-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?
Your Answer: Salpingopharyngeus
Correct Answer: Tensor veli palatini
Explanation:The tensor veli palatini tenses the soft palate and by doing so, assists the levator veli palatini in elevating the palate to occlude and prevent entry of food into the nasopharynx during swallowing. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
What forms the pelvic diaphragm?
Your Answer: Obturator internus and coccygeus muscles
Correct Answer: Levator ani and coccygeus muscles
Explanation:The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the levator ani and the coccygeus muscles. The levator ani forms the greater part of the pelvic floor supporting the viscera in the pelvic cavity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?
Your Answer: Arytenoid muscle
Correct Answer: Cricothyroid muscle
Explanation:The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?
Your Answer: Dartos muscle
Correct Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle
Explanation:The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen?
Your Answer: Foramen spinosum
Correct Answer: Jugular foramen
Explanation:The jugular foramen is a large foramen in the base of the skull. It is located behind the carotid canal and is formed in front by the petrous portion of the temporal bone, and behind by the occipital bone. Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI and the internal jugular vein pass through the jugular foramen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
During an exploratory laparotomy in a 22 year-old man shot in the abdomen, the operating doctor discovers the large bowel is perforated. Which of the following characteristics of the bowel enabled the surgeon to identify it as the large bowel?
Your Answer: Continuous longitudinal muscle layer
Correct Answer: Epiploic appendages
Explanation:The large intestine doesn’t have a continuous layer of longitudinal muscle. Instead, it has three strips of longitudinal muscle called taenia coli. The large intestine is covered with omental appendages that are fat filled. It is also folded into sacculations called haustrations. Serosa is a general term for the outermost coat or serous layer of a visceral structure that lies in the body cavities of the abdomen or thorax.
Complete circular folds are only found in the small intestine.
Valvulae conniventes or valves of Kerckring are the circular folds which are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small bowel.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?
Your Answer: Sternal notch
Correct Answer: Sternal angle
Explanation:The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
What is formed when the ductus deferens unites with the duct of the seminal vesicle?
Your Answer: Paradidymis
Correct Answer: Ejaculatory duct
Explanation:The deferens is a cylindrical structure with dense walls and an extremely small lumen It is joined at an acute angle by the duct of the seminal vesicles to form the ejaculatory duct, which traverses the prostate behind it’s middle lobe and opens into the prostatic portion of the urethra, close to the orifice of the prostatic utricle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great cerebral vein, otherwise also known as the great vein of Galen?
Your Answer: Middle cerebral veins
Correct Answer: Internal cerebral veins
Explanation:The great vein of Galen or great cerebral vein, is formed by the union of the internal cerebral veins and the basal veins of Rosenthal. This vein curves upwards and backwards along the border of the splenium of the corpus callosum and eventually drains into the inferior sagittal sinus and straight sinus at its anterior extremity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?
Your Answer: Voluntary muscle activity
Explanation:The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have:
Your Answer: Muscle wasting
Explanation:Lower motor neurons (LMNs) connect the brainstem and spinal cord to muscle fibres. Damage to lower motor neurons is indicated by abnormal electromyographic potentials, fasciculations, paralysis, weakening and wasting of skeletal muscles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
The annular ligament in the forearm:
Your Answer: Goes from the olecranon fossa to the olecranon process
Correct Answer: Encircles the head of the radius
Explanation:The annular ligament forms about four-fifths of the osseofibrous ring and is attached to the anterior and posterior margins of the radial notch. It is a strong band of fibres which encircles the head of the radius retaining it in contact with the radial notch of the ulna. When it comes to its upper border, it blends with the anterior and posterior ligament of the elbow.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?
Your Answer: Longissimus
Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal cord?
Your Answer: Superior laryngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx and sensory innervation to the subglottis is by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 32-year old gentleman came to the emergency department, complaining of progressively increasing weakness in his arms and legs over 5 days. On examination, there is symmetrical weakness on both sides of his face, along with weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of all four limbs. No loss of sensation noted. Deep tendon reflexes could not be elicited and plantar responses were downward. On enquiry, it was revealed that he had an upper respiratory tract infection 10 days ago. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Poliomyelitis
Correct Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome
Explanation:Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an acute, autoimmune polyradiculoneuropathy which affects the peripheral nervous system and is usually triggered by an acute infectious process. 75% patients have a history of acute infection within the past 1–4 weeks, usually respiratory or gastrointestinal. immunisations have also been implicated. The most common form is acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy. It results in an ascending paralysis with complete loss of deep tendon reflexes. Treatment includes immunoglobulins and supportive care. However, the disease may be fatal due to severe pulmonary complications and dysautonomia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was noted. This is likely to be accompanied with:
Your Answer: Hyporeflexia
Correct Answer: Spasticity
Explanation:An upper motor neuron lesion affects the neural pathway above the anterior horn cell or motor nuclei of the cranial nerves, whereas a lower motor neurone lesion affects nerve fibres travelling from the anterior horn of the spinal cord to the relevant muscles. An upper motor neurone lesions results in the following:
– Spasticity in the extensor muscles (lower limbs) or flexor muscles (upper limbs).
– ‘clasp-knife’ response where initial resistance to movement is followed by relaxation
– Weakness in the flexors (lower limbs) or extensors (upper limbs) with no muscle wasting
– Brisk tendon jerk reflexes
– Positive Babinski sign (on stimulation of the sole of the foot, the big toe is raised rather than curled downwards)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with:
Your Answer: Night terrors
Correct Answer: Penile erections
Explanation:Normal sleep comprises of alternate cycles between slow-wave sleep (non-REM sleep) and REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by increased metabolic brain activity and EEG desynchronization. Somnambulism (sleepwalking), enuresis (bedwetting) and night terrors all occur during slow-wave sleep or during arousal from slow-wave sleep. In comparison, REM sleep is characterized by hypotonia of major muscle groups (excluding ocular muscles), dreams, nightmares and penile erection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:
Your Answer: Global aphasia
Correct Answer: Confusion
Explanation:Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain. This sinuses are located between which structures?
Your Answer: Carotid sheath and prevertebral fascia
Correct Answer: Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater
Explanation:The dural venous sinuses lies between the periosteal and meningeal layer of the dura mater. Dural venous sinuses is unique because it does not run parallel with arteries and allows bidirectional flow of blood intracranially as it is valve-less.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
What is the correct order of structures a needle must pass before it enters the pleural cavity?
Your Answer: Parietal pleura – innermost intercostals – internal intercostals – external intercostals
Correct Answer: External intercostals – internal intercostals – innermost intercostals – parietal pleura
Explanation:The correct order of structures from superficial to deep are: the skin and subcutaneous tissue, the external intercostals followed by internal intercostals, innermost intercostals and finally parietal pleura.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month ago, she fell from a staircase but only suffered mild head trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Intracerebral haematoma
Correct Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma
Explanation:A quarter to a half of patients with chronic subdural haematoma have no identifiable history of head trauma. If a patient does have a history of head trauma, it usually is mild. The average time between head trauma and chronic subdural haematoma diagnosis is 4–5 weeks. Symptoms include decreased level of consciousness, balance problems, cognitive dysfunction and memory loss, motor deficit (e.g. hemiparesis), headache or aphasia. Some patients present acutely. They usually result from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, and may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structures, is the area in which the superior cerebral veins drain into?
Your Answer: Great cerebral vein
Correct Answer: Superior sagittal sinus
Explanation:The superior cerebral veins are predominantly located on the superior aspect of the brain. They are 8 to 12 in number and they drain the lateral, medial and superior aspects of the cerebral hemispheres.
These veins drain into the superior sagittal sinus, also known as the superior longitudinal sinus – which is located along the attached margin of the falx cerebri.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
Where do the seminal vesicles lie?
Your Answer: Base of the bladder and rectum
Explanation:The seminal vesicles are two lobulated membranous pouches situated between the fundus of the bladder and rectum and act as a reservoir for the semen and secrete a fluid that is added to the seminal fluid. Each sac is pyramidal in shape but they all vary in size not only in different individuals but also in the same individuals. The anterior surface is in contact with the fundus of the bladder, extending from near the termination of the ureter to the base of the prostate. Each vesicle consist of single tube, which gives off several irregular caecal diverticula. These separate coils and the diverticula are connected by fibrous tissue.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?
Your Answer: Scarpa’s fascia
Correct Answer: Perineal membrane
Explanation:The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Regarding the posterior compartment of the leg, which is correct?
Your Answer: The muscles plantarflex the foot and are innervated by the femoral nerve
Correct Answer: The muscles plantarflex the foot and are innervated by the tibial nerve
Explanation:The muscles of the back of the leg are subdivided into two groups: superficial and deep. Superficial muscles include gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. Deep muscles include tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus and popliteus. The superficial ( calf muscles) which are responsible for plantarflexion of the foot are supplied by the tibial nerve as follows: the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are supplied by the first and second sacral nerves and the plantaris by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerve (the tibial nerve).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:
Your Answer: Red nucleus
Correct Answer: Substantia nigra
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.
Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 20 year old is brought to the A&E after he fell from a moving cart. The boy has sustained blunt abdominal injury, and the there is a possibility of internal bleeding as the boy is in shock. An urgent exploratory laparotomy is done in the A&E theatre. On opening the peritoneal cavity, the operating surgeon notices a torn gastrosplenic ligament with a large clot around the spleen. Which artery is most likely to have been injured in this case?
Your Answer: Middle colic
Correct Answer: Short gastric
Explanation:The short gastric arteries branch from the splenic artery near the splenic hilum to travel back in the gastrosplenic ligament to supply the fundus of the stomach. Therefore, these may be injured in this case.
The splenic artery courses deep to the stomach to reach the hilum of the spleen. It doesn’t travel in the gastrosplenic ligament although it does give off branches that do.
The middle colic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the transverse colon.
Gastroepiploic artery is the largest branch of the splenic artery that courses between the layers of the greater omentum to anastomose with the right gastroepiploic.
Left gastric artery, a branch of the coeliac trunk. It supplies the left half of the lesser curvature.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?
Your Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea
Explanation:An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?
Your Answer: Crista terminalis
Correct Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)
Explanation:The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon is clamping the?
Your Answer: Uterine arteries
Explanation:The ureter forms the posterior boundary of a shallow depression which lodges the ovary and then runs medially and forward on the lateral aspect of the uterine cervix and upper part of the vagina to reach the fundus of the bladder. It is also situated about 2cm from the side of the cervix of the uterus. The relationship of the ureters and uterine arteries is of clinical significance because the arteries are at risk of iatrogenic injury during hysterectomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and needles in the dorsum of the thumb and digits 1 and 2. On further examination they found that he had weakness in wrist dorsiflexion and finger extension. Which nerve do you think is injured in this case?
Your Answer: Median
Correct Answer: Radial
Explanation:The radial nerve can be injured in multiple sites along its course in the upper limb, and each site has its own presentation. The major complaint is wrist drop which if high above the elbow, can cause numbness of the forearm and hand. It can last for several days or weeks. The most common site of compression for the radial nerve is at the proximal forearm in the area of the supinator muscles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
The posterior boundary of the carotid triangle is bounded by which of the following muscles?
Your Answer: Anterior border of the trapezius muscle
Correct Answer: Sternocleidomastoid
Explanation:The carotid triangle is a portion of the anterior triangle of the neck. It is bounded superiorly by the posterior belly of the digastric muscle, antero-inferiorly by the superior belly of omohyoid and posteriorly by the sternocleidomastoid. The floor is formed by the thyrohyoid, hyoglossus, middle and inferior pharyngeal constrictors and the roof is formed by the skin, superficial fascia, platysma and deep fascia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
Which organs would cause pain in a patient who complains of dull pain in her pelvis, along the midline starting from the pubic bone in the front to the sacrum at the back?
Your Answer: Transverse colon, pylorus of the stomach, duodenum, pancreas
Correct Answer: Urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina, rectum
Explanation:The pain could have been caused by the urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina or rectum as it involves the pelvic viscera.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
The nutcracker effect of the alimentary canal is described as a nutcracker-like compression caused by the aorta and the superior mesenteric arteries on a certain section of the alimentary canal leading to bowel obstruction. Which of the following parts of the alimentary canal is usually obstructed by this nutcracker compression of the two arteries?
Your Answer: Transverse colon
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The ‘nutcracker effect’ is only seen in one part of the alimentary canal, and that is in the third part of the duodenum. This can happen when the superior mesenteric artery that passes across the duodenum and the aorta, posteriorly to the third part of the duodenum enlarges and starts compressing the duodenum. The result is an obstructed duodenum that inhibits passage of food.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
Whipple's procedure involves mobilizing the head of the pancreas. As the surgeon does this, he must be careful to avoid injury to a key structure that is found lying behind the head of the pancreas. Which vital structure is this?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric vein
Correct Answer: Common bile duct
Explanation:The posterior relations of the head of the pancreas include: the inferior vena cava, the common bile duct, the renal veins, the right crus of the diaphragm and the aorta.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?
Your Answer: Cerebral abscess
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis?
Your Answer: A small dose of physostigmine is likely to worsen the symptoms
Correct Answer: Response of skeletal muscle to nerve stimulation is weakened
Explanation:An autoimmune disorder, myasthenia gravis leads to progressive muscle weakness. It occurs due to formation of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor of the motor endplate, which leads to impaired neuromuscular transmission. Thus, nerve stimulation will lead to a weakened muscle response, but direct electrical stimulation will bring about a normal response. Diagnostic test includes improvement of muscle weakness by small doses of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (physostigmine or edrophonium). However, a large dose of physostigmine worsens the weakness due to desensitisation of the endplate to persistent Ach. One of the investigative tools includes radiolabelled snake venom α-bungarotoxin. It is an in vitro study performed on muscle biopsy specimens and used to quantify the number of ACh receptors at the motor endplate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
Muscles and tendons in the planter region of the foot mainly take blood supply from:
Your Answer: Fibular artery
Correct Answer: Posterior tibial artery
Explanation:The posterior tibial artery is the main source of blood supply to the posterior compartment of the leg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than a slowly developing loud sound. This is because:
Your Answer: The tympanic membrane becomes flaccid as a sound becomes louder
Correct Answer: There is a latent period before the attenuation reflex can occur
Explanation:On transmission of a loud sound into the central nervous system, an attenuation reflex occurs after a latent period of 40-80 ms. This reflex contracts the two muscles that pull malleus and stapes closer, developing a high degree of rigidity in the entire ossicular chain. This reduces the ossicular conduction of low frequency sounds to the cochlea by 30-40 decibels. In this way, the cochlea is protected from damage due to loud sounds (these are low frequency sounds) when they develop slowly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
An excision of a mass in the right parietal area of the head will be performed. In which layer of the scalp are the nerves and blood vessels located?
Your Answer: Skin
Correct Answer: Connective tissue
Explanation:The scalp is the anatomical area bordered by the face at the front, and by the neck at the sides and back. The scalp is usually described as having five layers:
1. The skin which contains numerous sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
2. The connective tissue, a dense subcutaneous layer of fat and fibrous tissue that lies beneath the skin, containing the nerves and vessels of the scalp.
3. The aponeurosis or galea aponeurotica, a tough layer of dense fibrous tissue which runs from the frontalis muscle anteriorly to the occipitalis posteriorly.
4. The loose areolar connective tissue layer provides an easy plane of separation between the upper three layers and the pericranium.
5. The pericranium is the periosteum of the skull bones and provides nutrition to the bone and the capacity for repair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?
Your Answer: In extrapyramidal disorders like Parkinsonism
Correct Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion
Explanation:A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
When one is silently counting, what part of his brain will show increased regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)?
Your Answer: Motor cortex
Correct Answer: Supplementary motor area
Explanation:Regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF) increases in the superior speech cortex (supplementary motor area) during periods of silent counting, whereas speaking aloud will do so in the motor cortex and medial temporal lobe, along with the superior speech cortex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?
Your Answer: Ciliary ganglion
Correct Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus
Explanation:The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
The Carpal tunnel does NOT contain:
Your Answer: Flexor pollicis longus
Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The contents of the carpal tunnel include:
– Median nerve
– Flexor digitorum supervicialis
– Flexor digitorum profundus
– Flexor policis longus
– Flexor carpi radialis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Middle lobe
Correct Answer: Inferior lobe
Explanation:The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.
The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.
The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.
The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?
Your Answer: Gonads
Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity
Explanation:Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
The muscle which has an antagonistic action to the serratus anterior muscle and is one of the retractors of the scapula is the?
Your Answer: Levator scapula
Correct Answer: Rhomboid major
Explanation:Protraction is accomplished by the actions of the serratus anterior, pectoralis major, and pectoralis minor muscles. Retraction is accomplished by the actions of the trapezius, rhomboids, and latissimus dorsi muscles.
The rhomboid major arises from the second, third, fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. It is inserted into a narrow tendinous arch attached to the root of the spine of the scapula and the inferior angle. By its insertion in the inferior angle of the scapula, it acts on this angle and produces a slight rotation of the scapula on the side of the chest. It also retracts the scapula by working with the trapezius muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?
Your Answer: Lacrimation
Correct Answer: Facial expression
Explanation:The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:
Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal
– Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear
– Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear
– Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 35 year old male patient sustained a traumatic head injury. The patient had loss of consciousness, woke up momentarily when he was in the emergency room but became drowsy and comatose a few hours after. CT scan of the brain showed accumulation of blood between the dura and the cranial bone on the left side of his head. What type of haemorrhage did the patient have?
Your Answer: Subaponeurotic
Correct Answer: Epidural
Explanation:Epidural hematoma, also known as epidural bleeding, is a type of traumatic brain injury (TBI) in which a build-up of blood occurs between the dura mater (the tough outer membrane of the central nervous system) and the skull. The spinal cord is also covered by a layer of dura mater, so epidural bleeds may also occur in the spinal column. Often due to trauma, the condition is potentially deadly because the build-up of blood may increase pressure in the intracranial space, compressing delicate brain tissue, and causing brain shift. The condition is present in one to three percent of head injuries. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Which of the following muscles attach to the hyoid bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Middle pharyngeal constrictor
Explanation:The hyoid bone is a horseshoe-shaped bone situated in the anterior midline of the neck between the chin and the thyroid cartilage. A large number of muscles attach to the hyoid: Superiorly – the middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle, hyoglossus muscle, genioglossus, intrinsic muscles of the tongue and suprahyoid muscles. Inferiorly – the thyrohyoid muscle, omohyoid muscle and sternohyoid muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
