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  • Question 1 - An 18-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. She is...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. She is at the 5th week of gestation. Except for morning nausea, she denies any problems with her pregnancy so far. The patient is allergic to penicillin. Physical exam is unremarkable and appropriate for gestational age. Routine screening lab tests were ordered. VDRL screening returned positive and was confirmed by the FTA-ABS test.

      Which of the following is considered the best management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Penicillin allergy skin testing and penicillin desensitization, if necessary

      Explanation:

      Penicillin is the treatment of choice for treating syphilis. For treatment of syphilis during pregnancy, no proven alternatives to penicillin exist. Treatment guidelines recommend desensitization in penicillin-allergic pregnant women, followed by treatment with penicillin. Syphilis in pregnancy is associated with mental retardation, stillbirth and sudden infant death syndrome; therefore it should be treated promptly.

      – Data are insufficient to recommend ceftriaxone for treatment of maternal infection and prevention of congenital syphilis.
      – Erythromycin and azithromycin should not be used, because neither reliably cures maternal infection or treats an infected foetus.
      – Tetracycline and doxycycline are contraindicated in pregnancy and ceftriaxone is much less effective than penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.

    A...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.

      A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery.

      Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?

      Your Answer: Increase risk of adhesions

      Explanation:

      Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
      -Increased risk of maternal mortality.
      -Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
      -Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
      -Increased risk of infections.

      Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: 2g MgSO4 IV as a bolus

      Correct Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.

      Explanation:

      The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
      Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%.

      Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant

      Explanation:

      Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to premature uterine contractions. Upon interview, it was noted the she has history of untreated mitral valve stenosis. Tocolysis was then planned after a necessary evaluation was performed and revealed that there is absence of contraindications.

      Which of the following would be considered the drug of choice for tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin antagonists

      Explanation:

      Tocolysis is an obstetrical procedure to prolong gestation in patients, some of which are experiencing preterm labour. This is achieved through various medications that work to inhibit contractions of uterine smooth muscle.

      There is no definitive first-line tocolytic agent by the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) but nifedipine is most commonly used. However, in severe aortic stenosis, nifedipine can cause ventricular collapse and dysfunction.

      The therapeutic target in the treatment of preterm labour is currently the pharmacological inhibition of uterine contractions with the use of various tocolytic agents. Tocolytic agents are used to maintain pregnancy for 24–48 hours to allow corticosteroids administration to act and to permit the transfer of the mother to a centre with a neonatal intensive care unit.

      Oxytocin inhibitors work by competitively acting at the oxytocin receptor site. Oxytocin acts to increase the intracellular levels of inositol triphosphate. The medications currently in this class are atosiban and retosiban. Maternal nor fetal side effects have not been described for this tocolytic.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine infection.

      Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.

      Explanation:

      Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
      Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate Caesarean delivery

      Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein

      Explanation:

      This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.

      → Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
      → It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
      → Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Cephalopelvic disproportion.

      Correct Answer: Normal progress.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.

      There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.

      No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.

      On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.

      Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?

      Your Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg

      Explanation:

      For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.

      Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.

      Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The followings are considered normal symptoms of pregnancy, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual disturbance

      Explanation:

      Visual disturbances although very common during pregnancy are not a normal sign. Physicians should have a firm understanding of the various ocular conditions that might appear pregnancy or get modified by pregnancy. In addition, it is very important to be vigilant about the rare and serious conditions that may occur in pregnant women with visual complaints. Prompt evaluation may be required and the immediate transfer of care of the patient may help saving the lives of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (4/9) 44%
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