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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome presents with oedema, low serum albumin and proteinuria. In which of the following circumstances is albumin infusion indicated?
Your Answer: Polyuria
Correct Answer: Capillary refill time of 5 seconds
Explanation:In nephrotic syndrome, one of the main pathological processes is the excretion of protein by the kidneys. The resultant signs including| low serum albumin, oedema and hypovolemia all occur as a result of fluid escaping into the extracellular space due to a low oncotic pressure. While an albumin infusion may help to increase oncotic pressure, its indications specifically include hypovolemia, which is assessed by a capillary refill time more than 5 seconds, an elevated haematocrit, or severe symptomatic oedema, such as scrotal oedema. Hypertension not an indication for an infusion, and most patients needing an albumin infusion have oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history of proximal myopathy. He has missed motor milestones and has pseudohypertrophy of the calves. Doctors suspect it might be Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which of the following should you advise the parents?
Your Answer: Cardiac muscle is not affected by DMD| arm and leg muscle weakness is the main concern
Correct Answer: Girl offspring have a less than 10% chance of inheriting the condition
Explanation:Although initially thought to affect only boys, girls with DMD also have an estimated 10% chance of inheriting the condition. In girls, DMD may present with all or some clinical manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?
Your Answer: The parachute reflex is absent
Correct Answer: The Moro reflex is absent
Explanation:Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?
Your Answer: Sub dural haematoma
Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 5 year old girl presents with impaired hearing capacity. Her mother admits she often has to repeat herself to be heard. History reveals that the girl often watches television in high volume. Weber test reveals that the sounds are louder on the left side. What can you conclude from these findings?
Your Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.
Explanation:To get more information regarding hearing loss, a physician should perform both Rinne and Weber tests. Weber test alone cannot tell which side is affected.Rinne test – a vibrating tuning fork (typically 512 Hz) is placed initially on the mastoid process behind each ear until sound is no longer heard. Then, without re-striking the fork, the fork is then quickly placed just outside the ear with the patient asked to report when the sound caused by the vibration is no longer heard. A normal or positive Rinne test is when sound is still heard when the tuning fork is moved to air near the ear (air conduction or AC), indicating that AC is equal or greater than (bone conduction or BC).Weber’s test – tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears. The patient is then asked which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localised to the unaffected side however in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localised to the affected side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 12 year old boy has a high HbA1c and is being checked by the diabetic specialist nurse. He has been skipping meals lately and his school teachers have noticed that he's been unhappy. Who do you suggest his parents take him to?
Your Answer: Paediatrician
Correct Answer: Clinical psychologist
Explanation:The boy is most probably a type 1 diabetic patient. Such a condition can affect the behaviour and psychological state of a young child reflected in their behaviour. The parents should seek the help of a clinical psychologist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?
Your Answer: Renal tract ultrasound
Correct Answer: Cranial ultrasound
Explanation:The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fragile X
Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?
Your Answer: Pyelonephritis
Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome
Explanation:Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%. The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's daughter inheriting the condition?
Your Answer: 0%
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis. What ocular manifestation in this boy would indicate that he has inherited the condition?
Your Answer: Optic glioma
Correct Answer: Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium
Explanation:Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is one of FAP’s extra-intestinal manifestations. It appears in early childhood and affects an estimated 90% of those with FAP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 13
Correct
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A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an X-ray, a pelvic U/S and a brain MRI. Which of the following reasons would result in an advanced bone age?
Your Answer: Androgen excess
Explanation:Androgen excess is one of the most common causes of advanced bone age. It usually occurs in precocious puberty or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?
Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis can have different inheritance patterns.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the APC gene, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person has one parent with the condition.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the MUTYH gene, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Most often, the parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 15
Correct
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What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery?
Your Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch
Explanation:There are 6 pharyngeal arches, the fifth does not contribute any useful structures and often fuses with the sixth arch. The structures arising from the aortic arches are as follows:First aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part that gives rise to the maxillary artery.Second aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part giving rise to the stapedial artery.Third aortic arch: This arch is the source of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery, and the external carotid which arises as a bud from this arch.Right Fourth aortic arch: Is the genesis of the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.Left Fourth aortic arch: Gives rise to the medial portion of the arch of the aorta.Fifth aortic arch: The fifth aortic arch regresses completely and very early in the development.Sixth aortic arch: Either of the sixth aortic arches divides into ventral and dorsal segments, and therefore, their derivatives also divide into these two segments.Right Sixth Arch:Ventral: Gives rise to the right pulmonary artery.Dorsal: It degenerates completely and loses its connection with the dorsal aorta.Left Sixth ArchVentral: It gives rise to the left pulmonary artery that goes to the left pulmonary bud.Dorsal: It forms a vital connection during intrauterine life between the left pulmonary artery and the arch of the aorta. This structure is called ductus arteriosus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following disorders is correctly linked to associated mutations?
Your Answer: Fabry disease - trinucleotide repeat disorders
Correct Answer: Charcot- Marie-Tooth- whole gene duplication
Explanation:Types of DNA mutations and their impactpoint mutation:Substitution: One base is incorrectly added during replication and replaces the pair in the corresponding position on the complementary strand as in Sickle cell anaemiaInsertion: One or more extra nucleotides are inserted into replicating DNA, often resulting in a frameshift as in one form of beta-thalassemiaDeletion: One or more nucleotides is skipped during replication or otherwise excised, often resulting in a frameshift as in Cystic fibrosis.Chromosomal mutation:Inversion: One region of a chromosome is flipped and reinserted as in Opitz-Kaveggia syndromeDeletion: A region of a chromosome is lost, resulting in the absence of all the genes in that area as in Cri du chat syndromeDuplication: A region of a chromosome is repeated, resulting in an increase in dosage from the genes in that region as in some cancers and Charcot-Marie toothTranslocation: A region from one chromosome is aberrantly attached to another chromosome as in One form of leukaemiaCopy number variation:Gene amplification: The number of tandem copies of a locus is increased as in Some breast cancersExpanding trinucleotide repeat: The normal number of repeated trinucleotide sequences is expanded as in Fragile X syndrome, Huntington’s disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of increased body temperature, rhinorrhoea and an unusual bark-like cough. The girl is also drooling because of excessive salivation. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: IV antibiotics
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:The symptoms and signs described are typical for epiglottitis which represents a paediatric emergency and the child should be put immediately on corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The neurological examination is unremarkable except for seven brown macules on the skin that vary in diameter from 1 to 2 cm. Clinical examination reveals several freckles in the axilla and the inguinal region. What is the most probably underlying condition?
Your Answer: Pseudarthrosis
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma
Explanation:Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma is a benign slow-growing tumour. The clinical picture of the child suggests neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), with cafe-au-lait spots and axillary and inguinal freckling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Rectal prolapse
Correct Answer: IgA deficiency
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with the following conditions:- Dermatitis herpetiformis- Autoimmune disorders (e.g. thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, diabetes)- IgA deficiency- Small-bowel malignancy, particularly lymphoma, if the gluten-free diet is not followed.Serology testing: The IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the most sensitive and specific, compared with the anti-endomysial antibody. However, false negatives will occur in children who are IgA-deficient, and IgA levels should be taken at the same time. Other options:Distal obstruction syndrome, meconium ileus, pancreatitis and rectal prolapse are all gastrointestinal manifestations of cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right eye. On examination there was no proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sinusitis
Correct Answer: Peri orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Infections of the superficial skin around the eyes are called periorbital, or preseptal, cellulitis. It is predominantly a paediatric disease. Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis which extends into the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Sinusitis is in sinuses. Orbital infections and conjunctivitis are within the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents with offensive stool, clubbing of fingers, and recurrent chest pain. Choose the single most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: Barium meal
Correct Answer: Sweat test
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a progressive, genetic disease. A defective gene causes a thick, sticky build-up of mucus in the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps bacteria leading to infections, extensive lung damage, and eventually, respiratory failure. In the pancreas, the mucus prevents the release of digestive enzymes that allow the body to break down food and absorb vital nutrients. Since the digestive enzymes are not being made, the food is not completely digested making them bulky, smelly, and hard to flush away. Finger clubbing is a prominent feature of cystic fibrosis on most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:
Your Answer: The chemical causes the disorder
Correct Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5
Explanation:Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 11 month old baby develops periumbilical abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea after having a sore throat and fever for a few days. He presents to the A&E department and an ultrasound is done which shows a 'target sign' on the right side of the abdomen. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics
Explanation:Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics.Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction (blockage). Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. The obstruction can cause swelling and inflammation that can lead to intestinal injury. The patient with intussusception is usually an infant, often one who has had an upper respiratory infection, who presents with the following symptoms:Vomiting: Initially, vomiting is nonbilious and reflexive, but when the intestinal obstruction occurs, vomiting becomes biliousAbdominal pain: Pain in intussusception is colicky, severe, and intermittentPassage of blood and mucus: Parents report the passage of stools, by affected children, that look like currant jelly| this is a mixture of mucus, sloughed mucosa, and shed blood| diarrhoea can also be an early sign of intussusceptionLethargy: This can be the sole presenting symptom of intussusception, which makes the condition’s diagnosis challengingPalpable abdominal massDiagnosis:Ultrasonography: Hallmarks of ultrasonography include the target and pseudo kidney signs.For all children, start intravenous fluid resuscitation and nasogastric decompression as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is recovering from bilateral parotitis. She complains of a continuous headache and drowsiness. A CT brain is done which is normal. What is the best definitive investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging
Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:This patient might have viral meningitis as he recently suffered viral parotitis(Mumps). Microscopy and culture of the CSF would show a CSF lymphocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy falls into the swimming pool whilst playing and almost drowns. His parents start BLS and transfer him to the emergency department. You attach him to the cardiac monitoring and you notice ventricular fibrillation. You immediately start on CRP algorithm for shockable rhythms. Which of the following may result in a poor defibrillation response?
Your Answer: Hypoxia
Correct Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Guidelines suggest that when hypothermia manifests in the context of a shockable rhythm, it might get harder to defibrillate. Therefore, defibrillation is recommended to occur at temperatures below 30°C, and to be limited in three shocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child’s condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?
Your Answer: Excess insulin administration
Correct Answer: Somogyi effect
Explanation:Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?
Your Answer: Romano-Ward syndrome
Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome
Explanation:Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 5 year old boy fell and hit his head. The parents say that after the fall he cried immediately and then vomited four times. They brought him to the emergency department one hour after the event. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 15 and he has a 6 cm haematoma on the right side of his head. Neurological examination is normal and he has full memory of what happened. What would you do next?
Your Answer: Discuss with neurosurgery
Correct Answer: Observe for 4 hours from the time of injury
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that when a child’s single risk factor is 2 vomits, the child should be observed for 4 hours from the time of the injury, instead of having a CT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:
Your Answer: 46,YO
Correct Answer: 45,XO
Explanation:Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders| occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy was brought at the hospital by his mother due to sudden onset pyrexia with emesis and bilateral facial swelling. Upon history taking, she mentions that she brought her son to the GP who suggested analgesics for his bilateral parotid pain, 2 days ago. What would be the next step of your management?
Your Answer: Antibiotic
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:The history is suggestive of mumps. Mumps is a viral disease with initial signs and symptoms including fever, muscle pain, headache, poor appetite, and feeling tired. This is then usually followed by painful swelling of one or both parotid salivary glands. Mumps is a self-limiting condition treated only for symptomatic relief. As he currently is taking analgesics for pain relief, one should only offer reassurance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A healthy male who has a brother with cystic fibrosis. His wife, who has no family history of cystic fibrosis, wants to know their chance of having a child affected by cystic fibrosis.What is the best estimate of the risk if the population carrier rate of cystic fibrosis is 1 in 25?
Your Answer: 1 in 100
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.This means that to have CF, a person must have a mutation in both copies of the CFTR gene in each cell. People with CF inherit one mutated copy of the gene from each parent, who is referred to as a carrier.CF carriers can pass their copy of the CFTR gene mutation to their children. Each time two CF carriers have a child together, the chances are: 25 percent (1 in 4) the child will have CF50 percent (1 in 2) the child will be a carrier but will not have CF25 percent (1 in 4) the child will not be a carrier of the gene and will not have CFThis male’s parents are obligate carrier because he has a sibling with CFSo the chances he is a carrier too are 2 in 3The risk of having an affected child is the chance of both himself and his partner being carriers: (2/3 × 1/25 = 2/75) × 1/4 = 1/150.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Raised TSH level
Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level
Explanation:A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?
Your Answer: Adrenal medulla
Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity
Explanation:Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby born breech?
Your Answer: X-Ray
Correct Answer: USS
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a spectrum of anatomical abnormalities of the hip joint in which the femoral head has an abnormal relationship with the acetabulum.Plain radiographs are of limited value for diagnosis in the new-born child because the femoral head and acetabulum are largely cartilaginous. Ultrasound scanning is the investigation of choice to evaluate DDH in infants younger than six months of age and is useful to diagnose more subtle forms of the disorder when a clinical exam is equivocal. It is also the only imaging modality that enables a three-dimensional real-time image of a neonate’s hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?
Your Answer: Atrial Flutter
Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 36
Correct
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A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a consult with a dietician, a decision was made to supplement her nutrition through total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which of the following is a common complication associated with TPN?
Your Answer: Deranged liver function tests
Explanation:Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) frequently causes derangement of liver function in children. Other options:- While line sepsis and thromboembolism are recognised complications of TPN, they do not occur frequently. – A child who is on TPN will require regular blood tests because of the potential for the development of electrolyte abnormalities. Need to observe their liver function, in order to provide TPN more accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 37
Correct
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Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer: Periventricular cerebral calcifications are an associated feature
Explanation:One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. The infection is even commoner than the other widely known diseases like down’s syndrome and spina bifida. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5 and is diagnosed using PCR of saliva. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is diagnosed at birth with marked neurological disability, resulting from microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, and cerebral atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination he has ambiguous genitalia. The lab results are as follows: Na: 125mmol/L, K: 6mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Turners syndrome
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) comprises a group of autosomal recessive defects in enzymes that are responsible for cortisol, aldosterone, and, in very rare cases, androgen synthesis. All forms of CAH are characterized by low levels of cortisol, high levels of ACTH, and adrenal hyperplasia. The exact clinical manifestations depend on the enzyme defect. The most common form of CAH, which is caused by a deficiency of 21β-hydroxylase, presents with hypotension, ambiguous genitalia, and virilization (in the female genotype), and/or precocious puberty (in both males and females). It is further characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone confirm the diagnosis of 21β-hydroxylase deficiency. Treatment of CAH involves lifelong glucocorticoid replacement therapy. Patients with a 21β-hydroxylase deficiency also require mineralocorticoid replacement with fludrocortisone. Complications of CAH include severe hypoglycaemia, adrenal insufficiency, and/or a failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.Rationale:The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation. In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?
Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Correct Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Trendelenburg gait is an abnormal gait resulting from a defective hip abductor mechanism. The primary musculature involved is the gluteal musculature, including the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The weakness of these muscles causes drooping of the pelvis to the contralateral side while walking.Any pathology of the fulcrum, load, effort or the lever which binds all three will lead to a positive Trendelenburg gait.Failure of the fulcrum presents in the following conditions:Osteonecrosis of hipLegg-Calve-Perthes diseaseDevelopmental dysplasia of the hipChronically dislocated hips secondary to traumaChronically dislocated hips secondary to infections like tuberculosis of the hipFailure of the lever is a feature in the following conditions:Greater trochanteric avulsionNon-union of the neck of the femurCoxa VaraFailure of effort presents in the following conditions:PoliomyelitisL5 radiculopathySuperior gluteal nerve damageGluteus medius and minimus tendinitisGluteus medius and minimus abscessPost total hip arthroplastyThe gait of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis patients can be explained as a crouch-like gait with hyperflexion in hip and knee joints and less plantar flexion in the ankle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hepatitis C
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in the urine and pain in his abdomen. On examination, abdominal swelling is present and blood pressure is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Haematuria and abdominal swelling may indicate either polycystic kidney disease or a tumour. Because of the patient’s age, the likelihood of a tumorous growth is small, thus an ultrasound is the best choice for this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 44
Incorrect
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In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: The groups were not large enough to assess the efficacy of the new treatment
Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference
Explanation:The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?
Your Answer: TFT
Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies
Explanation:The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and soles of the extremities?
Your Answer: Folliculitis
Correct Answer: Tinea corporis
Explanation:Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body. It produces an itchy rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Diagnosis can be made by skin examination. All other mentioned conditions do not affect the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Liposarcoma
Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation:Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 48
Incorrect
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What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?
Your Answer: 25 cmH2O
Correct Answer: 30 cmH2O
Explanation:According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and lansoprazole for 1 week
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week
Explanation:European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 13 month old baby was taken to the hospital after his father saw that he had periorbital oedema for two days. He is seen by the doctor and noted to have facial oedema and a tender distended abdomen. His temperature is 39.1 and his blood pressure is 91/46 mmHg. There is also clinical evidence of poor peripheral perfusion. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sickle cell crisis
Correct Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Explanation:Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitisThe presence of periorbital and facial oedema with normal blood pressure in this toddler indicates that he has nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome can be associated with a series of complications that can affect an individual’s health and quality of life:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis can develop where there is ascites present. This is a frequent development in children but very rarely found in adults.Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is the development of a bacterial infection in the peritoneum, despite the absence of an obvious source for the infection. It is specifically an infection of the ascitic fluid – an increased volume of peritoneal fluid. Ascites is most commonly a complication of cirrhosis of the liver. It can also occur in patients with nephrotic syndrome. SBP has a high mortality rate.The diagnosis of SBP requires paracentesis, a sampling of the peritoneal fluid taken from the peritoneal cavity. If the fluid contains large numbers of white blood cells known as neutrophils (>250 cells/µL), infection is confirmed and antibiotics will be given, without waiting for culture results. In addition to antibiotics, infusions of albumin are usually administered.Signs and symptoms of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) include fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and tenderness, general malaise, altered mental status, and worsening ascites. Thirteen percent of patients have no signs or symptoms. In cases of acute or chronic liver failure SBP is one of the main triggers for hepatic encephalopathy, and where there is no other clear causal indication for this, SBP may be suspected.These symptoms can also be the same for a spontaneous fungal peritonitis (SFP) and therefore make a differentiation difficult. Delay of diagnosis can delay antifungal treatment and lead to a higher mortality rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes not require annually?
Your Answer: Blood test to look for dyslipidaemia
Correct Answer: Retinopathy screening
Explanation:Retinopathy screening need not be done on an annual basis for a 9-year-old child. Screening for diabetic retinopathy should begin at the age of 12.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike. Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking. Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?
Your Answer: Hypotension
Correct Answer: Pin point pupils
Explanation:Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Jamila, a 16 year old girl, was brought to the emergency centre following a collapse and abnormal movements earlier at school today. The episode occurred when she was walking to her next lesson with her friends. Suddenly she told her friends that she felt scared and complained that her vision had become blurry. She was helped to a chair where she sat for 15 minutes speaking incoherently before collapsing to the floor. Her friends observed irregular jerking movements of her right leg and left arm. The movement continued for about 15 minutes after which she was able to sit up unsupported but could not speak for about 20 minutes. There was also bleeding from the tongue which she had bit during the episode. She had a similar episode yesterday at home while on a video call with her mother. Her father narrated that she suddenly dropped the phone, and her eyes began to roll up. She initially remained standing but fell to the floor after a minute. He noticed irregular movements of both her legs, and her eyes were tightly shut. The movements ended after 2 minutes after which she became responsive to questions, but her eyes remained closed. She was brought later in the day, and was discharged after routine investigations. Jamila is a GCSE candidate preparing for her mock examinations, and currently lives with her father as her mother works abroad. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for Jamila’s condition?
Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope with secondary anoxic seizures
Correct Answer: Non-epileptic attack disorder
Explanation:Non Epileptic attack disorder, also known as psychogenic non epileptic seizures, is a condition characterised by episodes of abnormal movement and behaviours that resemble seizures , but are not caused by electrical activity changes in the brain. It is believed that the disorder is caused by the brain’s response to overwhelming or stressful situations. In Jamila’s case, triggering conditions for her episodes may have been the absence of her mother, and the stress of her upcoming examinations. A diagnosis of generalised epilepsy is unlikely because this would require abnormal movement in all 4 limbs during an episode and a longer period of semi consciousness after. Cataplexy can also be ruled out as it does not involve a loss of consciousness which we see in Jamila’s case. Vasovagal syncope does not correspond with the history as there was no evidence of simultaneous collapse and responsiveness coupled with colour change and near spontaneous recovery when supine. A complex partial seizure may be possible in Jamila’s case, however the history of long duration, her eyes being tightly shut and the differences in presentation between the two episodes makes it less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a left sided cataract after an ophthalmoscopic exam. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Hyperthyroidism is the least likely cause of cataract development as all of the other mentioned options can lead to eye problems. Asthma and crohn’s can lead to steroid induced cataract formation, while trauma to the eye can cause traumatic cataracts to develop afterwards. JIA often leads to uveitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old baby boy presented to the paediatrician with yellow discolouration of his skin and sclera. His mother says his stools are pale. On examination, he was found to be below average weight. What is a likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: G6PD deficiency
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Pale stools suggest obstructive jaundice. Initially, the symptoms of biliary atresia are indistinguishable from those of neonatal jaundice, a usually harmless condition commonly seen in infants. However, infants with biliary atresia develop progressive conjugated jaundice, pale white stools and dark urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools?
Your Answer: Gilbert syndrome
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that causes obstructive jaundice. Without surgical treatment, e.g. Roux-en-Y, Kasai procedure or liver transplantation, death is likely by 2 years of age. The aetiology of biliary atresia is unknown. Theories suggest a multitude of etiological and causative factors that are both genetic and acquired.The other conditions do not cause a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis. Blood investigations reveal:ALT: 50 IU/L (0–45) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 505 IU/L (0–105)Which of the following medications has she most likely been administered in the course of her treatment?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Based on the presentation, she probably was administered co-amoxiclav.The liver function tests are highly suggestive of cholestatic jaundice, which is a classic adverse dug reaction related to co-amoxiclav use.Other options:- Erythromycin is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal (GI) disturbance.- Gentamicin is more commonly associated with renal impairment.- Meropenem does not commonly cause cholestasis but is associated with transaminitis.- Vancomycin is associated with red man syndrome on fast administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 60
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old teenager is undergoing a thoracoscopic sympathectomy for axillary hyperhidrosis. Which one of the following structures is divided to access the sympathetic trunk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal pleura
Explanation:The sympathetic chain lies posterior to the parietal pleura. During a thorascopic sympathectomy, this structure will have to be divided. The intercostal vessels lie posteriorly. They may be damaged with troublesome bleeding but otherwise are best left alone as the deliberate division will not improve surgical access.The sympathetic nervous system:The cell bodies of the preganglionic efferent neurones lie in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the thoracolumbar regions.The preganglionic efferents leave the spinal cord at levels T1-L2. These pass to the sympathetic chain.Lateral branches of the sympathetic chain connect it to every spinal nerve. These postganglionic nerves will pass to structures that receive sympathetic innervation at the periphery.Sympathetic chains:These lie on the vertebral column and run from the base of the skull to the coccyx.Clinical correlation:Interruption of the head and neck supply of the sympathetic nerves will result in an ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome.For the treatment of hyperhidrosis, the sympathetic denervation can be achieved by removing the second and third thoracic ganglia with their rami. Removal of T1 will cause a Horner’s syndrome and is therefore not performed.In patients with vascular disease of the lower limbs, lumbar sympathectomy may be performed, either radiologically or (more rarely now) surgically. The ganglia of L2 and below are disrupted. Care should be taken to preserve the L1 ganglion. If it is removed in male patients, ejaculation may be compromised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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