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  • Question 1 - A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast milk jaundice

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 18-year-old teenager is undergoing a thoracoscopic sympathectomy for axillary hyperhidrosis. Which one...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old teenager is undergoing a thoracoscopic sympathectomy for axillary hyperhidrosis. Which one of the following structures is divided to access the sympathetic trunk?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Parietal pleura

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic chain lies posterior to the parietal pleura. During a thorascopic sympathectomy, this structure will have to be divided. The intercostal vessels lie posteriorly. They may be damaged with troublesome bleeding but otherwise are best left alone as the deliberate division will not improve surgical access.The sympathetic nervous system:The cell bodies of the preganglionic efferent neurones lie in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the thoracolumbar regions.The preganglionic efferents leave the spinal cord at levels T1-L2. These pass to the sympathetic chain.Lateral branches of the sympathetic chain connect it to every spinal nerve. These postganglionic nerves will pass to structures that receive sympathetic innervation at the periphery.Sympathetic chains:These lie on the vertebral column and run from the base of the skull to the coccyx.Clinical correlation:Interruption of the head and neck supply of the sympathetic nerves will result in an ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome.For the treatment of hyperhidrosis, the sympathetic denervation can be achieved by removing the second and third thoracic ganglia with their rami. Removal of T1 will cause a Horner’s syndrome and is therefore not performed.In patients with vascular disease of the lower limbs, lumbar sympathectomy may be performed, either radiologically or (more rarely now) surgically. The ganglia of L2 and below are disrupted. Care should be taken to preserve the L1 ganglion. If it is removed in male patients, ejaculation may be compromised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples...

    Correct

    • A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples and a systolic murmur. Her femoral pulses are absent. Her mother admits she did not have any scans during gestation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disease that affects females. It presents with wide-spread nipples, low hairline, lymphoedema, short 4th metacarpals, high-arched palate, cardiac problems, and horseshoe kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea.He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Analgesic misuse headache

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with...

    Correct

    • A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection. This infection can possibly...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection. This infection can possibly result in which of the following complications?

      Your Answer: Fitz- Hugh- Curtis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (FHCS), or perihepatitis, is a chronic manifestation of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It is described as an inflammation of the liver capsule, without the involvement of the liver parenchyma, with adhesion formation accompanied by right upper quadrant pain. A final diagnosis can be made through laparoscopy or laparotomy via direct visualization of violin string-like adhesions or through hepatic capsular biopsy and culture. FHCS is a complication of PID. Microorganisms associated with PID are thought to spread in one of three ways:-Through spontaneous ascending infection, microbes from the cervix or vagina travel to the endometrium, through the fallopian tubes, and into the peritoneal cavity. Complications include endometritis, salpingitis, tubo-ovarian abscess, pelvic peritonitis, and perihepatitis.-Microbes can also spread via lymphatic channels such as an infection of the parametrium from an intrauterine device.-Finally, the hematogenous spread is also possible such as with tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains significant damage to his frontal lobe.Which of the following would you expect him to have?

      Your Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomically, the frontal lobe is the largest lobe of the brain lying in front of the central sulcus. It is divided into 3 major areas defined by their anatomy and function. They are the primary motor cortex, the supplemental and premotor cortex, and the prefrontal cortex. Damage to the primary motor, supplemental motor, and premotor areas lead to weakness and impaired execution of motor tasks of the contralateral side. The inferolateral areas of the dominant hemisphere are the expressive language area (Broca area, Brodmann areas 44 and 45), to which damage will result in a non-fluent expressive type of aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea.Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months| progestin can be added later.In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A male had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left calf. After...

    Incorrect

    • A male had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left calf. After investigation, it was discovered that this was caused by a genetic disease and his children may be affected.What is the most common heritable cause of DVT?

      Your Answer: Protein S deficiency

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      Based on the studies, genetic factors are responsible for approximately 60 % DVT cases. Factor V (FV) Leiden which is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia, predisposes patients to DVT because of resistance to protein C.The heritable causes of deep vein thrombosis, from most to least common are:Factor V LeidenProthrombin G20210A variantProtein C deficiencyProtein S deficiencyAntithrombin deficiencyVon Willebrand disease and thalassaemia are not causes of DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has...

    Correct

    • A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has a cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) administration

      Explanation:

      Administration of IV prostaglandin/PGE1 (e.g., alprostadil) is indicated in ductal-dependent CHDs until surgery can be performedMechanism: prostaglandin prevents the ductus arteriosus from closing → creates intentional shunt to allow mixing of deoxygenated with oxygenated blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Recurrent blepharitis

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an unrelated problem ten months later, the wound site was found to be covered by a shiny dark protuberant scar tissue that projects beyond the margins of the skin incision. Which of the following best describes this skin lesion?

      Your Answer: Keloid scar

      Explanation:

      The skin lesion described is the typical presentation of a keloid scar.Keloid scars extend beyond the limits of the incision.Note:Surgical wounds are either incisional or excisional and either clean, clean-contaminated or dirty. The main stages of wound healing include:- Haemostasis:It occurs minutes to hours following injury. It is characterised by the vasospasm in adjacent vessels, platelet plug formation and generation of fibrin rich clot.- Inflammation: It occurs typically 1-5 days after the injury. Neutrophils migrate into the wound (this is often impaired in diabetes). Growth factors, including basic fibroblast growth factor and vascular endothelial growth factor, are released in this phase. Fibroblasts replicate within the adjacent matrix and migrate into wound, while macrophages and fibroblasts couple matrix regeneration and clot substitution.- Regeneration: It occurs typically between 7-56 days after the injury. The factors that stimulate this phase are platelet-derived growth factor and transforming growth factor. They stimulate fibroblasts and epithelial cells. Fibroblasts produce a collagen network. Furthermore, they cause angiogenesis and thus wound healing.- Remodelling: This is considered the longest phase of the healing process and may last up to one year (or longer). During this phase, fibroblasts become differentiated (myofibroblasts), and these facilitate wound contraction. Collagen fibres are remodelled, and microvessels regress, leaving a pale scar.Clinical correlation:Abnormal scar formation:- Hypertrophic scars:It is the condition where excessive amounts of collagen are produced within a scar. Nodules may be present histologically containing randomly arranged fibrils within and parallel fibres on the surface. The tissue itself is confined to the extent of the wound itself and is usually the result of a full-thickness dermal injury. They may go on to develop contractures.- Keloid scars: This is also a condition where excessive amounts of collagen occur within a scar. A keloid scar will typically pass beyond the boundaries of the original injury. They do not contain nodules and may occur following even trivial injury. They do not regress over time and may recur following removal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin, metronidazole and omeprazole for 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week

      Explanation:

      European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He couldn't recall any trauma to groin. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: USG of the scrotum

      Explanation:

      USG of the scrotum is important to exclude any abnormality with testicles, epididymis and scrotum. This presentation can be acute epididymo-orchitis or testicular torsion. USG of the scrotum will help to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein has significance primarily as a tumour marker, but maternal levels are frequently measured to detect some of the congenital abnormalities, in which the levels of alpha-fetoprotein are either increased or decreased. The conditions associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels are: spina bifida, anencephaly, myelomeningocele, oesophageal atresia, congenital nephrotic syndrome, and turner’s syndrome. Down’s syndrome or trisomy 21 is associated with low levels of maternal alpha-fetoprotein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age? ...

    Correct

    • Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Cow’s milk differs in composition to human breast milk. The sodium content of cows milk is too high, which can easily overwhelm a baby’s developing kidneys and lead to hypernatremia and dehydration. In addition to its iron content being too low, cows milk can cause further increase iron deficiency anaemia by irritating the baby’s intestinal lumen and causing blood loss per rectum. After 12 months a baby’s gastrointestinal tract and organs are able to tolerate cows milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen....

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen. Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?

      Your Answer: Zidovudine

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.Other options:- Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.- Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea. – Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency with vomiting and acute central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency with vomiting and acute central abdominal pain. On examination, the abdomen is tense and tender but there is no guarding and bowel sounds are audible. Ankle and knee reflexes are absent and there is reduced power distally in his lower limbs. One of his older sisters has previously presented with a similar condition. The lab investigations are as follows: Hb 10 g/dlMean corpuscular volume (MCV): 65 flPlatelets: 170Blood film basophilic stipplingUrinary δ-ALA (delta-aminolaevulinic acid): 100 mmol/24 hrs (normal range 8-53)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)

      Correct Answer: Lead poisoning

      Explanation:

      Lead Poisoning Symptoms: Abdominal pain, bluish line on the gums (Burton line), wrist/foot drop, anaemia, nephropathy, encephalopathy, cognitive impairmentDiagnosis: Detectable in bloodBasophilic stippling of erythrocytes (disorder of heme synthesis) on smearTreatment: Succimer, Dimercaprol, EDTA

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck...

    Correct

    • A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?

      Your Answer: Ectoderm

      Explanation:

      The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet...

    Correct

    • A term baby is born through thick meconium. The baby has not yet cried and is making no respiratory effort. The baby appears to be covered in thick particulate meconium.What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Suction with wide-bore catheter under direct vision

      Explanation:

      Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) refers to breathing problems that a new-born baby may have when: – There are no other causes, and- The baby has passed meconium (stool) into the amniotic fluid during labour or deliveryThe most recent guidelines are as follows:- If the baby is vigorous (defined as having a normal respiratory effort and normal muscle tone), the baby may stay with the mother to receive the initial steps of new-born care. A bulb syringe can be used to gently clear secretions from the nose and mouth.- If the baby is not vigorous (defined as having a depressed respiratory effort or poor muscle tone), place the baby on a radiant warmer, clear the secretions with a bulb syringe, and proceed with the normal steps of new-born resuscitation (i.e., warming, repositioning the head, drying, and stimulating). If, after these initial steps are taken, the baby is still not breathing or the heart rate is below 100 beats per minute (bpm), administer positive pressure ventilation.Resuscitation should follow the same principles for infants with meconium-stained fluid as for those with clear fluidContinued care in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU):Maintain an optimal thermal environment to minimize oxygen consumption.Minimal handling is essential because these infants are easily agitated. Agitation can increase pulmonary hypertension and right-to-left shunting, leading to additional hypoxia and acidosis. Sedation may be necessary to reduce agitation.An umbilical artery catheter should be inserted to monitor blood pH and blood gases without agitating the infant.Continue respiratory care includes oxygen therapy via hood or positive pressure, and it is crucial in maintaining adequate arterial oxygenation. Mechanical ventilation is required by approximately 30% of infants with MAS. Make concerted efforts to minimize the mean airway pressure and to use as short an inspiratory time as possible. Oxygen saturations should be maintained at 90-95%.Surfactant therapy is commonly used to replace displaced or inactivated surfactant and as a detergent to remove meconium. Although surfactant use does not appear to affect mortality rates, it may reduce the severity of disease, progression to extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) utilization, and decrease the length of hospital stay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Congenital cataracts are NOT a known complication of which of the following conditions?...

    Correct

    • Congenital cataracts are NOT a known complication of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disease that does not lead to congenital cataracts. A congenital cataract is the clouding of the cornea that is present from birth. Causes can be categorized as genetic, infectious, and metabolic. The most common infectious cause is congenital rubella syndrome. Galactosemia is a metabolic cause of congenital cataracts. Down’s syndrome represents a genetic cause of congenital cataract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves disease?

      Your Answer: Association with HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which patients present with thyrotoxicosis and related ophthalmopathy, and dermopathy. Many affected patients experience hyperthyroidism. Peak incidence of graves disease is after the 3rd decade of life and is more common in women than in men. Graves susceptibility is association with HLA-DR3. Clinical features of Graves disease include an increased metabolic rate, heat intolerance, irritability, weight loss despite increasing appetite, diarrhoea palpitations, chemosis, acropachy and onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which among the following is a common feature of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis...

    Correct

    • Which among the following is a common feature of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis (Still's disease)?

      Your Answer: Negative rheumatoid factor

      Explanation:

      Still’s disease is a rare systemic disorder that accounts for 10% of cases of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). The aetiology is unknown. It affects boys and girls equally up to the age of five years of age, following which, girls are more commonly affected. Clinical features of this disease include:- Fever- Maculopapular rash- Myalgia- Generalised lymphadenopathy- Hepatosplenomegaly- Pericarditis and pleuritis Laboratory investigations reveal raised ESR and CRP. There can also be coexisting neutrophilia and thrombocytosis. Anti-nuclear autoantibodies and rheumatoid factor are usually negative in patients with Still’s disease.On the rare case that they are present, their titres are generally low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old girl presents with moderate acne and pustules affecting the face, back...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with moderate acne and pustules affecting the face, back and chest.What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: An oral tetracycline for three months

      Explanation:

      When topical agents are insufficient or not tolerated, or in cases of moderate to severe acne, especially when the chest, back and shoulders are involved, systemic antibiotics are often considered the next line of treatmentSystemic antibiotics should not be used to treat mild acne because of the risk of increasing resistance. The additional use of nonantibiotic topical agents in combination with oral antibiotics should be considered. Topical retinoids with oral antibiotics may give a faster response and be more effective than either drug used alone.Treatment with tetracyclines and erythromycin reduces P. acnes within the follicles, thereby inhibiting the production of bacterial-induced inflammatory cytokines. These agents also have inherent anti-inflammatory effects, such as suppressing leukocyte chemotaxis and bacterial lipase activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC)....

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?

      Your Answer: Abdominal trauma

      Explanation:

      Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      254.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true?

      Your Answer: Should be obtained as part of the overall consent to the study

      Explanation:

      Randomization is one of the ethical protocols for research work, involving unbiased sample selection. Consent is required before undertaking any research and is taken for the complete research work at once. No separate consent is required for the process of randomization. The consent should explain each and every aspect of the study, including details about the process of randomization. Only particular study designs, like Zelen design, permit the avoidance of consent to randomization but these studies have their setbacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?

      Your Answer: Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 6 month old child was brought in after choking on a foreign...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old child was brought in after choking on a foreign body, which had resulted in the child having difficulty breathing. The best possible site for the incision would be?

      Your Answer: Cricoid cartilage

      Explanation:

      Cricothyroidectomy is done in life threatening condition, where an incision is made in cricothyroid membrane to establish a patent airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history of proximal myopathy. He has missed motor milestones and has pseudohypertrophy of the calves. Doctors suspect it might be Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which of the following should you advise the parents?

      Your Answer: Girl offspring have a less than 10% chance of inheriting the condition

      Explanation:

      Although initially thought to affect only boys, girls with DMD also have an estimated 10% chance of inheriting the condition. In girls, DMD may present with all or some clinical manifestations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?

      Your Answer: Scurvy

      Explanation:

      Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old?

      Your Answer: Balancing on one foot

      Correct Answer: Doing up buttons unaided

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestones:Social and Emotional:- Copies adults and friends – Shows affection for friends without prompting – Takes turns in games – Shows concern for crying friend – Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” – Shows a wide range of emotions – Separates easily from mom and dad – May get upset with major changes in routine- Dresses and undresses self Language/Communication- Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps – Can name most familiar things – Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” – Says first name, age, and sex- Names a friend – Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) – Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time – Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentencesCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts – Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people – Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces – Understands what “two” means – Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon – Turns book pages one at a time – Builds towers of more than 6 blocks – Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handleMovement/Physical Development- Climbs well – Runs easily – Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) – Walks up and downstairs, one foot on each stepDoing up buttons is a skill more usually seen in 5-year-olds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      83.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is the average age that puberty starts in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?

      Your Answer: 10 years

      Correct Answer: 12 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?

      Your Answer: Raised Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      15.7
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  • Question 35 - Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following...

    Correct

    • Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following a collapse and abnormal movements earlier at school today. The episode occurred when she was walking to her next lesson with her friends. Suddenly she told her friends that she felt scared and complained that her vision had become blurry. She was helped to a chair where she sat for 15 minutes speaking incoherently before collapsing to the floor. Her friends observed irregular jerking movements of her right leg and left arm. The movement continued for about 15 minutes after which she was able to sit up unsupported but could not speak for about 20 minutes. There was also bleeding from the tongue which she had bit during the episode. She had a similar episode yesterday at home while on a video call with her mother. Her father narrated that she suddenly dropped the phone, and her eyes began to roll up. She initially remained standing but fell to the floor after a minute. He noticed irregular movements of both her legs, and her eyes were tightly shut. The movements ended after 2 minutes after which she became responsive to questions, but her eyes remained closed. She was brought later in the day, and was discharged after routine investigations. Jamila is a GCSE candidate preparing for her mock examinations, and currently lives with her father as her mother works abroad. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jamila’s condition?

      Your Answer: Non-epileptic attack disorder

      Explanation:

      Non Epileptic attack disorder, also known as psychogenic non epileptic seizures, is a condition characterised by episodes of abnormal movement and behaviours that resemble seizures , but are not caused by electrical activity changes in the brain. It is believed that the disorder is caused by the brain’s response to overwhelming or stressful situations. In Jamila’s case, triggering conditions for her episodes may have been the absence of her mother, and the stress of her upcoming examinations. A diagnosis of generalised epilepsy is unlikely because this would require abnormal movement in all 4 limbs during an episode and a longer period of semi consciousness after. Cataplexy can also be ruled out as it does not involve a loss of consciousness which we see in Jamila’s case. Vasovagal syncope does not correspond with the history as there was no evidence of simultaneous collapse and responsiveness coupled with colour change and near spontaneous recovery when supine. A complex partial seizure may be possible in Jamila’s case, however the history of long duration, her eyes being tightly shut and the differences in presentation between the two episodes makes it less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait and dysarthria. On examination, he is found to have ataxia, absent tendon reflexes, and nystagmus. His intelligence is well preserved. Additionally, distal muscle weakness was noted in hands and feet. He is also diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be Friedreich’s ataxia.Friedreich’s ataxia is also called spinocerebellar degeneration. It is an autosomal recessive condition. The onset of ataxia is around ten years of age. Intelligence is preserved. Cerebellar impairment, distal muscle weakness, pes cavus, hammer-toes and progressive kyphoscoliosis are present. Deep tendon reflexes are absent, particularly the ankle jerk. Loss of vibration and position sense occurs because of degeneration of the posterior columns. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can occur with progression to congestive cardiac failure.Other options:- Ataxia Telangiectasia: ataxia develops earlier, around two years of age, with loss of ambulation by adolescence. Nystagmus is present. Telangiectasia becomes evident by mid-childhood and is found on bulbar conjunctiva, over the bridge of the nose and on the ears. These children have an increased risk of developing lymphoreticular malignancies.- Abetalipoproteinemia: begins in childhood with steatorrhea and failure to thrive. Neurological symptoms appear in late childhood. These include ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuritis, abnormalities in position and vibration sense, muscle weakness and mental retardation. Vitamin E is undetectable in serum in these patients.- Acute cerebellar ataxia: occurs in children of 1-3 years of age and is a diagnosis of exclusion. It often follows acute viral infections like varicella, coxsackievirus or echovirus by 2-3 weeks. It is an autoimmune response to a viral agent affecting the cerebellum. Prognosis is excellent with complete recovery present. Very small numbers have long term sequelae like ataxia, incoordination, speech disorder and behavioural problems.- Acute labyrinthitis: It is difficult to differentiate acute labyrinthitis from acute cerebellar ataxia in a toddler. It is associated with middle ear infections, vertigo and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      58.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What would you administer to a child with a clean wound that has...

    Correct

    • What would you administer to a child with a clean wound that has never been immunized before, assuming there is no contraindication to immunization?

      Your Answer: Full course of diphtheria, tetanus, polio

      Explanation:

      A not immunized patient with a clean wound requires an immediate vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus and polio, according to the Green Book of Immunisation against infectious disease. (The Green Book has the latest information on vaccines and vaccination procedures, for vaccine preventable infectious diseases in the UK.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 5 year old boy visited Ghana with his family and arrived back...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy visited Ghana with his family and arrived back home 6 weeks ago. 2 days ago he developed neck stiffness, a fever, and vomiting. He did not present with a rash and was treated with malaria prophylaxis. Choose the correct diagnosis from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Cerebral malaria

      Explanation:

      Due to malaria’s incubation period being between 7 and 30 days, malaria prophylaxis cannot provide a patient with confirmed protection. Prophylaxis treatment also often fails. The symptoms such as neck stiffness, fever, and vomiting are also consistent with the cerebral malaria diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 12-year-old boy presents with increasing unsteadiness on his feet. He also complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents with increasing unsteadiness on his feet. He also complains that he is unable to see the board at school. His mother notices that he sleeps with his light on these days and stumbles a lot in low light. Which of the following symptoms would suggest that the boy has a peroxisomal disorder?

      Your Answer: Numbness of the limbs, seizures and developmental delay

      Correct Answer: Anosmia, hearing problems and itchy skin

      Explanation:

      From the given clinical scenario, the peroxisomal disorder in question is Refsum’s disease.It is characterised by anosmia, early-onset retinitis pigmentosa (night blindness), chronic ataxia, variable neuropathy, deafness and ichthyosis. It is an inherited disorder of fatty acid oxidation with phytanic acid accumulation in the blood and tissues. This leads to the motor and sensory neuropathy. Other options:- Loss of sensation in extremities, dysarthria and diabetes is suggestive of Friedrich’s Ataxia. It is the most common autosomal recessive cause of ataxia. Associated features include dysarthria, scoliosis, diabetes and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. – Numbness of the limbs, seizures and developmental delay suggests mitochondrial cytopathy such as NARP (Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa). Learning difficulties, developmental delays and convulsions are not uncommon, as with many mitochondrial disorders. – Rapid, chaotic eye movements, behaviour change and irritability, suggest opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome. It is thought to be a Para infectious or paraneoplastic condition (secondary to neuroblastoma) linked to an abnormal immune response. Children present unwell with altered behaviour, irritability, ataxia, random chaotic eye movements and later myoclonus. – Sweet-smelling urine, lethargy and seizures suggest Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD). It is an autosomal recessive organic acidaemia. There is a distinct sweet odour to the urine of affected individuals, particularly at times of acute illness. Without treatment, MSUD can lead to seizures, brain damage, coma and death. The most common and classic form affects babies shortly after birth, but variant forms may not be evident until later childhood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour?

      Your Answer: Abdominal mass

      Explanation:

      The most common manifestation of Wilms tumour is an asymptomatic abdominal mass| an abdominal mass occurs in 80% of children at presentation. Abdominal pain or haematuria occurs in 25%. Urinary tract infection and varicocele are less common findings than these. Hypertension, gross haematuria, and fever are observed in 5-30% of patients. A few patients with haemorrhage into their tumour may present with hypotension, anaemia, and fever. Rarely, patients with advanced disease may present with respiratory symptoms related to lung metastases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      6.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/3) 33%
Neurology And Neurodisability (3/5) 60%
Neonatology (5/5) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Adolescent Health (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
HIV (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Child Development (0/2) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed