segment depression with T wave inversion.Acute lithium toxicity presents with more GI manifestations while, the clinical features of chronic lithium toxicity are mainly neurological and can include:Coarse tremors (fine tremors are seen in therapeutic levels), hyperreflexia, acute confusion, seizures, and coma.The management of lithium toxicity is as follows:Immediate GI decontamination with gastric lavage (in case of acute intoxication)Saline Administrations: the goal of saline administration is to restore GFR, normalize urine output and enhance lithium clearance.Haemodialysis remains the mainstay treatment for lithium toxicity as lithium is readily dialyzed because of water solubility, low volume of distribution, and lack of protein binding.The Extracorporeal Treatments in Poisoning Workgroup (EXTRIP Workgroup) recommendations for dialysis (extracorporeal treatment) in lithium toxicity include:• Impaired kidney function and lithium levels > 4.0 mEq/L• Decreased consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of lithium levels• Levels are > 5.0 mEq/L, significant confusion is noted, or the expected time to reduce levels to < 1.0 mEq/L is more than 36 hoursAs post-dialysis rebound elevations in lithium levels have been documented, continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) has been advocated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts act in the distal convoluted tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      1.9
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  • Question 19 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Correct

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmicsI: Membrane stabilizing agentsIA: Quinidine, Procainamide, DisopyramideIB: Lidocaine, MexiletineIC: Propafenone, Flecainide II: β blockers – Propranolol, EsmololIII: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, SotalolIV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, DiltiazemV: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He...

    Correct

    • A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast.Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?

      Your Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.Treatment of opioid overdose:Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 74-year-old man who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is being started on digoxin. What is the mechanism of action of digoxin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Digoxin works by inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase pump in cardiac myocytes. Here’s how it works:

      1. Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase: Digoxin binds to and inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, which is responsible for pumping sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell.
      2. Increased intracellular sodium: Inhibition of this pump leads to an increase in intracellular sodium levels.
      3. Decreased activity of the sodium-calcium exchanger: The increased intracellular sodium reduces the activity of the sodium-calcium exchanger, which normally pumps calcium out of the cell in exchange for sodium.
      4. Increased intracellular calcium: As a result, intracellular calcium levels rise because less calcium is being extruded from the cell. The increased calcium is then stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
      5. Enhanced contractility: During each action potential, more calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasm, which enhances the contractility of the heart muscle (positive inotropic effect).

      By increasing the force of contraction, digoxin helps improve cardiac output in patients with heart failure. Additionally, digoxin has vagomimetic effects, which can help control the heart rate in atrial fibrillation by increasing vagal tone and thereby reducing the conduction velocity through the atrioventricular node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes: Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertensionCentral nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rashEndocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoeaGenitourinary: Urinary tract infectionHepatic: Abnormal hepatic function testsNeuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle crampsOphthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbanceOtic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitusRenal: Acute renal failureOther options:Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours. Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following drugs requires plasma level monitoring? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs requires plasma level monitoring?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      All patients require plasma-vancomycin measurement (after 3 or 4 doses if renal function normal, earlier if renal impairment). There is a risk of nephrotoxicity including renal failure, interstitial nephritis and ototoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical...

    Correct

    • Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical attack in the city. The patients are extremely unwell, with symptoms of excessive salivation, lacrimation, diarrhoea, and emesis. Sarin gas was suspected as the most likely agent used in the attack. What is the mechanism of action of this chemical agent?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Sarin acts by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesteraseSarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. This results in high levels of acetylcholine (ACh).The effects of excessive ACh can be remembered by the mnemonic DUMBELLS:DiarrhoeaUrinationMiosis/muscle weaknessBronchorrhea/BradycardiaEmesisLacrimationSalivation/sweatingOrganophosphate insecticide poisoning:One of the effects of organophosphate poisoning is inhibition of acetylcholinesteraseFeatures can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD)SalivationLacrimationUrinationDefecation/diarrhoeacardiovascular: hypotension, bradycardiamiosis, muscle fasciculation.Organophosphate poisoning is treated with the anti-muscarinic atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water.On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic.What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.Management: – Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.- Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline). – On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.- Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.6
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?

      Your Answer: Bezafibrate

      Explanation:

      Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.Pharmacological effects:- Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.- Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.- Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.Side effects:- Hypersensitivity- Primary biliary cirrhosis- Pre-existing gallbladder disease- Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy- Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.Other options:The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful. There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course. Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure. There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (29/30) 97%
Pharmacology (29/30) 97%
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