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  • Question 1 - Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+...

    Correct

    • Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+ to troponin C results in all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Weakening of the troponin i interaction with actin

      Explanation:

      At rest, troponin i is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When Calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin i which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are: ...

    Correct

    • The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are:

      Your Answer: Specific relay nuclei

      Explanation:

      The thalamus is considered the relay station for sensory and motor stimuli. There are three basic types of thalamic nuclei: relay nuclei, association nuclei and non-specific nuclei. Relay nuclei receive very well defined inputs and project this signal to functionally distinct areas of the cerebral cortex. These include the nuclei that relay primary sensations and also the nuclei involved in feedback of cerebellar signals and basal gangliar output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.8BP: 90/60 mmHgPulse: 110/min. Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?

      Your Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently

      Explanation:

      Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 81 year old male patient was admitted after an ischaemic stroke. Physical...

    Correct

    • An 81 year old male patient was admitted after an ischaemic stroke. Physical examination reveals left hemiparesis. How would you classify this hemiparesis based on the WHO International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health?

      Your Answer: Impairment of body function

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and signs are classified as ‘impairment of body function’. The types of impairment classified as ‘activity limitation’ include difficulties that a patient may have in executing certain activities. The type of impairment classified as ‘participation restriction’ are problems a patient may have in social roles. The type of impairment classified as ‘pathology’ would be the diagnosis/disease. Right total anterior circulation infarct relates to the Oxford Bamford classification for stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to ...

    Correct

    • Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to

      Your Answer: Produce pancreatic juice rich in enzymes

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin. Together these enzymes catalyse the digestion of fat, protein, and carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei? ...

    Correct

    • The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 3 - 12

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year...

    Correct

    • Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?

      Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68 year old female is on long term prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old female is on long term prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following would be the most suitable protection against osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Prevention of osteoporosis associated with chronic glucocorticoid therapy is done by administrating bisphosphonates. Oral bisphosphonates are indicated for patients aged above 65 who have been on steroid therapy for over 3 months, so as to reduce the risk of steroid induced osteoporosis. HRT is usually done in post menopausal women who have oestrogen related bone resorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to settle and a one year history of intermittent pain and swelling of the small joints of her hands. Examination reveals symmetric soft tissue swelling over the PIP and MCP joints and rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. There is also an effusion of both wrists. Lab results are positive for rheumatoid factor. X-ray of the wrists and hands shows erosions and bony decalcification. NSAIDs are started and the patient is referred to a rheumatologist for consideration of DMARD. Previous history is significant for TB. Which of the following should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Explanation:

      Anti-TNF-α therapy is effective for patients with arthritis but it can oftentimes lead to the reactivation of latent TB. Hence it should be used with great caution in patients with a past history of TB or current infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray of his left thigh revealed a fractured shaft of the left femur. He has a known history of opioid abuse. You are called to the ward to assess him after he becomes unwell. Which of the following clinical features are NOT compatible with a diagnosis of opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, hypothermia is not a symptom of opioid withdrawal.Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include dysphoric mood, yawning, insomnia, muscle aches, lacrimation/rhinorrhoea, papillary dilatation, piloerection, fever, sweating, nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea.If the patient is having an opioid withdrawal reaction, then give 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait about 60 min to determine its effect.COWS (Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale) assessment for opioid withdrawal is commonly used to determine the severity of opioid withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?

      Your Answer: Interstitial nephritis

      Correct Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Where on the surface of the chest is the normal site of auscultation...

    Incorrect

    • Where on the surface of the chest is the normal site of auscultation for the mitral area?

      Your Answer: 5th intercostal space in the left lower sternal border

      Correct Answer: 4th left intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is situated in the left 4th intercostal space just beneath the sternum, in the mid clavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Nitric oxide triggers vascular smooth muscle contraction through activation of which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Nitric oxide triggers vascular smooth muscle contraction through activation of which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Adenylate cyclase

      Correct Answer: Guanylyl cyclase

      Explanation:

      Impaired production or excess catabolism of NO impairs this endothelium-dependent vasodilator function and may contribute to excessive vasoconstriction under various pathological situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Normal stroke volume is about: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal stroke volume is about:

      Your Answer: 100 ml

      Correct Answer: 70 ml

      Explanation:

      Stroke volume is the amount of blood that is pumped from the heart into the aorta. It is typically 70 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Microtubule disassembly: ...

    Correct

    • Microtubule disassembly:

      Your Answer: Occurs at the positive and negative end

      Explanation:

      Dynamic instability refers to the coexistence of assembly and disassembly at the ends of a microtubule. The microtubule can dynamically switch between growing and shrinking phases in this region. Although both assembly and disassembly occur at both ends they occur preferentially at the (+) end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Restriction Enzymes... ...

    Correct

    • Restriction Enzymes...

      Your Answer: Cut DNA sequences at specific sites

      Explanation:

      Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that recognise short sequences of double stranded DNA and cut them at specific nucleotide points or sequences. These sequences differ for different restriction endonucleases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is: ...

    Correct

    • In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is:

      Your Answer: 450-600 mls

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced around 20-25 ml per hour or 480-600ml per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Coronary blood flow occurs in? ...

    Correct

    • Coronary blood flow occurs in?

      Your Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      Coronary arteries are unique in that they fill during diastole, when not occluded by valve cusps nor compressed by myocardial contraction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following acts on the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice that...

    Correct

    • Which of the following acts on the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice that is rich in enzymes?

      Your Answer: CCK

      Explanation:

      CCK (Cholecystokinin): CCK is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of fats and proteins in the small intestine. It stimulates the pancreas to secrete enzyme-rich pancreatic juice, which aids in the digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. It also stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile.

      Secretin: Secretin is released by the duodenum in response to acidic chyme entering from the stomach. It primarily stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice to neutralize the acid, but it does not primarily stimulate enzyme secretion.

      Gastrin: Gastrin is produced by G-cells in the stomach. It stimulates gastric acid secretion by the stomach, not pancreatic enzyme secretion.

      Chymotrypsin: Chymotrypsin is an enzyme produced by the pancreas. It does not act to stimulate the pancreas; rather, it is a component of the pancreatic juice that helps digest proteins.

      Elastase: Elastase is also an enzyme produced by the pancreas. Like chymotrypsin, it is involved in the digestion of proteins and does not stimulate the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’?

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Non-disjunction can result in aneuploidy i.e. abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell. It results due to uneven division of chromosomes in the meiosis 1 or 2 phase. All the above mentioned examples are of non-disjunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The main breakdown of fatty acids (by B-oxidation) occurs in which part of...

    Correct

    • The main breakdown of fatty acids (by B-oxidation) occurs in which part of the cell?

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Once inside the mitochondria, the β-oxidation of fatty acids occurs via five recurring steps:Activation by ATPOxidation by FAD,Hydration,Oxidation by NAD+,Thiolysis,The final product is acetyl-CoA, the entry molecule for the citric acid cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction...

    Correct

    • Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction and stroke?

      Your Answer: It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

      Explanation:

      tPA is a serine protease involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It functions by converting plasminogen, an inactive precursor, into plasmin, an active enzyme. Plasmin then degrades fibrin, the main protein component of blood clots, leading to clot dissolution. This mechanism is particularly valuable in the treatment of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and ischemic stroke, where timely dissolution of the clot can restore blood flow to affected tissues and reduce damage.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      • It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?...

    Correct

    • The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The primary sensory cortex is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary sensory cortex is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 3,1,2

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary somatosensory cortex is areas 3,1, and 2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - ANP and BNP in the circulation act on the kidney to? ...

    Incorrect

    • ANP and BNP in the circulation act on the kidney to?

      Your Answer: Decrease sodium excretion

      Correct Answer: Increase sodium excretion

      Explanation:

      The physiologic actions of BNP are similar to those of ANP and include decrease in systemic vascular resistance and central venous pressure as well as an increase in natriuresis (sodium excretion). The net effect of these peptides is a decrease in blood pressure due to the decrease in systemic vascular resistance and, thus, afterload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of pins and needles sensation in both hands. He also has prognathism. He also gives a history of recent onset right upper quadrant pain after being started on a new medication for his condition. Which of the following medications acting on his endocrine system can be responsible for this adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      The patient (known case of acromegaly) seems to have developed cholelithiasis (presenting with right upper quadrant pain) probably due to octreotide.It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin which is released from D cells of the pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin.Uses- Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage- Acromegaly- Carcinoid syndrome- Prevent complications following pancreatic surgery- VIPomas- Refractory diarrhoeaAdverse effectsGallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)Other options:- Bromocriptine – a dopamine agonist with side effects arising from its stimulation of the brain vomiting centre.- Desmopressin – predominantly used in patients with diabetes insipidus by increasing the presence of aquaporin channels in the distal collecting duct to increase water reabsorption from the kidneys. The main side effects include headache and facial flushing due to hypertension.- Metformin – mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis in patients with type 2 diabetes, common side effects include diarrhoea, vomiting, and lactic acidosis- Levothyroxine – synthetic thyroxine used in patients with hypothyroidism, common side effects result from incorrect dosing and mimic the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Cyclic AMP activates the following enzyme ...

    Incorrect

    • Cyclic AMP activates the following enzyme

      Your Answer: Adenylyl cyclase

      Correct Answer: Protein Kinase A

      Explanation:

      Cyclic AMP works by activating protein kinase A (PKA, or cAMP-dependent protein kinase). Protein kinase A can also phosphorylate specific proteins that bind to promoter regions of DNA, causing increases in transcription.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Stimulation of the carotid sinus results in: ...

    Correct

    • Stimulation of the carotid sinus results in:

      Your Answer: Drop in blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Stimulation of the carotid sinus will result in an increase in the baroreceptor discharge. This will travel via the afferent nerves to the medulla. Signals will pass through the vagus nerve to decrease the sympathetic outflow to the heart and the blood vessels. This inhibition will result in vasodilation of the blood vessels, venodilation and bradycardia hence decreasing the total peripheral resistance and lowering the blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Peristalsis is an example of: ...

    Correct

    • Peristalsis is an example of:

      Your Answer: Enteric nervous system

      Explanation:

      Peristalsis is a type of contraction where radial symmetrical contraction and relaxation of muscles propagates food in a downward wave through the gut. The enteric nervous system is one of the main divisions of the nervous system and consists of a mesh-like system of neurons that controls the function of the gastrointestinal tract. It has an independent reflex activity. The neurons of this system re collected into two types of ganglia: myenteric (or Auerbach’s) and submucosal (or Meissner’s plexuses). Myenteric plexuses are located between the inner and outer layers of the muscularis externa, while submucosal plexuses are located in the submucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which is the most common site for primary cardiac tumours to occur in...

    Correct

    • Which is the most common site for primary cardiac tumours to occur in adults?

      Your Answer: Left atrium

      Explanation:

      Myxomas are the most common type of primary heart tumour. The tumour is derived from multipotential mesenchymal cells and may cause a ball valve-type obstruction. About 75% of myxomas occur in the left atrium of the heart, usually beginning in the wall that divides the two upper chambers of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid

      Explanation:

      Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Chief cells secrete: ...

    Correct

    • Chief cells secrete:

      Your Answer: Pepsinogen and gastric lipase

      Explanation:

      A gastric chief cell (or peptic cell, or gastric zymogenic cell) is a type of cell in the stomach that releases pepsinogen and gastric lipase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - In a 60kg adult male with normal mean arterial pressure and oxygen consumption,...

    Correct

    • In a 60kg adult male with normal mean arterial pressure and oxygen consumption, what proportion of the cardiac output at rest goes to the brain?

      Your Answer: 10-15%

      Explanation:

      The rate of cerebral blood flow in the adult is typically 750 millilitres per minute, which is 10-15% of the cardiac output. On average around 13.9% of cardiac output is distributed to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following occurs during a Valsalva manoeuvre? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following occurs during a Valsalva manoeuvre?

      Your Answer: An initial rise in blood pressure

      Explanation:

      The Valsalva maneuver involves forced expiration against a closed glottis. It has several phases, each affecting the cardiovascular system differently:

      1. Phase I: During the initial forced expiration against the closed glottis, there is a transient rise in intrathoracic pressure, which compresses the thoracic aorta and causes a brief increase in blood pressure.
      2. Phase II: Continued straining leads to decreased venous return to the heart, reducing cardiac output and causing a drop in blood pressure. This phase is characterized by a compensatory increase in heart rate.
      3. Phase III: Upon releasing the strain, there is a sudden drop in intrathoracic pressure, which momentarily decreases blood pressure.
      4. Phase IV: Blood pressure then rises rapidly as venous return to the heart is restored, leading to increased cardiac output. This is often followed by a reflex bradycardia (slow heart rate).

      Given these phases, the most accurate statement about what occurs during the Valsalva maneuver is the initial rise in blood pressure (Phase I).

      Other options explained:

      • Forced inspiration against a closed glottis: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver involves forced expiration, not inspiration, against a closed glottis.
      • Low intrathoracic pressures throughout: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver involves high intrathoracic pressures due to forced expiration.
      • Disruption of autonomic function: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver affects autonomic function but does not disrupt it. Instead, it triggers autonomic responses to changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
      • No change: Incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver causes significant changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What microscopic changes are visible in an active thyroid gland? ...

    Correct

    • What microscopic changes are visible in an active thyroid gland?

      Your Answer: Follicle lining cells are cuboid or columnar.

      Explanation:

      Active follicles are lined by cuboidal or columnar cells; this is because active follicles are smaller and have less colloid. Their cells are tall because they are actively secreting hormones, whereas older follicles have a flat epithelium and are filled with more colloid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination:BP: 101/74 mmHgRR: 22 breaths/minPR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?

      Your Answer: Impaired hydroxylation of lysine and proline amino acids on collagen

      Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided? ...

    Correct

    • Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The functional division of the cerebellum are the: Vestibulocerebellum (floculonodular lobe), Spinocerebellum (vermis and associated areas in the midline) and cerebrocerebellum (lateral hemispheres).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following drug can cause galactorrhoea? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drug can cause galactorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide causes extrapyramidal effects (especially in children and young adults), hyperprolactinaemia, and occasionally tardive dyskinesia on prolonged administration. Also reported are drowsiness, restlessness, diarrhoea, depression, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, rashes, pruritus, oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which one of the following is true about bone marrow? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is true about bone marrow?

      Your Answer: At birth the bone marrow is entirely red marrow and is converted to yellow marrow with age

      Explanation:

      The two types of bone marrow are red marrow, which consists mainly of hematopoietic tissue, and yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of fat cells. Red blood cells, platelets, and most white blood cells arise in red marrow. Both types of bone marrow contain numerous blood vessels and capillaries. At birth, all bone marrow is red. With age, more and more of it is converted to the yellow type; only around half of adult bone marrow is red.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are:

      Your Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, active ventricular filling, passive ventricular filling.

      Correct Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.

      Explanation:

      The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.1st stage: diastole, or passive filling is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. 2nd stage: atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle (active filling).3rd stage: isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. 4th stage: ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. 5th stage: isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Where would one normally find venous valves? ...

    Correct

    • Where would one normally find venous valves?

      Your Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The intima of the limb veins is folded at intervals to form venous valves that prevent retrograde flow. There are no valves present in the very small veins, the great veins, or the veins in the brain and viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal end of the left 3rd costal cartilage to the sternal end of the right 6th costal cartilage?

      Your Answer: Atrio-ventricular (coronary) groove

      Explanation:

      The AV groove corresponds to the right border of the heart. The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features...

    Correct

    • Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform?

      Your Answer: c wave

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP) classically has three upward deflections and two downward deflections. The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling. The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?

      Your Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:- It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.- It is unimodal- The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).- Its density has two inflection points.- Its density is log-concave.The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following conditions is NOT X-linked recessive? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT X-linked recessive?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a autosomal recessive disease with an incidence of about 1 in 2500 live births. The most common mutation occurs in the long arm of chromosome 7 which codes for the chloride channel (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) gene.

      To have CF, a child must inherit two abnormal genes—one from each parent. The recessive CF gene can occur in both boys and girls because it is located on non-sex-linked chromosomes called autosomal chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere? ...

    Correct

    • During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere?

      Your Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      During the prometaphase the microtubule organizing centre completely develops. The spindle fibers attach to the chromosome and the centriole. It is in the Anaphase however that the spindle fibers contract pulling the sister chromatids apart. Later in the anaphase a cleave furrow beings to forms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - What catalyses the conversion of adenosine to inosine? ...

    Correct

    • What catalyses the conversion of adenosine to inosine?

      Your Answer: Adenosine deaminase

      Explanation:

      Adenosine deaminase (ADA) is an enzyme involved in purine metabolism. It is needed for the breakdown of adenosine from food and for the turnover of nucleic acids in tissues. ADA irreversibly deaminates adenosine, converting it to the related nucleoside inosine by the substitution of the amino group for a keto group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomere transcriptase

      Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Mydriasis occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following proteins are NOT synthesized in the liver? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following proteins are NOT synthesized in the liver?

      Your Answer: Steroid

      Explanation:

      Human steroidogenesis occurs in a number of locations:- Corticosteroids are produced in the adrenal cortex.- Oestrogen and progesterone are made primarily in the ovary and the placenta during pregnancy, and testosterone in the testes.- Testosterone is also converted to oestrogen to regulate the supply of each in females and males.- Some neurons and glia in the central nervous system (CNS) express the enzymes required for the local synthesis of pregnant neurosteroids, de novo or from peripheral sources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is: ...

    Correct

    • The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 44

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged...

    Correct

    • The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged as follows:

      Your Answer: Molecular, external granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, multiform

      Explanation:

      The layers of neocortex from outermost to innermost include: the molecular, external granular layer, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal and multiform layer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Calcium needed for cardiac muscle contraction is made available during which phase of...

    Correct

    • Calcium needed for cardiac muscle contraction is made available during which phase of the action potential?

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      It is made available during the plateau phase of the action potential i.e. phase 2. During the plateau phase of the action potential, Calcium from the extracellular fluid enters through the L type of calcium channels. This entry triggers the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum via the ryanodine receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which statement is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct?

      Your Answer: MtDNA principally encodes for proteins that are involved in oxidative phosphorylation for the production of ATP in the cell.

      Explanation:

      Mitochondria have no nucleus instead they contain their own free floating circular genome (MtDNA), which encodes 13 different subunits of proteins involved in oxidative phosphorylation. The remainder of the mitochondrial proteins are nuclear encoded, synthesized in the cytoplasm, and transported into the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system?

      Your Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia are the smallest of the neuroglial cells in the nervous system. They are scattered throughout the central nervous system and have phagocytic properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Relaxation of the cardiac muscle at the actin-myosin cross bridges is initiated by...

    Incorrect

    • Relaxation of the cardiac muscle at the actin-myosin cross bridges is initiated by binding of which molecule to the exposed site on the myosin.

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: ATP

      Explanation:

      A crossbridge is a myosin projection, consisting of two myosin heads, that extends from the thick filaments. Each myosin head has two binding sites: one for ATP and another for actin. The binding of ATP to a myosin head detaches myosin from actin, thereby allowing myosin to bind to another actin molecule. Once attached, the ATP is hydrolysed by myosin, which uses the released energy to move into the cocked position whereby it binds weakly to a part of the actin binding site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except:

      Your Answer: Glucoamylase

      Correct Answer: Alpha-amylase

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli which extend from the cell known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes. All these enzymes except alfa amylase are brush border enzymes. Alfa amylase is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase. ...

    Correct

    • The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.

      Your Answer: Germ cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Glucose transport in the brain is mediated by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Glucose transport in the brain is mediated by:

      Your Answer: GLUT 3

      Correct Answer: GLUT 1

      Explanation:

      The facilitative glucose transporter mediates the transport of glucose from blood into neurons and glia in the brain. The primary isoforms in the brain are GLUT1 detected at high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which option best explains the underlying mechanism of gout?

      Your Answer: Too much protein in diet

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal excretion of uric acid

      Explanation:

      Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer: Is present when the iron in the haemoglobin is in the Fe2+ state

      Correct Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What is the function of secondary messengers? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of secondary messengers?

      Your Answer: Communication from intracellular to extracellular signalling pathways

      Correct Answer: Communication from extracellular to intracellular signalling pathways

      Explanation:

      First messengers may not physically cross the phospholipid bilayer to initiate changes within the cell directly. This functional limitation necessitates the cell to devise signal transduction mechanisms to transduce first messenger into second messengers, so that the extracellular signal may be propagated intracellularly. Second messengers are intracellular signalling molecules released by the cell to trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis. Secondary messengers are therefore one of the initiating components of intracellular signal transduction cascades.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay?

      Your Answer: Shortened by sympathetic stimulation

      Explanation:

      AV nodal delay Is about 0.1s before the action potential spreads to the ventricles. It is shortened by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and lengthened by stimulation of the parasympathetic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?

      Your Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Posterior hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - The SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by which artery? ...

    Correct

    • The SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by which artery?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, SA and AV nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following is true for P53: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true for P53:

      Your Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent...

    Correct

    • A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent back pain that is unrelated to activity for the past several months. Laboratory findings show :WCC: 6.7 x 109/l (5.4 neutrophils, 1.2 lymphocytes and 0.2 monocytes)Haemoglobin: 11.2 g/dlhaematocrit: 33.3%MCV: 88 flPlatelet count: 89 x 109/l.The biochemistry shows:sodium 144 mmol/lpotassium 4.5 mmol/lchloride 100 mmol/lbicarbonate 26 mmol/lurea 14 mmol/lcreatinine 90 μmol/la glucose of 5.4 mmol/l.A CT scan of the spine reveals scattered 0.4 to 1.2 cm bright lesions in the vertebral bodies.Which of the following additional laboratory test findings is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Serum prostate specific antigen of 35 microgram/l

      Explanation:

      Old age, persistent backache, weight loss, and osteosclerotic lesions make prostatic adenocarcinoma the most likely diagnosis. The sequelae include severe pain, pathological fractures, hypercalcemia and cord compression. Prostatic adenocarcinoma is detected by elevated levels of prostate specific antigen. Positive serology for borrelia burgdorferi would hint at Lyme disease which does not cause osteosclerotic bone lesions, neither would Neisseria gonorrhoeae have such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Pacemaker cells in the SA node and the AV node are connected by?...

    Correct

    • Pacemaker cells in the SA node and the AV node are connected by?

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      Gap junctions allows for rapid propagation of the action potential from one cell to the other. The cells of the heart are connected by gap junctions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme?

      Your Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Statins have been found to reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) and mortality in those who are at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - What is cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • What is cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Product of stroke volume and heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12?

      Your Answer: Liver, meat

      Explanation:

      No fungi, plants, nor animals (including humans) are capable of producing vitamin B12. Only bacteria and archaea have the enzymes needed for its synthesis. Proved food sources of B12 are animal products (meat, fish, dairy products).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 20-year-old female has been admitted with an acute infection. She gives a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female has been admitted with an acute infection. She gives a history suggestive of hypersensitivity to amoxicillin. After consultation with the allergy specialist, she has now been diagnosed with an IgE mediated penicillin allergy. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      Cefalexin should be avoided in this patient.This patient is known to have a severe penicillin allergy. None of the above antibiotics are penicillin based. However, 0.5 – 6.5% of patients who are proven to have an IgE mediated penicillin allergy will also be allergic to cephalosporins, including cefalexin. Penicillin, cephalosporins, and carbapenems are all members of the beta-lactam group of antibiotics and share a common beta-lactam ring. There is, therefore, a small risk of allergy cross-over between all these antibiotics. The rates of allergy cross-over are lower with second and third-generation cephalosporins than first-generation cephalosporins such as cefalexin.It is important to question the patient carefully to ascertain what symptoms they had on exposure to penicillin. Symptoms such as an urticarial rash or itching make it more likely that they have an IgE mediated allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it? ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it?

      Your Answer: Occurs after the second heart sound.

      Correct Answer: Can be heard in atrial systole.

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle by atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system is located in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum?

      Your Answer: AV node

      Explanation:

      AV node is located at the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - In increasing order of concentration, the main anions in plasma are: ...

    Correct

    • In increasing order of concentration, the main anions in plasma are:

      Your Answer: Proteins-, HCO3-, Cl-,

      Explanation:

      Anions are negatively charged ions and include: chloride Cl-, bicarbonate HCO3-, sulphate SO4-2, phosphate HPO4-2, and protein anions. Chloride it the most abundant anion followed by bicarbonate and then protein anions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality...

    Correct

    • In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality for which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Tricyclics

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic compounds can’t be cleared by haemodialysis.Drugs that can be cleared with haemodialysis include: (BLAST)- Barbiturate- Lithium- Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)- Salicylates- Theophyllines (charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable)Drugs which cannot be cleared with haemodialysis include:- Tricyclics- Benzodiazepines- Dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)- Digoxin- Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 60-year-old male is under treatment with azathioprine after a renal transplant. During...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male is under treatment with azathioprine after a renal transplant. During his review, he complains of pain and swelling over his left great toe. Investigations reveal hyperuricemia. Suspecting gout, he was started on allopurinol. Subsequently, he develops aplastic anaemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for his bone marrow failure?

      Your Answer: Mercaptopurine toxicity

      Explanation:

      The cause for bone marrow suppression in this patient is most probably mercaptopurine toxicity.Azathioprine is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP), which itself is metabolized by xanthine oxidase. Xanthine oxidase inhibition by allopurinol leads to the accumulation of 6-MP which then precipitates bone marrow failure. This may be potentially fatal if unrecognized.Clinical presentation:Toxicity symptoms include gastrointestinal symptoms, bradycardia, hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart sound?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Second heart sound (S2) forms the dub of lub-dub and is composed of components A2 and P2. •    loud: hypertension•    soft: AS•    fixed split: physiological split (normally occurs during inhalation), right bundle branch block, pulmonary stenosis, and atrial septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - The hepatic plates in the liver parenchyma consist of how many cell layers?...

    Correct

    • The hepatic plates in the liver parenchyma consist of how many cell layers?

      Your Answer: 1 – 2 cell layers

      Explanation:

      Hepatic plates in a hepatic lobule are arranged in 1-2 cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Α2

      Correct Answer: Α1

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors cause uterine contraction during pregnancy. They are linked to Gq-proteins that activate smooth muscle contraction through the IP3 signal transduction pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes: Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertensionCentral nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rashEndocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoeaGenitourinary: Urinary tract infectionHepatic: Abnormal hepatic function testsNeuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle crampsOphthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbanceOtic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitusRenal: Acute renal failureOther options:Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours. Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - The process whereby bacterial products interact with plasma factors and cells to produce...

    Correct

    • The process whereby bacterial products interact with plasma factors and cells to produce agents that attract neutrophils to an infected area is called:

      Your Answer: Chemotaxis

      Explanation:

      During an inflammatory process many cytokines are produced that act as chemokines to attract neutrophils to the site of inflammation. These include bacterial products, IL-8, C5a and LTB4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water.On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic.What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.Management: – Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.- Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline). – On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.- Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the? ...

    Correct

    • The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the?

      Your Answer: Hydrogen potassium ATPase

      Explanation:

      The rate limiting pump in HCl secretion is the H+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus. She is under treatment for asthma and depression with albuterol and amitriptyline respectively.On examination, she seems agitated with a BP of 100/44, a pulse rate of 112 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 cycles/min, and a temperature of 37.8'C.An arterial blood gas performed reveals:pH: 7.48 (7.36 – 7.44)pO2: 11.2 kPa (11.3 – 12.6 kPa)pCO2: 1.9 kPa (4.7 – 6.0 kPa)Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/l (20 – 28 mmol/L)What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Salicylate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The blood gas analysis provided above is suggestive of a mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis characteristic of salicylate overdose.Pathophysiology:The direct stimulation of the cerebral medulla causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.As it is metabolized, it causes an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria. Lactate levels then increase due to the increase in anaerobic metabolism. This, along with a slight contribution from the salicylate metabolites result in metabolic acidosis.Tinnitus is characteristic and salicylate ototoxicity may produce deafness. Other neurological sequelae include encephalopathy and agitation, seizures and CNS depression and coma. Cardiovascular complications include tachycardia, hypotension, and dysrhythmias (VT, VF, and asystole).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - The thalamic main input from the cortex is via which tracts? ...

    Correct

    • The thalamic main input from the cortex is via which tracts?

      Your Answer: Thalamocortical pathway

      Explanation:

      The thalamus is connected to cerebral cortex via the thalamocortical radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the...

    Correct

    • What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the body?

      Your Answer: Radiation and conduction

      Explanation:

      The body maintains a constant core temperature by balancing heat loss and heat gain. The mechanisms of heat loss are: radiation, evaporation, convection and conduction. Out of these mechanisms, the most important under normal conditions are radiation, through which body heat is given off to the surrounding atmosphere; and conduction, in which the body releases heat into the objects it comes into contact with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which of the following phases in depolarization and repolarization of cardiac muscle cells...

    Correct

    • Which of the following phases in depolarization and repolarization of cardiac muscle cells are caused by the inactivation of Na+ channels?

      Your Answer: Phase 1 : rapid repolarization

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 is caused by the sodium current. Voltage gated sodium channels open leading to the influx of sodium into the cardiac muscle cell. Phase 1 is the rapid transient repolarization phase which is caused by the inactivation of the voltage gated sodium channels and opening of the voltage gated potassium channels along with opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 2 which is the plateau is caused by opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 4 is caused by closing of the slow calcium channels and opening of the potassium channels leading to efflux of potassium leading to the establishment of the resting membrane potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily.Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?

      Your Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions. This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Which statement regarding fever is correct: ...

    Correct

    • Which statement regarding fever is correct:

      Your Answer: Body temperature is regulated is by a centre in the floor of the third ventricle

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus is located on the floor of the third ventricle and is the centre of regulation of body temperature. It uses a set point to regulate other body systems as well. Diurnal variation of temperature is not seen in humans. the principal mediator of fever is interleukin I, although interferon alfa also plays a role. Fever can cause rhabdomyolysis or muscle breakdown

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of protein degradation

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes

      Explanation:

      Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but inhibits gluconeogenesis. Insulin promotes the dephosphorylating of glycogen phosphorylase, therefore suppressing glycogenolysis. Insulin also inhibits FOX3, FOX4, and FOX6 and their ability to promote hepatic gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following skin coloration abnormalities occurs due to adrenal insufficiency due...

    Correct

    • Which of the following skin coloration abnormalities occurs due to adrenal insufficiency due to primary adrenal disease?

      Your Answer: Hyperpigmentation

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency, or hypocortisolism is an endocrine disorder. Hyperpigmentation is one of its most common signs; it occurs as a result of an increase in pro-opiomelanocortin to produce more ACTH in response to the decreased levels of cortisol. Pro-opiomelanocortin is a precursor of melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH), which stimulates melanocytes, causing darkening of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - With regard to the cell membrane: ...

    Correct

    • With regard to the cell membrane:

      Your Answer: It consists of an outer hydrophilic & an inner hydrophobic layer

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists primarily of a thin layer of amphipathic phospholipids that spontaneously arrange with the hydrophobic tail regions on the inside and the hydrophilic head regions outside. Membranes typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which...

    Correct

    • A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which coronary artery supplies the right atria? ...

    Correct

    • Which coronary artery supplies the right atria?

      Your Answer: Right coronary

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery distributes blood to the left side of the heart, the left atrium and ventricle, and the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery arises from the left coronary artery and follows the coronary sulcus to the left. Eventually, it will fuse with the small branches of the right coronary artery. The right coronary artery proceeds along the coronary sulcus and distributes blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the heart conduction system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?

      Your Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline are positively inotropic due to: ...

    Correct

    • Xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline are positively inotropic due to:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cAMP breakdown

      Explanation:

      Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - The celiac trunk consists of which arteries? ...

    Correct

    • The celiac trunk consists of which arteries?

      Your Answer: Left gastric, common hepatic, splenic

      Explanation:

      The celiac trunk is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta. It is 1.25 cm in length. Branching from the aorta at thoracic vertebra 12 (T12). There are three main divisions of the celiac artery:- left gastric artery- common hepatic artery- splenic artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - Which hormone results in the production of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes but...

    Correct

    • Which hormone results in the production of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes but low in volume?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male who has recently returned from a trip to Thailand presents with congestion of eyes and swelling of the knee joint. He completed a course of antibiotics for dysentery 4 weeks back. He experiences no dysuria and urine examination is normal. Which further information would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: History and physical examination

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely has reactive arthritis which is usually diagnosed on history and clinical examination. The classic triad of symptoms include conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis. Arthritis and conjunctivitis may occur 4-6 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection. Arthritis usually occurs acutely, mostly involving the lower limb and is asymmetrical. Blood culture, urine culture and arthrocentesis (joint aspiration) will not yield positive results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Where does secretin work in the pancreas? ...

    Correct

    • Where does secretin work in the pancreas?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic ducts

      Explanation:

      Secretin, a hormone produced by the duodenal S cells in response to the stomach chyme containing high hydrogen atom concentration (high acidity), is released into the blood stream; upon return to the digestive tract, secretion decreases gastric emptying, increases secretion of the pancreatic ductal cells, as well as stimulating pancreatic acinar cells to release their zymogenic juice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Cross-bridges between actin and myosin filaments contain: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cross-bridges between actin and myosin filaments contain:

      Your Answer: Tropomyosin

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      At rest troponin I is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and causes a structural change in troponin I which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: Mutation in the Rb gene leads to retinoblastoma

      Correct Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics slow their growth or reproduction. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Erythromycin which is a macrolide is mainly a bacteriostatic antibiotic but can show bactericidal action depending on the dose. Sulphonamides are mainly bacteriostatic. Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis therefore it is considered as bactericidal. Chloramphenicol is primarily a bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis and can exhibit bactericidal action in high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders:

      Your Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is?

      Your Answer: Generation of ATP which is passed on to the contractile mechanism

      Correct Answer: Allows attachment of troponin components to tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin, and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a macrophage?

      Your Answer: Oligodendrocyte

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia act as the macrophages of the central nervous system, and they contribute to innate and adaptive immune responses. Studies have shown that microglial cells recognize monocyte antigens, and there are similarities between them that demonstrate that they originate from these monocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Which vaso metabolite decreases coronary blood flow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vaso metabolite decreases coronary blood flow?

      Your Answer: Adenosine

      Correct Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Decreased O2, increased CO2, lactate, prostaglandins, adenine nucleotides, adenosine, H+, K+ and cyanide produce vasodilation and thus an increase in coronary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - What is the function of migrating motor complex ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of migrating motor complex

      Your Answer: Clears the gut of luminal contents in preparation of the next meal

      Explanation:

      Migrating motor complexes (MMC) are waves of electrical activity that sweep through the intestines in a regular cycle during fasting. These motor complexes trigger peristaltic waves, which facilitate transportation of indigestible substances such as bone, fiber, and foreign bodies from the stomach, through the small intestine, past the ileocecal sphincter, and into the colon. The MMC occurs every 90–120 minutes during the interdigestive phase (between meals), and is responsible for the rumbling experienced when hungry. It also serves to transport bacteria from the small intestine to the large intestine, and to inhibit the migration of colonic bacteria into the terminal ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?

      Your Answer: The solution is hypotonic

      Correct Answer: Contains only actively secreted substances

      Explanation:

      Hepatic bile is an isotonic fluid and its electrolyte composition resembles that of plasma. 97% of water is found in the gallbladder bile, not hepatic duct. Hepatic bile is alkaline. The ratio of bile acids: phosphatidylcholine: cholesterol is 20:1:3. Hepatic bile contai9ns only actively secreted substances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting? ...

    Correct

    • Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting?

      Your Answer: Moxonidine

      Explanation:

      Moxonidine and alpha-methyl dopa are centrally acting antihypertensives and modify blood pressure through modifying sympathetic activity.Other options:Verapamil is a calcium antagonist.Minoxidil and hydralazine are both vasodilators.Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-blocker.Adverse effects:Dry mouth and somnolence were the most frequently reported adverse events, followed by headache, dizziness, nausea and allergic skin reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by: ...

    Correct

    • The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:

      Your Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1

      Explanation:

      Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - Where is the major site of purine synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the major site of purine synthesis?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The major site of purine synthesis is in the liver. Purines are biologically synthesized as nucleotides and in particular as ribotides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - High titre of which of the following antibodies is not considered diagnostic for...

    Correct

    • High titre of which of the following antibodies is not considered diagnostic for the mentioned disease?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of RA is mainly based on clinical features (e.g., morning stiffness, symmetrical joint swelling) and laboratory tests (e.g., anti-CCP). Rheumatoid factor is not very specific for this disease and hence has low reliability. X-ray findings (e.g., soft tissue swelling or joint space narrowing) occur late in the disease and are therefore not typically used for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Major supplies of glycogen are found in …. ...

    Correct

    • Major supplies of glycogen are found in ….

      Your Answer: Liver and skeletal muscle

      Explanation:

      The two major sites of glycogen storage are the liver and skeletal muscle. The concentration of glycogen is higher in the liver than in muscle however more glycogen is stored in skeletal muscle due to its greater mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are the mainstay of treatment in long QT syndrome. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators are the most effective treatment in genotypes with a high risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Which one of the following is necessary to activate plasminogen to plasmin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is necessary to activate plasminogen to plasmin?

      Your Answer: Factor Va

      Correct Answer: tPA

      Explanation:

      In circulation, plasminogen adopts a closed, activation resistant conformation. Upon binding to clots, or to the cell surface, plasminogen adopts an open form that can be converted into active plasmin by a variety of enzymes, including tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA), kallikrein, and factor XII (Hageman factor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - The central veins in the liver: ...

    Correct

    • The central veins in the liver:

      Your Answer: Coalesce to form the hepatic vein

      Explanation:

      The central veins coalesce to form the hepatic vein which in turn drains into the inferior vena cava. The portal vein mainly carries blood from different parts of the GIT and is not drained to the inferior vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - What is the average life span of eosinophils? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average life span of eosinophils?

      Your Answer: 18 hours

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils have a circulating half-life of approximately 18 hours and a tissue life span of at least 6 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is in the diuretic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor families of medication. It works by decreasing the amount of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate in the body and can thus cause metabolic acidosis and electrolyte changes (hypokalaemia, hyponatremia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver?

      Your Answer: Factor viii

      Explanation:

      Factor VIII is produced in liver sinusoidal cells and endothelial cells outside of the liver throughout the body. This protein circulates in the bloodstream in an inactive form, bound to another molecule called von Willebrand factor, until an injury that damages blood vessels occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - Which of the following forms the language areas of the cerebral cortex? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following forms the language areas of the cerebral cortex?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, the submarginal sulcus and the angular gyrus all form the language areas of the cerebral cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - Which lipoprotein contains the most cholesterol esters? ...

    Correct

    • Which lipoprotein contains the most cholesterol esters?

      Your Answer: LDL

      Explanation:

      LDL and HDL transport both dietary and endogenous cholesterol in the plasma, but LDL is the main transporter of cholesterol and cholesteryl esters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination:

      Your Answer: 30% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected

      Explanation:

      The ability of humans to differentiate differences in intensity of taste is poor. A 30% change in the concentration of the substance being tasted is required before an intensity difference is perceived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A 75 year old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The...

    Correct

    • A 75 year old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted him and advised of the Barthel score index. During rehabilitation, which one of the following limitations are best described by Barthel score index?

      Your Answer: Floor and ceiling effects

      Explanation:

      Barthel scoring has floor and ceiling effects which is the most widely recognised limitation. Floor effect means that the patient who is bed bound can score initially low, whereas the ceiling effect shows that despite being bed bound, a patient can achieve a maximum score i.e. 100. The test is easy to perform and correlates well with other prognostic scales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - Which of the following supplies the AV node? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node is supplied by the right coronary artery near the origin of the posterior IV artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - Blood from the hepatic veins drains into the? ...

    Correct

    • Blood from the hepatic veins drains into the?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The hepatic veins are the veins that drain de-oxygenated blood from the liver into the inferior vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - Where does most fat digestion begin? ...

    Correct

    • Where does most fat digestion begin?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Digestion of some fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine (in the duodenum). The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Monoamines are a class of neurotransmitters that include:

      1. Dopamine: A neurotransmitter involved in reward, motivation, and motor control.
      2. Norepinephrine: A neurotransmitter involved in arousal, attention, and stress responses.
      3. Serotonin: Although not listed in the options, it is another key monoamine involved in mood regulation.

      The other neurotransmitters listed are not monoamines:

      • Acetylcholine: This is a different type of neurotransmitter involved in muscle activation and various brain functions.
      • GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid): This is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
      • Glutamate: This is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.
      • Glycine: An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - In liver failure there is likely to be? ...

    Correct

    • In liver failure there is likely to be?

      Your Answer: Bleeding disorders

      Explanation:

      Liver failure can lead to several significant changes in the body’s physiology, but let’s review each option in the context of liver failure:

      1. Raised blood urea: This is not typical of liver failure. In liver failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are often low because the liver is not effectively converting ammonia to urea.
      2. Increase in the albumin/globulin ratio in the blood: This is incorrect. In liver failure, albumin production decreases, leading to a lower albumin/globulin ratio.
      3. Bleeding disorders: This is possible, but it often fluctuates. Liver failure can lead to both bleeding tendencies due to decreased production of clotting factors and a hypercoagulable state due to the reduced synthesis of anticoagulant proteins like Protein C and S.
      4. Stable blood glucose level: This is incorrect. Liver failure often causes hypoglycemia because the liver’s ability to produce glucose via gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis is impaired.
      5. Increased absorption of fat: This is incorrect. Liver failure can lead to decreased bile production, which is necessary for fat emulsification and absorption, resulting in decreased fat absorption.

      Given these points, the most likely option related to liver failure would actually be issues related to bleeding complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - What is the function of Activated protein C? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of Activated protein C?

      Your Answer: Activates factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Inactivates factor Va

      Explanation:

      Activated Protein C (APC) is a crucial protein in the regulation of blood coagulation. Its primary functions include:

      1. Inactivating Factor Va: APC inactivates Factor Va, which is a cofactor for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by Factor Xa. By inactivating Factor Va, APC reduces thrombin formation, thereby acting as an anticoagulant.
      2. Inactivating Factor VIIIa: APC also inactivates Factor VIIIa, another cofactor that assists Factor IXa in the conversion of Factor X to Factor Xa. This further contributes to its anticoagulant effect.

      These actions help to regulate blood clotting and prevent excessive thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic...

    Correct

    • With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic rate rises?

      Your Answer: 0.14

      Explanation:

      An increase in body temperature is associated with a higher metabolic rate. Evidence suggests that an increase of 1°C in your body temperature increases your metabolism by 10 to 14%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - The structure of haemoglobin A in adults includes ...

    Correct

    • The structure of haemoglobin A in adults includes

      Your Answer: Haem, globin polypeptide chains α and β

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin A (HbA), also known as adult haemoglobin or α2β2, is the most common human haemoglobin tetramer, comprising over 97% of the total red blood cell haemoglobin. It consists of two alpha chains and two beta chains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the...

    Correct

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the gut?

      Your Answer: SGLT1

      Explanation:

      SGLT 1 is responsible for the uptake of glucose via secondary active transport from the small intestine and the renal tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Occurs in the kidney & liver

      Explanation:

      Oxidative deamination is a form of deamination that generates α-keto acids and other oxidized products from amine-containing compounds, and occurs largely in the liver and kidney. Oxidative deamination is an important step in the catabolism of amino acids, generating a more metabolizable form of the amino acid, and also generating ammonia as a toxic by-product. The addition of ubiquitin to a substrate protein is called ubiquitination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme ...

    Correct

    • Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme

      Your Answer: Adenylate cyclase

      Explanation:

      Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by adenylate cyclase located on the inner side of the plasma membrane and anchored at various locations in the interior of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine...

    Correct

    • A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine screening test developed to detect Chlamydia. The total number of people involved in the study were 200. The study compared the new test to the already existing NAAT techniques. The new test was positive in 20 patients that were Chlamydia positive and in 3 patients that were Chlamydia negative. For 5 patients that were Chlamydia positive and 172 patients that were Chlamydia negative the test turned out to be negative. Choose the correct value regarding the negative predictive value of the new test:

      Your Answer: 172/177

      Explanation:

      The definition of negative predictive value is the probability that the individuals with truly negative screening test don’t have Chlamydia. The equation is the following: Negative predictive value = Truly negative/(truly negative + false negative) = 172 / (172 + 5) = 172 / 177

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by: ...

    Correct

    • In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by:

      Your Answer: A pituitary LH surge due to the positive feedback effect of circulating oestrogens

      Explanation:

      FSH and LH are secreted to start the development of a follicle at the start of each menstrual cycle. A surge in oestrogen causes a positive feedback in the LH cells of the pituitary; this causes ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - Which structure forms the major part of the sternocostal surface of the heart?...

    Correct

    • Which structure forms the major part of the sternocostal surface of the heart?

      Your Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      The anterior (sternocostal) surface is formed mainly by the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought...

    Correct

    • A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought into Casualty by family members, who stated that he had episodes of aggression. Which of the following drugs is most suitable as the pharmacological management for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Regarding the pharmacological management, Risperidone is the most suitable drug from the given answers as it is recommended for the treatment of aggression associated with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease. Quetiapine and Benzodiazepine are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - Eosinophils provide immunity against ...

    Correct

    • Eosinophils provide immunity against

      Your Answer: Multi cellular parasites

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of: ...

    Correct

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of:

      Your Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - What is the function of the pro-apoptotic Bcl-2 family of proteins, Bax and...

    Correct

    • What is the function of the pro-apoptotic Bcl-2 family of proteins, Bax and Bak?

      Your Answer: Form permissive pores in the mitochondrial membrane

      Explanation:

      The pro-apoptotic proteins in the BCL-2 family, including Bax and Bak, normally act on the mitochondrial membrane to promote permeabilization and release of cytochrome C and ROS, that are important signals in the apoptosis cascade. Growing evidence suggests that activated BAX and/or Bak form an oligomeric pore, MAC in the mitochondrial outer membrane. This results in the release of cytochrome c and other pro-apoptotic factors from the mitochondria, often referred to as mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization, leading to activation of caspases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - In the life cycle of plasmodium species: ...

    Correct

    • In the life cycle of plasmodium species:

      Your Answer: Merozoites are released from the liver and enter the red blood cell

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa, many of which cause malaria in their hosts. The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a Dipteran insect host and a vertebrate host. Sexual reproduction always occurs in the insect, making it the definitive host.The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by: ...

    Correct

    • Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by:

      Your Answer: Hypoxia

      Explanation:

      The heart is highly metabolically active and boasts the highest oxygen consumption by mass of any organ. This demand for oxygen is met by the coronary circulation, which is responsible for delivering blood to the myocardium and represents approximately 5% of cardiac output. Vasodilation may be due to the local effect of hypoxia on coronary vessels, or local metabolic vasodilation, or the activation of β-adrenoceptors or some combination of these mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - Factors influencing cardiac output include which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Factors influencing cardiac output include which of the following?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      There is a correlation between resting CO and body surface area. The output per min per square meter of body surface (the cardiac index) averages 3.2l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - In addition to its role in digestion and absorption of fats, bile: ...

    Correct

    • In addition to its role in digestion and absorption of fats, bile:

      Your Answer: Is the major excretory route for lipid-soluble waste products

      Explanation:

      The end product of haem metabolism is bilirubin and jaundice is caused by increased bilirubin levels in the blood. Gallstones are mainly caused by cholesterol and bile pigments. Bile is the main route of excretion for lipid soluble waste products whereas urine is the main route of excretion of water soluble waste products.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home....

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home. He was diagnosed with osteoporosis about five years ago. He presently complains of significant low back pain. A lumbar spine X-ray was suggestive of a fractured lumbar vertebra. A subsequent MRI scan of the lumbosacral spine revealed a new L3 burst fracture with no evidence of cord compression. A neurosurgical consult was sought and conservative management was planned accordingly in the form of pain control, physiotherapy, and mobilization (as allowed by the pain). He also has been diagnosed with chronic renal disease (stage IV) with a creatinine clearance of 21ml/min, he was started on a Buprenorphine patch. Which of the following opioids would be safest to use for his breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Oxycodone is a safer opioid to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure.Active metabolites of morphine accumulate in renal failure which means that long-term use is contraindicated in patients with moderate/severe renal failure. These toxic metabolites can accumulate causing toxicity and risk overdose. Oxycodone is mainly metabolised in the liver and thus safer to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure with dose reductions.Adverse effects:Constipation is the most common overall side effect. Others include: asthenia, dizziness, dry mouth, headache, nausea, pruritus, etc. Medications in renal failure:Drugs to be avoided in patients with renal failureAntibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoinNSAIDsLithiumMetforminDrugs that require dose adjustment:Most antibiotics including penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, streptomycinDigoxin, atenololMethotrexateSulphonylureasFurosemideOpioidsRelatively safe drugs:Antibiotics: erythromycin, rifampicinDiazepamWarfarin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto...

    Correct

    • The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:

      Your Answer: Southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - Why does arterial blood pressure drop during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Why does arterial blood pressure drop during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Progesterone relaxes vascular smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Progesterone relaxes vascular smooth muscle thus resulting In a decrease in total peripheral resistance. This accounts for the increase in the cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?...

    Incorrect

    • In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?

      Your Answer: Kidneys

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Gitelman syndrome is an autosomal recessive kidney disorder characterized by hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis with hypocalciuria, and hypomagnesemia. In contrast to patients with Gordon’s syndrome, those suffering from Gitelman’s syndrome are generally normotensive or hypotensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply?

      Your Answer: Portal hypophysial vessels

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary receives its arterial supply from the superior hypophyseal artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid that forms a capillary around the hypothalamus; thus forming the hypothalamo-hypophysial portal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - Choose the correct statement. The cells of the liver… ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement. The cells of the liver…

      Your Answer: Help to maintain the normal blood glucose level.

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of vitamin D3 takes place in both the liver and in the kidneys. The liver is responsible for an intermediate step and final synthesis takes place in the kidneys. Immunoglobulins are manufactured by plasma cells in respective organs where there is antigen exposure. The liver plays a major role in maintaining blood glucose levels by converting excess glucose to glycogen and converting glycogen back to glucose in time of need. Hepatocytes have enzymes that can deactivate steroid hormones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol

      Explanation:

      Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer: 5-HT2 antagonist

      Correct Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

      Sumatriptan acts as an agonist on 5-HT1B/1D receptors by inducing vasoconstriction in the basilar artery and blood vessels within the dura mater. The drug reduces peripheral nociception either by selective cranial vasoconstriction or by affecting trigeminovascular nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes...

    Incorrect

    • The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes contraction of the intrinsic sphincter?

      Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) is a specific region of the oesophageal circular smooth muscle. It allows the passage of a food bolus to the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus. The tone of the LOS is myogenic in origin and depends on smooth muscle properties that lead to the opening of Ca2+ channels but can also be modulated by enteric motor neurons, the parasympathetic and sympathetic extrinsic nervous system and several neurohumoral substances. Nitric oxide causes LOS relaxation. Acetylcholine and tachykinins are involved in the LOS contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the? ...

    Correct

    • Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Renal protein reabsorption is the part of renal physiology that deals with the retrieval of filtered proteins, preventing them from disappearing from the body through the urine. Almost all reabsorption takes place in the proximal tubule. Only ,1% is left in the final urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity?

      Your Answer: α fiber

      Explanation:

      α nerve fibers are characterized by being highly myelinated, which confers them with fast conduction properties. They innervate extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers, and their conduction velocity is between 80-120 m/s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - What is the function of cytotoxic T cells? ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of cytotoxic T cells?

      Your Answer: Kill by inserting perforins and by initiating apoptosis

      Explanation:

      Cytotoxic T cells, once activated, approach the infected cell, insert perforins and release granzymes inducing apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle.

      Explanation:

      Although the majority of the filtered magnesium is reabsorbed within the ascending loop of Henle, it is now recognized that the distal tubule also plays an important role in magnesium conservation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron? ...

    Correct

    • Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Tubular interstitial cells

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the following group of nerves?

      Your Answer: CN III, IV, V2, VI

      Correct Answer: CN III, IV, V1, VI

      Explanation:

      The superior and inferior divisions of oculomotor nerve (III), trochlear nerve (IV), lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of ophthalmic V1 and the abducens nerve (VI)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the following is most likely to be a feature of this type of carcinoma?

      Your Answer: It is capable of metastasising via the lymphatics

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell skin cancer usually presents as a hard lump with a scaly top but can also form an ulcer. Onset is often over months and it is more likely to spread to distant areas than basal cell cancer vie the lymphatics. The greatest risk factor is high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Other risks include prior scars, chronic wounds, actinic keratosis, lighter skin, Bowen’s disease, arsenic exposure, radiation therapy, poor immune system function, previous basal cell carcinoma, and HPV infection. While prognosis is usually good, if distant spread occurs five-year survival is ,34%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle...

    Incorrect

    • In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle contraction at high degrees of stretch is due to:

      Your Answer: A decrease in the number of cross bridges between myosin and actin

      Correct Answer: Disruption of myocardial fibers

      Explanation:

      Starling law states that the force of contraction is directly proportional to the preload. When the heart muscle is stretched beyond its limit the tension that is developed decreases, this is not due to loss of formation of effective myosin and actin cross bridges. The heart muscles despite being fully stretched is never stretched to this point. The reason for this decreased tension is physical disruption of the myocardial fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old boy, thin with a tall stature, and a high arched palate arrives at the hospital with a spontaneous pneumothorax. He is accompanied by his brother who has a similar appearance. You suspect Marfan's Syndrome. The gene encoding which of the following proteins is defective in this condition?

      Your Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      A variety of proteins compose the structure of microfibrils, the most prominent of which are the two fibrillins. Fibrillin-1 a scaffolding protein is encoded by FBN1 on human chromosome 15q21 and fibrillin-2 is encoded by FBN2 on 5q23. Mutations in FBN1 produce Marfan syndrome, a pleiotropic autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder with prominent manifestations in the skeleton, eye and cardiovascular system. A number of conditions related to Marfan syndrome are also due to FBN1 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - An important enzyme in renal tissue responsible for the conversion of glutamine to...

    Correct

    • An important enzyme in renal tissue responsible for the conversion of glutamine to glutamate and the subsequent production of NH4 is called?

      Your Answer: Glutaminase

      Explanation:

      Glutaminase catalyses the following reaction:Glutamine + H2O → Glutamate + NH3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach ...

    Correct

    • HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - Salty taste is triggered by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Salty taste is triggered by:

      Your Answer: Heterotrimeric g-protein, gustducon

      Correct Answer: Amiloride-sensitive sodium channel

      Explanation:

      Amiloride-sensitive sodium channels also known as epithelial Na channels is a membrane bound ion channel that is selectively permeable to Na+ ions. These channels are located throughout different epithelial membranes in the body. It is found in taste receptor cells, where it plays an important role in salt taste perception. They are also located in the kidney, the lung and the colon. Hyperpolarization-activated, cyclic nucleotide-gated (HCN) voltage-gated ion channels are widely seen in the cortex, hippocampus, thalamus and brain regions that underlie the generation of both focal and generalized-onset seizures. The metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluRs) perform a variety of functions in the central and peripheral nervous systems. They are involved in learning, memory, anxiety, and the perception of pain. Gustducin is a G protein associated with taste and gustatory system. It plays a major role in sensation of bitter, sweet and umami stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes: ...

    Correct

    • Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:

      Your Answer: Influx of Ca++ & Na+

      Explanation:

      Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a 22 year old man with seropositive rheumatoid arthritis who is planning to start a family?

      Your Answer: Leflunomide

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone although has many undesirable side effects it may be considered relatively safe compared to the drugs that are provided here. Prolonged treatment with sulphasalazine may depress semen quality and cause irreversible infertility. Methotrexate and leflunomide both inhibit purine/pyrimidine synthesis (the former by inhibiting folate metabolism) and are contraindicated in pregnancy or while trying to conceive. In males, a temporary or permanent decrease in sperm count may occur with cyclophosphamide. Because the recovery of fertility after cyclophosphamide therapy is variable, sperm banking should be considered before treatment is begun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - Bile contains: ...

    Correct

    • Bile contains:

      Your Answer: Bile acids, phosphatidylcholine, cholesterol

      Explanation:

      The main components of bile include bile acids or bile salts, phospholipids; mainly phosphatidylcholine, cholesterol, bilirubin, inorganic salts; potassium, sodium and bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - What is the function of basic electrical rhythm ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of basic electrical rhythm

      Your Answer: To coordinate peristalsis and other motor activity

      Explanation:

      The basal or basic electrical rhythm (BER) or electrical control activity (ECA) determines the frequency of the contractions in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, thus acting to coordinate peristalsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - To which protein is T3 mostly bound in the serum? ...

    Correct

    • To which protein is T3 mostly bound in the serum?

      Your Answer: Thyroxin-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      In a normal person, approximately 0.03 per cent of the total serum T4, and 0.3 per cent of the total serum T3 are present in free or unbound form. The major serum thyroid hormone-binding proteins are: 1) thyroxine-binding globulin [TBG or thyropexin], 2) transthyretin [TTR or thyroxine-binding prealbumin (TBPA)], and 3) albumin (HAS, human serum albumin). TBG has highest affinity for T4, which is 50-fold higher than that of TTR and 7,000-fold higher that of HSA. As a result TBG binds 75% of serum T4, while TTR and HSA binds only 20% and Albumin 5%, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - The triangle with the heart at its centre, using limb leads is called:...

    Correct

    • The triangle with the heart at its centre, using limb leads is called:

      Your Answer: Einthoven

      Explanation:

      The Einthoven triangle is formed by placing the limb leads on both the arms and on the left leg with the heart in the centre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - Oxidation is defined as a: ...

    Correct

    • Oxidation is defined as a:

      Your Answer: Loss of electrons from molecules

      Explanation:

      Oxidation is the loss of electrons or an increase in oxidation state by a molecule, atom, or ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - To which of the following plasma proteins is T4 most bound in plasma?...

    Correct

    • To which of the following plasma proteins is T4 most bound in plasma?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Thyroxine-binding globulin, also known as TBG, is one of the three transport proteins responsible for carrying T4 and T3 through the circulatory system. It carries most of the T4 present in plasma, which it binds to strongly, shielding the hydrophobic hormones from the aqueous surroundings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?

      Your Answer: Malar rash

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - During which phase of the cardiac cycle does most of the ventricular filling...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase of the cardiac cycle does most of the ventricular filling occur?

      Your Answer: Atrial systole

      Correct Answer: Ventricular diastole

      Explanation:

      During the phase of ventricular diastole when the heart muscle relaxes and all the valves are open, blood flows easily into the heart. This is the phase of rapid ventricular filling. During isovolumetric contraction and relaxation the volume of blood in the heart does not change. During ventricular ejection blood enters into the aorta and pulmonary vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - What is the structure of nucleosomes? ...

    Correct

    • What is the structure of nucleosomes?

      Your Answer: Strands of double strand DNA + histones

      Explanation:

      DNA is packed and condensed by binding to histone proteins. The double stranded DNA forms a complex with histone proteins which is called a nucleosome. There are 8 histone proteins contained in one core of nucleosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - Amongst the following cells, which is responsible for the secretion of defensins? ...

    Correct

    • Amongst the following cells, which is responsible for the secretion of defensins?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils are phagocytic and they are directed against helminths. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions and contain histamine and vasoactive granules in their cytoplasm. Mast cells are similar to basophils. Monocytes differentiate into macrophages in the tissue, secret interleukins and are phagocytic. Neutrophils are phagocytic but are also responsible for secreting defensins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH?

      Your Answer: TRH

      Explanation:

      Thyrotropin-releasing hormone, also known as TRH, thyrotropin-releasing factor, TRF is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus. It functions as a releasing hormone, promoting the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone or thyrotropin and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - Which of the following initiates migrating motor complex ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following initiates migrating motor complex

      Your Answer: Motilin

      Explanation:

      Migrating motor complexes (MMC) are thought to be partially regulated by motilin, which is initiated in the stomach as a response to vagal stimulation, and does not directly depend on extrinsic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - Where is the most erythropoietin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the most erythropoietin produced?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow

      Correct Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper...

    Correct

    • An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - The cells that secrete HCL are found in which part of the stomach?...

    Correct

    • The cells that secrete HCL are found in which part of the stomach?

      Your Answer: Body

      Explanation:

      The stomach can be divided in to different regions. Cardia, fundus, body, antrum and pylorus from proximal end to distal end respectively. Different cell types are distributed accordingly among the regions of the stomach. Cells that secret HCl in the gastric mucosa are known as parietal cells and are abundant in the gastric body region. They have receptors for acetylcholine stimulated via the vagus nerve, histamine receptors and gastrin receptors which stimulate gastric acid secretion. G cells that secret gastrin are abundant in the antrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - The hepatic portal vein: ...

    Correct

    • The hepatic portal vein:

      Your Answer: Carries mainly nutrients from the GIT.

      Explanation:

      The portal vein contains oxygen as any other vein in the body does. The hepatic veins are responsible for venous drainage of the liver. The main function of the portal vein is to carry absorbed nutrients in the gut for metabolism and detoxification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - VIP, GIP and somatostatin play an inhibitory role in gastric acid secretion by...

    Incorrect

    • VIP, GIP and somatostatin play an inhibitory role in gastric acid secretion by inactivating?

      Your Answer: Chief cells

      Correct Answer: G cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is secreted from the G cells. VIP, GIP and somatostatin all inhibit acid production by inhibiting the G cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - The following can cause steatorrhea except ...

    Correct

    • The following can cause steatorrhea except

      Your Answer: Diseases that destroy the endocrine portion of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Dietary fats and lipids are usually efficiently digested and over 90% absorbed. Impaired digestion or absorption can result in fatty stools. Possible causes include exocrine (not endocrine) pancreatic insufficiency, with poor digestion from lack of lipases, loss of bile salts, which reduces micelle formation, and small intestinal disease producing malabsorption. Various other causes including certain medicines that block fat absorption, or indigestible or excess oil/fat in diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except: ...

    Correct

    • The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except:

      Your Answer: Lateral spinal artery

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord (SC) is supplied by the single anterior spinal artery which supplies the anterior two thirds of the SC and paired posterior spinal arteries supplying the posterior one third. Anastomoses between the spinal arteries supply the lateral column. These arteries originate near the cervico-occipital junction and therefore have a smaller calibre and often discontinue. Thus, they require reinforcement by segmental/radicular arteries which are branches of the ascending cervical artery, deep cervical artery, intercostal arteries, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days back. Which among the following statements is true regarding ezetimibe?

      Your Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption

      Explanation:

      Ezetimibe is a cholesterol-lowering agent that acts to prevent cholesterol absorption by directly inhibiting cholesterol receptors on enterocytes.It does not affect the absorption of drugs (e.g. digoxin, thyroxine) or fat-soluble vitamins (A, D and K) as the anion-exchange resins do. It does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.The increased risk of myositis associated with the statins is not seen with ezetimibe.The most common adverse effects include headache, runny nose, and sore throat. Less common reactions include body aches, back pain, chest pain, diarrhoea, joint pain, fatigue, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old real estate agent takes hydrocortisone 20mg in the mornings and 5mg at night for Addison’s disease. The endocrinology consultant would like her to take prednisolone instead. What dose of prednisolone should be started?

      Your Answer: 7 mg

      Explanation:

      1mg Prednisolone = 4mg hydrocortisone, so the actual equivalent daily dose is 7mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (26/38) 68%
Medicine (159/200) 80%
Neurology (15/21) 71%
Connective Tissue (12/17) 71%
Geriatrics (3/3) 100%
Gastrointestinal (24/27) 89%
Pharmacology (20/21) 95%
Cell Biology (5/7) 71%
Genetics (11/13) 85%
Metabolism (8/8) 100%
Haematology (5/9) 56%
Endocrinology (10/13) 77%
Renal (5/6) 83%
Dermatology (3/3) 100%
Research Skills (2/2) 100%
Hepatobiliary (4/5) 80%
Immunology (4/4) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Passmed